6501 FINAL TEST PREP.docx - 6501 FINAL TEST PREP CHAPTER 32 1 A nurse recalls the major hormonal determinant of sexual differentiation in utero is a

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Unformatted text preview: 6501 FINAL TEST PREP CHAPTER 32 1. A nurse recalls the major hormonal determinant of sexual differentiation in utero is: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Growth hormone d. Testosterone d 2. A nurse is preparing to teach about puberty. Which information should the nurse include? One substance associated with puberty in males and females is the hormone: a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Leptin d. Estrogen c 3. A nurse is discussing female anatomy. Which body structure contains the openings to the vagina and urinary meatus? a. Vestibule b. Mons pubis c. Introitus d. Perineal body a 4. While preparing to teach the staff about female anatomy, which information should be included? During the years that a woman is more likely to be sexually active, the vagina mucosa is protected from infection by: a. Presence of autoantibodies b. An acidic pH c. b Low estrogen levels d. Douching 5. When a staff member asks the nurse what the thick middle layer of the uterine wall is called, what is the nurse's best response? The: a. Epithelial layer b. Endometrium c. Myometrium d. Perimetrium c 6. A nurse recalls the _____ is lined with columnar epithelial cells. a. Perimetrium b. Endocervical canal c. Myometrium d. Vagina b 7. A nurse is preparing to teach about female anatomy. Which information should the nurse include? The female erectile organ that secretes smegma is called the: a. Introitus b. Bartholin glands c. Clitoris d. Labia minora c 8. A nurse is teaching about the menstrual cycle. Spinnbarkeit mucus is present during which stage of the menstrual cycle? a. Follicular b. Ovulation c. Luteal d. Menstrual b 9. When the nurse describes the duct that carries the ovum from the ovary to the uterus, what is the nurse discussing? The: a. Isthmus b. Corpus c. Endocervical canal d. Fallopian tube d 10. A nurse is teaching the staff about female hormones. Which hormone promotes the formation of channels in the mucus of the cervical os to facilitate sperm movement into the uterus? a. LH b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen d 11. When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond? The: a. Uterus b. Fimbriae c. Ampulla of the fallopian tubes d. Os of the fallopian tubes c 12. A nurse is teaching about the female anatomy. Which information should the nurse include? Cells of the ____ have receptors for gonadotropins. a. Uterus b. Breast c. Ovary d. Vagina c 13. The nurse is preparing to teach the staff about female anatomy. Which information b should the nurse include? The ova are contained within the ovarian: a. Corpus luteum b. Follicle c. Stroma d. Infundibulum 14. Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of female anatomy? Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle then develops into: a. An atretic follicle b. A theca cell c. A corpus luteum d. Scar tissue c 15. When a staff member asks the nurse what is the most potent of the following estrogens, what is the nurse's best response? It is: a. Estradiol b. Testosterone c. Estrone d. Estriol a 16. Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of progesterone? Progesterone is primarily secreted by the: a. Follicle b. Corpus luteum c. Granulose cells d. Anterior pituitary b 17. A 56-year-old female is in menopause. She has ovarian failure. While checking the lab results, which of the following will the nurse find? a. a Increased FSH b. Increased estrogen c. Decreased GnRH d. Decreased LH 18. Progesterone is often referred to as "the hormone of pregnancy," and the patient asks what this phrase means. How should the nurse respond? Progesterone is the hormone of pregnancy because it: a. Stimulates lactation b. Increases ciliary action in the fallopian tubes c. Thins the endometrium d. Prevents smooth muscle contraction of the uterus d 19. When the nurse is teaching about the menstrual cycle, which information should be included? Menstruation is followed by the _____ phase of the menstrual cycle. a. Follicular b. Luteal c. Secretory d. Ischemic a 20. Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of the menstrual cycle? When estrogen and progesterone levels drop, the endometrium enters the _____ phase. a. Proliferative b. Luteal c. Menstrual d. Recovery c 21. A staff member asks the nurse when ovulation occurs. What is the nurse's best response? During the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs when: a. b There is a gradual decrease in estrogen levels. b. Inhibin B sharply spikes. c. A surge in progesterone occurs. d. Activin is released. 22. A nurse remembers the LH surge transforms granulosa cells into: a. Theca cells b. Corpus luteal cells c. Ova d. Fibroblasts b 23. A nurse is teaching about female hormones. Which information should the nurse include? Endometrial thickening during the proliferative phase is stimulated by increased levels of: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. FSH d. Inhibin a 24. A student asks the instructor which of the following hormones stimulates follicular maturation. How should the instructor respond? a. Activin b. Inhibin c. LH d. Follistatin a 25. Changes in the cervical mucus can be used to identify the periods in which a female is most fertile. How should the nurse describe cervical mucus during ovulation? a. Blood-tinged b. d Thin and watery c. Absent d. Abundant and elastic 26. A clinician is preparing to teach about spermatogenesis. Which information should the clinician include? Spermatogenesis occurs in the: a. Epididymis b. Inguinal canals c. Seminiferous tubules d. Vas deferens c 27. When a nurse is describing the male anatomy, which paired glands lie posterior to the urinary bladder in the male? a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate glands c. Cowper glands d. Parabladder glands a 28. A patient asks the nurse what is the most sensitive area of the penis. What is the nurse's best answer? The area of the penis with the most nerve endings is the: a. Foreskin b. Glans c. Corpora cavernosa d. Corpus spongiosum b 29. What term should the nurse use when discussing male sex hormones collectively? a. Gonadotropins b. Testosterones c. Catabolic steroids d d. Androgens 30. When discussing the difference between male and female sex hormones, which information should the nurse include? The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is that: a. LH has no apparent action in the male. b. Sex hormone production in the male is relatively constant. c. Estrogen is not produced in the male. d. In the male, GnRH does not cause the release of FSH. b 31. A nursing student asks the nurse where the glands of Montgomery are located. How should the nurse reply? The glands of Montgomery are located in the: a. Testes b. Breasts c. Uterus d. Vagina b 32. When a staff member asks which structure secretes glucose-rich fluid into the semen, how should the nurse respond? a. Seminal vesicles b. Ejaculatory duct c. Prostate gland d. Cowper gland a 33. When a teenager asks what makes the breast grow, what is the nurse's best response? The hormone that promotes breast development during puberty is: a. Progesterone b. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. d Estradiol 34. When a breastfeeding mom asks what causes letdown, which information should the nurse give the patient? The hormone that plays a role in breast milk ejection (letdown) during lactation is: a. Cortisol b. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone c 35. While speaking to a group of older males, which information should the nurse share? The following is a normal characteristic of aging and the male reproductive system: a. Changes in libido are not related to health status. b. Tissue responsiveness to testosterone is increased. c. Testicles will hypertrophy. d. Refractory time after ejaculation is prolonged. d 36. The nurse is discussing information about menopause with an older woman. Which of the following characteristics are associated with declining ovarian function with age? (Select all that apply.) a. Vasomotor flush b. Decline in bone mass c. Decreased risk of coronary disease d. Atrophy of the uterus e. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding a,b,d,e 37. A 25-year-old female has a menstrual cycle of 28 days' duration and asks the nurse what day of the cycle will ovulation occur. The nurse responds that ovulation will occur on day _____. 14 CHAPTER 33 1. The descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the Cystocele vaginal canal is called a _____. 2. Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? a painless lump 3. A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents with breast discharge and is diagnosed with galactorrhea. The condition is most likely caused by _____. Prolactin imbalance 4. During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst. Dermoid 5. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries. It would be classified as stage _____. I 6. A 21-year-old female is infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers? cervical 7. A 25-year-old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism and is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Lab testing will most likely reveal _____. Hyperinsulinemia 8. The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer. Endometrial 9. A 38-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cancer. She learns that her mother almost miscarried while pregnant with her and was given diethylstilbestrol (DES) to prevent it. Which of the following cancers does she most likely have? Vaginal 10. A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work beginning with the onset of menses. Physical examination supports the diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhea. The most likely cause of her condition is _____. elevated prostaglandins 11. An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with dysmenorrhea. Which of the following symptoms will she most likely experience? Painful menstruation 12. A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is being counseled by her OB-GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in _____. Infertility 13. A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called _____. Leiomyomas 14. A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious Candida albicans discharge and itch and is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis. This condition is caused by overgrowth of which micro-organism? 15. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis. Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease? Ovulation 16. The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ prolapse to be _____. A pessary CHAPTER 34 1. A 21-year-old presents with inflammation of the testes and is diagnosed with orchitis. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? C. Mumps A. Herpes virus. B. Escherichia coli. C. Mumps. D. Cytomegalovirus. 2. A common complaint from men with mild to moderate benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is _____. A. Decreased urinary stream A. Decreased urinary stream. B. Infertility. C. Sexual dysfunction. D. Prostatodynia. 3. A 30-year-old presents with penile tenderness and discharge while the physical examination reveals that his foreskin cannot be retracted back of the glans penis. This assessment data is consistent with what condition? B. Phimosis A. Paraphimosis. B. Phimosis. C. Peyronie disease. D. Priapism. 4. A 35-year-old presents with symptomology that is associated with syphilis. What organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? A. Treponema pallidum. B. Chlamydia trachomatis. C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D. Haemophilus ducreyi. A. Treponema pallidum 5. _____ is an inflammation of the glans penis. B. Balanitis A. Phimosis. B. Balanitis. C. Priapism. D. Hydrocele. 6. Cryptorchidism can be defined as _____. D. Problems with testicular descent A. A normal development state of the testes. B. An abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped. C. Lack of a scrotum. D. Problems with testicular descent. 7. A 38-year-old presents reporting difficulty having sexual intercourse because his penis bends during erection. What term describes this condition? D. Peyronie disease A. Phimosis. B. Cryptorchidism. C. Paraphimosis. D. Peyronie disease. 8. An example of a parasitic sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is transmitted through close skin-to-skin contact is _____. C. Scabies A. Chlamydia. B Syphilis. C. Scabies. D. Gardnerella. 9. A 25-year-old sexually active male presents with urethritis and epididymitis, and is diagnosed with the most common bacterial STI in the United States. What is this infection? C. Chlamydia A. Gonorrhea. B. Syphilis. C. Chlamydia. D. Herpes. 10. Symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis are similar to symptoms of _____. A. Prostate cancer. B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). C. Urinary tract infection (UTI). D. Epididymitis. C. Urinary tract infection (UTI) 11. An important factor in the development of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) among Americans is _____. D. Increased age A. Recurrent prostatitis. B. A diet high in fat. C. Cigarette smoking. D. Increased age. 12. In the majority of cases delayed puberty is due to _____. C. Slow maturation A. A disruption in the hypothalamus. B. A disruption in the pituitary. C. Slow maturation D. Ambiguity in sex determination. 13. The patient's medication has a side effect of gynecomastia. The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is _____. B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males A. Lack of breast development in women. B. Overdevelopment of breast tissue in males. C. A type of breast cancer. D. Inflammation of the mammary glands. Question 1 1 out of 1 points A 15-year-old female presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever. Tests reveal glomerulonephritis. When the parents ask what could have caused this, how should the nurse respond? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: a. Poststreptococcal infection a. Poststreptococcal infection Question 2 When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) 1 out of 1 points Question 3 1 out of 1 points A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: a. Hypokalem ia a. Hypokalem ia Question 4 1 out of 1 points A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Acute glomerulonephritis Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Primary enuresis c. Primary enuresis Question 6 1 out of 1 points A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. History reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the: Selected Answer: c. Respiratory tract Correct Answer: c. Respiratory tract Question 7 1 out of 1 points A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, and the nurse is discussing dietary treatment. Which information indicates the nurse understands dietary regimen? Treatment includes restricting: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Protein s c. Protein s Question 8 1 out of 1 points A urologist is discussing the phagocytic cells that lie between the layers of the renal corpuscle. What is the urologist describing? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Mesangial cells c. Mesangial cells Question 9 1 out of 1 points When a newborn is admitted with urinary tract infections (UTIs), which type of infection will the nurse look for in the newborn? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: b. Infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract b. Infections caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract Question 10 1 out of 1 points A nurse is reviewing urinalysis results and notices glucose is present in the urine. A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when: Selected Answer: b. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum Correct Answer: b. The carrier molecules have reached their maximum Question 11 1 out of 1 points A 25-year-old female presents with burning urination. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: d. Escherichia coli d. Escherichia coli Question 12 1 out of 1 points A 45-year-old female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When the patient asks what caused this anemia, how should the nurse respond? Your anemia is caused by: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: b. Inadequate production of erythropoietin b. Inadequate production of erythropoietin Question 13 1 out of 1 points A 35-year-old female was severely burned and is hospitalized. She is now suffering from acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? Selected Answer: Correct Answer: b. Intraren al b. Intraren al Question 14 1 out of 1 points A nurse is preparing to teach about the loop of Henle. Which information should be included? The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: d. Water reabsorption d. Water reabsorption Question 15 1 out of 1 points Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Inadequate production of erythropoietin c. Inadequate production of erythropoietin Question 16 1 out of 1 points A 3-year-old female presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs), fever, poor growth and development, and feeding problems. Tests reveal a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters. When giving report to the oncoming shift, the nurse will call this condition: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: a. Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) a. Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) Question 17 1 out of 1 points A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Inadequate renal blood flow c. Inadequate renal blood flow Question 18 1 out of 1 points While turning a patient with chronic renal failure, which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D. c. The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D. Question 19 1 out of 1 points While planning care for a patient who has acute pyelonephritis. A nurse recalls the most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is: Selected Answer: Correct Answer: c. Urinary tract obstruction c. Urinary tract obstruction Question 20 1 out of 1 points A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis...
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  • Spring '15
  • Chronic Renal Failure, urinary tract obstruction, 56-year-old female

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