Unformatted text preview: The BIF of the FDIC had a negative $7.4 billion as of December 31, not as bad as the minus $20 billion at the end of 2009. One bank with no loss-share payments as of January is OneWest bank, which bought the loan portfolio of IndyMac Bank. Questions: 1. Why did the FDIC do the loss-sharing agreements, rather than just pay off the depositors and sell off the bad loans? Did they do it just to delay the losses or is there a real savings? 2. Is it OK for an insurer to run a negative balance in its insurance fund? How does the FDIC get away with it? 3. Do the loss-sharing agreements provide the right incentives for banks to monitor the delinquent borrowers?...
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- Spring '11
- Debt, Mortgage loan, FDIC, bank failure