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Unformatted text preview: asks Philemon to accept his runaway slave as a beloved brother as to create a new bond linking the owner to his human chattel. I dont understand how that is brotherly. No loving person enslaves their own family, or someone they accept as equal. I think that if he was to treat the slave as a beloved brother, then he should set him free. My question pertains to a passage from the Torah known as the Book of the Covenant. I dont comprehend where these specific guidelines come from. Why is it after six years servitude that a male Hebrew slave is to be set free? Why does the master get to keep any children born of the slave at this time? However, my biggest concern is if a person wishes to remain in slavery so they can be with their spouse and family, why must they mutilate their ear? I know it symbolizes the organ of obedience, as to indicate listening to your master, so why would you want to weaken it?...
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This note was uploaded on 05/06/2011 for the course THEOLOGY 220 taught by Professor Nichols during the Spring '11 term at Saint Louis.
- Spring '11