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Unformatted text preview: MIMM413 NAME STUDENT NUMBER: VERSION 1 FACULTY OF SCIENCE DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY Parasitology MIMM-413 FINAL EXAMINATION Examiner: Dr. Z. Ali—Khan Date: Friday, April 15, 2005 Associate Examiner: Dr. G. Faubert Time: 2:00 p.m. DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS Read and follow these instructions carefully: 1. Computer sheets are provided for your answers. Do not fold or bend the sheets. 2. Print your name and student number on the front of the sheet. 3. Read each question and its numbered answers. When you have decided which alternative is the BEST, mark the whole of the corresponding oval space (bubble) on your answer sheet. Avoid making any stray marks outside the oval. You may use this question booklet for rough work, and you may mark the alternatives when you are considering them. 4. Do not answer more than one mark for any question, otherwise the computer will reject your sheet. If erasing, erase COMPLETELY. 5. NO PART OF THIS EXAMINATION MAY BE TAKEN OUT OF THIS ROOM UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. 6. Marking will be on the basis of +1 mark for a correct answer; questions unanswered or wrongly answered will be tallied as "0" when totalling your score. Three sections Time: 3 hours Total questions: 120 THIS EXAM COMPRISES 22 PAGES AND ALL MUST BE RETURNED. PLEASE INDICATE VERSION NUMBER ON ANSWER SHEET The Examination Security Monitor Program detects pairs of'stadents with unusually similar answer patterns on multiple—choice exams. Data generated by this program can be used as admissible evidence, either to initiate or corroborate an investigation or a charge of'cheating under Section 16 of the Code ofStua’ent Conduct and Disczplinary Procedures. MIMM413 SECTION I For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 1. Hemozoin is: 1. A new type of chemokine secreted during malaria infection. 2. A polysaccharide generated from the globin part of hemoglobin. 3. A synthetic molecule that can replace hemoglobin. 4. A metabolic waste release during malaria infection. 5. None ofthe above. 2. Which immune mechanism is the most appropriate to control: 1. Tijypanosoma brucei infection? Cellular immune response 2. Plasmodium infection (malaria)? Cellular immune response 3. Leishmam’a infection? Humoral immune response 4. Tiypanosoma brucei infection? Humoral immune response 5. All the above. 3. What is the drug of choice to treat Tr/i-rpanosoma cruzi infection? 1. Bendazole 2. Cepacol 3. Stiboglueonate 4. Benznidazole 5. Guacamole 4. Identify the protein that is not involved in phagosome maturation upon en gulfment of pathogens by phagocytes. 1. Rab 5 2. Rab 7 3. Rab 9 4. Rab 1.1 5. Nramp 5. Under which forms the protozoan parasite T ia/‘panomma brucei devides within its insect vector? 1. Epimastigote and promastigote 2. Amastigote and trypomastigote 3. Promastigote and trypomastigote 4. Trypomastigote and epimastigote 5. Amastigote and epimastigote 6. What is the major role of the flagellum in Leishmania? l . To migrate toward macrophages in the mammalian host. 2. To bind the macrophage CR3 receptor. 3. To bind to the sandfly midgut. 4. To bind the saiidfly mouthparts. 5. To allow association with other Leis/mania cells. MIMM413 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 7. Kala Azar refers to the human disease caused by infection with which parasite? 1. Leis/Imania major. 2 L. tropical. 3. L. amazonensis. 4 L. donovani. 5 L. mexicrma. 8. Within the mammalian host, Leisliniaiiia are predominantly: 1. Present in the phagolysosome as promastigotes. 2. Present in the phagolysosomc as epimastigotcs. 3. Present in the cytoplasm as amastigotes. 4. Present in the phagolysosome as amastigotes. 5. Present in the cytoplasm as trypomastigotcs. 9. Giardiasis is: 1 not a food—borne disease. 2 not a water—bome disease. 3. not a sexually transmitted disease. 4 transmitted by person-to-person contact. 5 none of the above. 10. Which mechanism(s) is not involved in evasion by parasites: 'l. escape from phagolysosomc. 2. activation of cellular immune response. 3. antigen variation. 4. alteration of signaling pathways. 5. resistance to humoral immune reSponse. l 1. The definitive diagnosis of Schistosoma mansoni in biopsied tissue sections is based on: 1. finding ova containing a miracidium larva. 2. finding ova with a minute lateral spine. 3. finding ova containing a hexacanth embryo. 4. finding ova with a prominent terminal spine. 5. none of the above. 12. The serum cytokine profile during the chronic phase of hydatid disease is characterized by frank elevation in: 1. IFN—y 2. IL~2 3. lL-10 4. lFN—alpha 5. lL-l MIMM413 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. Emamoeba histolytt'ca cyst can be identified microscopically from that of E. coli cyst by certain criteria: number of nuclei present in the cyst. nuclear morphology. number of sporozoites present in the cyst. correct combination of 1 and 2. correct combination of 1 and 3. 9:“?“NH Which phagocyte function is not inhibited by malaria HZ? Phagocytosis Major histocompatibility complex of Class 11 PKG-dependent signaling Oxidative stress Lipid peroxidation .V'HePJP-U“ Echinococcus granulosus belongs to the: class zoomastigophorea. class sporozoea. group protozoa. phylum nematode. none of the above. wewwr Most factors associated with anemia in malaria includes: 1. bone marrow dyserythropoiesis. 2. auto—immune hemolytic anemia. 3. cytotoxic CD8+ T cells. 4. all the above 1, 2 and 3. 5. only 1 and 2. Which one of the following statements is true? 1. during an infection with helminths, the stimulation of the Th1 type of cytokines leads to immunopathology. 2. during an infection with helminths, the stimulation of the Th2 type of cytokines leads to immunopathology. 3. in cerebral malaria, we have experimental evidence showing that the cytokines are responsible for the pathology. 4. THl and TH2 types of cytokines play a role in immune expulsion of helminths from the intestine. 5. none of the above. Development of immunity in humans to Schistosoma is believed to be associated with: onset of old age. onset of adulthood around age 18-20. the continuous treatment with drugs such as praziquantel. the type of life each person leads. a decrease in exposure to the parasite as the population ages. 9‘?!”ij MIMM4 13 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 19. Genetic studies have found that the SMl locus determining human resistance to Schistosoma infection (worm burdens) is Closely linked to the following gene: 1. TNF alpha receptor. 2. IL12 receptor. 3. CSFl receptor. 4. Interferon gamma receptor 1. 5. 1L4 receptor. 20. According to the best available estimate, cystiecrei present in the brain parenchyma remain viable for: up to 6 weeks. up to 3 months. up to 1 year. up to 4 years. up to 5 years. wewwr 21. Premunition observed in patients living in a malarious community is characterized by one or a combination of the following features: 1. denotes anti—toxic immunity against malarial paroxyms. 2. is maintained as a result of continuous reeexposure to malaria infection. 3. patients show markedly low parasitaemia. 4. 1, 2, 3. 5. l, 2. 22. Making the diagnosis of Chagas' disease may involve all of the following except: 1. searching for the trypemastigotes in a stained blood smear. 2. serology to detect antitrypanosomal antibodies. 3. tissue biopsy to demonstrate intracellular amastigotes. 4. xenodiagnosis. 5. examination of the patient‘s stool for metacyclic trypanosomes. 23. L2 larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides: l. hatch out of the egg in the soil. 2. hatch out of the egg in the small intestine. 3. hatch out of the egg in the alveoli of the lung. 4 molt to L3 larvae in the small intestine. 5 form large racemose cysts in the brain. 24. Chronic peripheral eosinophilia is generally seen in patients infected with: Toxocara canis L2 stage. Schistosoma sp. Wuchereria bancrofti. 1 and 2 only. 1 to 3. 9.43.0359?“ MIMM413 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 25. 26. 27. 28. 30. Recurrence of toxoplasmosis can result into serious complications in: Ln-FKWNH Cryptosporidium is a parasitic opportunistic organism. pregnant mothers sero«positive for toxoplasmosis. lactating mothers sero—positive for toxoplasmosis. young adults sero—positive for toxoplasmosis. innunologically intact individuals. none of the above. Which of the following factors may contribute to the spreading of the infection in the population? LII-[>03ka drinking milk. allergies to dairy products. swinuning in a swimming pool. eating raw meat. all of the above. Gravid segments in cestodes: .U‘F‘ENPI‘ contain fully developed male and female reproductive organs. are located just below the scolex. contains ova in the uterus. function as an organ of attachment to host intestinal wall. none of the above. Which one of the following cell—mediated immune mechanisms apply to invasive amebiasis: LII-{>me the host cell—mediated immune response is not affected in invasive amebiasis. the abscess—derived macrophages can kill the trophozoites. the abscess—derived neutrophils can kill the trophozoites. the respiratory burst of abscess~derived macrophages is not affected. none of the above. Which E of the following Plasmodz'zmz Ifkilczpamm stages develop/differentiate into the sporozoite stage in Anopheline mosquitos: l. 2. 3. 4. 5. ring form. merozoite. schizont. trophozoite. none of the above. Enramoeba hisirolyrica: erasure.“ is not an anaerobe and does not possess mitochondria. preferentially colonizes the small intestine. the mature cyst contains two nuclei. cysts are produced only in the liver. none of the above. MIMM413 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 3]. 32. 34. 35. 36. Stichocytes are present in: Ascaris lumbricoides. Trypannsoma cruzi. Wuchereria bancrofii. Cysticercus larva. T richinella spiralis. WPP’N.“ Plasmodiumfalciparum schizont—elaborated pyrogen induces: 1. release of TNF—o from macrophages and reticulo—endothclial cells. 2. PfEMP-l antigenic variation on merzoites. 3. polyclonal activation of B and T lymphocytes. 4. 1 and 2. 5. l and 3. During immune expulsion of Trickinella spiralis and Nippostrongylus muris from the intestine, signal transduction and activation of transcription-6 is mediated by: l. THl types ol‘cytokines. 2. TH2 types of cytokincs. 3. lFN—y 4 TFN—a. 5 none of the above. Which gig of these following inflammatory cells is known to provide the building blocks for Charcot-leyden crystals? monocyte. neurophil. macrophage. epitheloid cell. none ofthe above. 9993?)? Malaria] paroxysm (chill, fever and sweating) corresponds with w of the following events in the infected host: 1. invasion of hepatocytcs by merozoites. 2. invation of erythrocytes by merozoites. 3. invasion of hepatocytes by sprozoites. 4. rupture of erythrocytes containing the gametocyte stage. 5. none of the above. Cestodes lack one of the following features (organs): gastro-intcstinal tract. nervous system. mouth. excretory system. none of the above. 9:59P.“ MIMM413 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 37. The tissue or organ site for the development of cystic type of cysticercus is: l. subcutaneous tissue. 2. arachnoid. 3 brain ventricles. 4. pia meter. 5. none of the above. 38. Which y of the following characterizes the chronic course of active hydatid disease in humans: 1. depressed delayed hypersensitivity response. 2. depressed anti—hydated IgG response. 3. presence of Echinococcus granulows ova in the stool. 4. presence of viable protoscolices in the stool. 5. anemia. 39. Parenchyrmtous neurocystieercosis is caused due to the: 1. entrapment of oncosphere in the ventricles of the brain. 2. entrapment of adults Taenia in the parenchyma of the brain. 3. entrapment of miracidium larva in the parenchyma of the brain. 4. entrapment of oncosphere in the meninges. 5. none of the above. 40. In the list of helminth parasites given below, choose the one that has onchosphere larva in its life cycle: 1. T oxocam crmis. 2. Schistosoma lzaematobium. 3. T aem'a 501mm. 4. Schistosoma mansoni. 5. Ascaris lumbricoides. 41. Optimal chemotherapy of human lymphatic filariasis involves: l. A single treatment with triclabendazole. 2. Multiple treatments with diethylcarbamazine. 3. A single dose of iverrnectin. 4. Multiple treatments with albendazole. 5. Combined treatment with diethylcarbamazine and iverrnectin. 42. Montinegro skin test is used for the diagnosis of: l. cutaneous/mucocutaneous leishmaniasis. 2. Chagas’ disease. 3. hydatid disease. 4. hepatic amebiasis. 5. none of the above. MIMM4 l 3 For each of the following multiple choice questions, choose the one correct or most appropriate answer. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. Natural resistance is: 1. any form of resistance that is based 011 mechanisms independent of acquired immunity . mediated by cytokine—activated marophages. dependent on acquired immunity. the protective action of the intestinal mucosa. all of the above. 9:534)!" In Ascaris, the following clinical features are observed: l. migration of larvae to the brain and epilepsy. 2. deposition of eggs in the eye by migrating larval parasites. 3. two phases involving larval invasion through the skin and adult worm migration in the tissues. 4. three phases involving infection in the lung, infection in the intestine and parasites wandering in the tissues. 5. two phases involving wandering worms that migrate out of the skin into the eye. Experimental evidence shows that C3b acts as opsonin and facilitates entrance and further differentiation of one of the following organisms (or parasite stage) into the host cell: amastigote stage of Leishmania into macrophages/RE cells. malaria sporozoite stage into reticuloendothelial (RE) cells. Trypanosoma cruzi trypomastigote into macrophages. promastigote stage of Leishmania into macrophages/RE cells. malaria merozoite stage into erythrocytes. 9.439%"? In which E of the following parasites does gm stages in the life cycle of the parasite occur in the same host: Wuchereria banerqfti (lymphatic filarial). Triclzinella spiralisg Leishmania donovani. Plasmodium vivax. None of the above. 9999.”? Why do clinical diagnostic laboratories require at least three fecal specimens for the diagnosis of parasitic diseases: to make more money. to increase the chances of identifying the origin of the source of infection. to increase the chances of detecting helminth eggs only. to increase the chances of detecting protozoa cyst and oocyst only. to increase the chances of detecting helminth eggs, protozoa cysts and oocyst. 9.459%“? MIMM413 SECTION II Each question in the following section consists of an assertion (statement) and a reason. .U‘P‘P’ 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. Mark the card: if both the assertion and reason are true statements and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. if both assertion and reason are true statements but the reason is NOT a correct explanation of the assertion. if the assertion is true but the reason is a false statement. if the assertion is false but the reason is a true statement. if both assertion and reason are false statements. DIRECTIONS SUlVIl‘AARIZED 1. True True (reason is a correct explanation) 2. True True (reason is NOT a correct explanation) 3. True False 4. False True 5. False False Retinochoroiditis is a serious manifestation of chronic toxoplasmosis BECAUSE even healthy individuals harbouring toxoplasma pseudocysts generally show low levels of anti— toxoplasma antibodies. Thymectomized irradiated bone marrow reconstituted mice are used experimentally to demonstrate the role of cell mediated reactivity in host defense to parasites BECAUSE such mice are deficient in T cells. A major gene (5M2) for resistance in humans to liver fibrosis induced by Schisrasoma infection has been discovered BECAUSE this gene is linked to the gene for the interferon alpha receptor on hutnan chromosome 21q22. Cytokines may play a role in the onset of pathology BECAUSE cytokirres are involved primarily in the secondary immune response against infectious agents. Peripheral and tissue eosinophilia characterize the course of most protozoal infections BECAUSE eosinophils are specialized cells and they secrete high levels of both THl and TH2 types of cytokines. Plasmodium falciparum blood—stage mcrozoitcs are known to reinfeet hepatocytes BECAUSE P. ftzlcipamm is known to persist in the liver of the infected host for many years. There are some similarities in the life cycle of Plasmodium Sp. and Cryptosporidium Sp. BECAUSE both these organisms have gametocyte stages in their life cycle. Soil contamination with dog’s feces can contribute to the transmission of ascariasis BECAUSE Ascart'a lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of embryonated eggs that contain infective L2 larva. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. MIMM413 DIRECTIONS SUMNIARIZED 1. True True (reason is a correct explanation) 2. True True (reason isiNQTrragorriegt explanation) 3. True False 4. False True 5. False False Secretory products (GRA proteins) released by Toxoplasma tachyzoites are “protective” to the parasite BECAUSE these secretory products localize at the inner face of the membrane of parasitophorous vesicles and inhibit their fusion with the lysosomes. Crvprosporidium oocysts and G. Zamblia cysts are not destroyed by chlorination BECAUSE oocysts and cysts are released in large numbers in fecal materials of cattle. Encysted T richinella larvae are also found in the liver of infected hosts BECAUSE the migrating larvae of Trichinella are known to encyst in the heart. The diagnosis of amebiasis can be made by demonstrating the typical cystic stage of Entamoeba histolytica in the feces BECAUSE the cystic stage of E. histolytica can be easily differentiated morphologically from E. (3011' cysts. Allergic reactions do not seem to occur during asymptomatic human filarial infections BECAUSE the parasite infection induces high levels of blocking IgG4 antibodies that compete with IgE for binding allergen epitopes. Development of human onchocercal keratitis is due to an inflammatory response BECAUSE antiiparasite antibodies lead to degranulation of eosinophils in the eye. Certain TH—2 derived cytokines play a central role in eosinophilopoiesis BECAUSE IL-5 stimulates the eosinophil progenitor cells in the bone marrow to attain maturity. Effective treatment of neurocysticercosis involves administration of albenodazole and dexamethasome (corticosteroid) BECAUSE the latter is known to stimulate the inflammatory space and kill the parasite. The calcareous corpuscles (cc) are one of the important histological landmarks in the mesenchymal tissues of cestodes BECAUSE under light microscopic examination, cc present a characteristic histological feature. Aboriginals (Inuit and Native Canadians) show a relatively high incidence of hydatid infection as compared to the urban population BECAUSE members of the former group acquire hydatid infection by ingesting undercooked liver from herbivores (ungulates) contain hydatid cysts. Neurocysricercosis patients, treated with albendazole, show seizures during the first few months of follow-up BECAUSE acute perilcsional inflammation, caused by the degenerating cysticerci, explains this phenomenon. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. MIMM41 3 DIRECTIONS SUMMARIZED 1. True True (reason is a correct explanation) 2. True True (reason is NOT a correct explanation) 3. True False 4. False True 5. False False Chemotherapy of Indonesian schoolchildren for ascariasis did not lead to increased appetite and weight gain BECAUSE the children were also infected with other parasites such as malaria. Presently there is no efficacious therapy against Ciyptosporodiosis BECAUSE the effectiveness of the drugs available do not require an efficient immune response. Microtriches are important structural features of the cestode gastro—intestinal canal BECAUSE microtriches increase the surface area of cestode tegument available for absorption of nutrients. Ascaris infection in humans causes pathology in the lung then the intestine BECAUSE the parasite larva hatch out of the egg in the lung before migrating to the intestine to mature into adult worms. Significantly high humoral response in hydatid cyst infected hosts is associated with protective immunity BECAUSE anti-hydatid lgG play a decisive role in eliminating the parasite from the host. In progressing hydatid infection TH2 response overtakes the THl response BECAUSE TH2 response plays a protective role in the host. Degranulation of eosinophils at tissue sites are believed to modulate immediate hypersensitivity reaction (IHR) induced by mast cell degranulation BECAUSE eosinophil— derived factors are known to neutralize some of the chemical mediators of IHR. MIMM4 l 3 SECTION III For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 In children infected with Toxocara, ultrasound has been used to: confirm diagnosis by fecal egg counts. confirm infection in asymptomatic children. identify lesions in the heart and lung. confirm lesions in the brain due to aberrant larval migration. identify migrating adult worms in the eye. WPQW?’ Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the ovum of Eehinoeoccus. they are highly resistant to cold temperature and ordinary disinfectants. they are the source of infection for both man and herbivores. they can be demonstrated in the tissues of hydatid patients. they hatch in moist soil and humans acquire infection by pereutaneous route. they can be demoustrated in the feces of hydatid patients. mcow> Malarial nephrosis called “nephrotic syndrome” in humans: A is caused by Plasmoa‘imn malariae. B is an immune complex mediated diSease. C. does not respond to malarial therapy. D is caused by Plasmodium vivax. E is caused by the invasion of merozoites to the kidney glomerular capilliaries. Immune effector mechanisms active against Schisz‘osoma include: antibody-dependent killing of adult worms. IgE dependent killing mediated by eosinophiis. IgM dependent killing mediated by macrophages. IgM dependent killing mediated by eosinophils. IgG dependent killing mediated by N K cells. WUOW> Immune correlation studies in human sehistosomiasis have discovered that: re infection is positively associated with IgM responses to parasite antigens. re infection is positively associated with IgE titres to parasite antigens. lower IgE titres are observed in resistant individuals. re infection is negatively associated with IgG titres to parasite antigens. re infection is negatively associated with IgM responses to parasite antigens. 31.5.0.5“? MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A. B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 79. The pathogenicity of virulent Entamoeba histolytica act via the following mechanisms(s): A. the trophozoite must adhere to the bacteria to be cytotoxic. B. the trophozoites may secrete a protein called amoebapore. C. the trophozoites interfere with the activity of disaccharidases. D. the trophozoites must be able to encyst in the intestinal lumen. E. the trophozoites chemically modify the mucus content of the large bowel. 80. Which one (or in combination) of the following clinical features is a characteristic of human lymphatic filariasis: A. allergic responses and inflammation. B. enlargement of limbs and other structures. C. lichenification of the skin. D. corneal fibrosis. E. blindness. 81. CharCOt—Lcyden crystals are formed from the eosinophil—derived: A. major basic proteins. B. lysophospholipase. C. eosinophil—derived neurotoxin. D. eosinophil—derived cationic protein. E. none of the above. 82. Trichinosis is associated with multiple alterations in the host’s humoral immunity: A. serum IgG and IgM levels are depressed. B. gut IgA level is elevated. C. serum IgA level is elevated. D. serum IgD level is elevated. E. none of the above. 83. Polysulfated polysaccharide synthesized by cysticerci: A. is anticomplementary in nature. B. covers only the bladder portion of cysticerci. C. inhibits the binding of serum albumin to the tegument of cysticerci. D. specifically promotes antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity mechanism agains cysticerci. E. covers only the scolex of cysticerci. MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 84. Which region of the Tiypanosoma brucez' VSG is exposed to serum antibodies? A. The GPI region. B. The conserved region. C. The signal region. D. The splice leader region. E. The variable region. 85. Progression of clinical pathology in human lymphatic filariasis involves: A. An asymptomatic incubation phase. B. An obstructive phase involving blockage of the lymphatic ducts. C. An inflammatory phase involving release of microfilaria in the lymph ducts. D. Inflammation of the liver and lymph nodes. E. A 24 fever cycle corresponding to microfilaria migration into the bloodstream at night. 86. T richinella spiralis: is a nematode. has the capacity to adapt to a variety of hosts. is classified under the phylum Platyhelminthes. adults usually parasitize colon mucosa. does not exist in Canada. mpowe 87. Eosinophil—derived major basic protein (MBP): acts as helminthotoxic molecule. acts as a neurotoxin. is located in the matrix of the eosinophil granule. forms the crystalline core of the eosinophil granule. has an isoelectric pH value of 3. $1190.05?” 88. Lymphatic filarial include the following species: Wuchereria bancrofti. Onchocerca volwlus. Mansonella species. Brugia malayi. Loa loa. mcow> MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct .Vlark 5 What is the role of the kinetoplast minicircle in Trypanosoma brucei and Leishmania? To express the pre—mRNA needed for mitochondrion proteins. To express the guide RNA needed to edit pre—mRNA in the mitochondrion. To express the mini—exon transcripts needed for RNA processing. To express VSG genes. To carry our Trans-splicing needed for RNA maturation in the mitochondrion. meow» Southern blot analysis of the Tiypanosoma bi-urzei genomie DNA with a sequence probe complementary to the conserved region of the V’SG genes should result in what kind of pattern? A. One band corresponding to the specific VSG variable region. B. Many bands corresponding to the conserved region in many VSG genes in the genome. C. One band corresponding to the tclonici‘ic expressed VSG gene. D. Many hands corresiionding to the many VSG sequences in the mini—exon region of the genome. E. One hand corresponding to the expressed chromosomal VSG gene. In human Wuchereria bancrofti‘ infection, blocking antibodies have the following properties: they are of the IgG4 isotype. they are found at higher levels in patients who are infected but asymptomatic. they block parasite invasion into the lymph gland. they are found at higher levels in patients who are symptomatic with chronic disease. E. they always have the same specicity as IgM antibodies. .5097? Genetic studies in humans have found significant evidence for genes linked to resistance to schistosomiasis, including: A. a gene on chromosome lp22.2 determining susceptibility to infection. B. a gene on chromosome 6q22—q23 determining resistance to liver fibrosis. C. a gene on chromosome 5q31—q33 determining susceptibility to infection. D. a gene on the X chromosome determining increased resistance in females around the age of puberty. E. a gene on chromosome 16q22-q23 determining resistance to liver fibrosis. Patients successfully treated against Kala—azar (visceral leishmaniasis) manifest in due course: a positive leishmanin or Montenegro skin test hypersensitivity reaction. “regeneration” of THlCD4+ cell activity. a negative tuberculin skin test hypersensitivity reaction. heightened resistance to bacterial / fungal infection. decreased IL—4 and IL—10 production by B-cells. meow? 16 MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 Evidence for the importance of immunity in giardiasis comes from the following sources: A. B. B. an increased incidence of clinical giardiasis is seen in visitors to an endemic area as compared to the local population. chronic Giardia infection is observed in athymic laboratory mice or in chemically imrnunosuppressed mice. an increased prevalence of Giardia infection is seen in immunologically compromised individuals. serum anti—Giardia antibody levels are elevated in the infected patients. Giardia surface antigens are excellent immunogens. Identify the correct statement or statements concerning cysticercosis: A. POP“ it can be contracted through the ingestion of Tczertia 501mm ova in contaminated food or drink. it can be contracted by eating beef containing cysticercus larvae. it is the major cause of gastroenteritis in Mexico. it can be contracted due to reserve peristalsis pushing T aem'a solium ova from the intestine to the stomach. it can occur by eating fresh water fish containing cysticercus larvae. Within the Leishmania genome, all the genes identified so far mpowa Are highly homologous with yeast genes. Contain no introns. Contain multiple introns. Are expressed as individual genes ach with their own promoter. Are developmentally regulated. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis is a distinct clinical entity and is characterized by the following features: WUOP‘?’ h P1905“? the lesions are nodular and do not ulcerate. the lesions show superabundance of leishmania parasites in skin macrophages. the leishmanin Type—4 skin reactivity is positive. the parasite metastasizes from the skin to the soft organs. the lesions show rare leishmania parasites in skin macrophages. . donovani predominantly causes which kind of disease? Cutaneous leishmaniasis. Visceral leishmaniasis. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis. Both Cutaneous and Visceral leishmaniasis. Mucocutaneous and cutaneous leishmaniasis. MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below QNE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 99. Alveolar type of hydatid disease in humans is caused by: A. the proliferation and metastasis of unilocular hydatid cysts to various soft organs. B the presence of large numbers of adult Et'hinococcus multilocularis in the intestine of man. C the migration of onchosphere larvae in the soft organs. D, the larval (metacestode) stage of E. gram-dams. E the larval (metacestode) stage of E. multilocularis. 100. Hydrocephalus in neurocysticercosis is associated with the: location of racemosus cysticerci in the brain ventricles. location of racemosus cysticerci in the sub—arachnoid space. location of racemosus cysticerci in the brain parenehylna. location of racemosus cysticerci in the durameter. location of racemosus cysticerci in the sub—cutaneous tissues. WUOW? l 01 . Cysticercus racemosus: lacks a scolex. is an atypical Cysticercus larva. measures several feet in length. is a cystic form of Cysticercus larva. possesses an acetabulate scolex. WUOW?’ 102. Which of the following adult parasites produce larvae instead of eggs in the host: A. Ascaris lumbricoides. B. Taenia 301mm. C. Echinococcus multilacularis. D. Schistosoma mansoni. E. Filarial worm Wuchereria bane/"0m. 103. Human infection with Ascaris is associated with; an increased response by PBMCs to Ascaris antigens. an increased frequency of PBMCs producing 1L4 and IL5. an increased ratio of 1L4 to IFN 7 produced by PBMCs in response to Ascaris antigen. an overall induction of a ThO/ 1 like eiwironment. a decreased ratio of ’l'hZ to Th] PBMCs. FLU CPU? MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 if A and D are correct Mark 2 If A. B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 104. In patients with hydatid disease acquired in Canada, the unilocular hydatid cyst preferentially (about 80—90%) localizes to: A right lobe of the liver. B. kidney. C. bone marrow. D subcutaneous tissues. E lungs. 105. The macrophage protein kinase C (PKC) enzyme is inhibited by which parasite molecule? A. T rypanosoma brucei VSG. B. Leishmania LPG. C. Leishmtmia A2. D. T. brucei phosphatase. E. T . brucei kinasc. 106. A THl cellular immune response is important to resolve which kind of infection: A. All Trypanosome infections. B. Leis/zrnania major infection, but not L. donovani infection. C. L. donovani infection, but not L. major infection. D. T . brucei infection. E. All Leishmaniu infections. 107. Some of the features of a Toxocara infection are: A. a systemic migration of larvae in humans. B. direct infection by ingestion of infective larvae in aerosols released by infected dogs. C. inflammation of the eye in humans due to deposition of eggs by migrating larvae. D. inflammation of the eye in humans following ocular invasion by larvae E. a systemic migration of adult worms in humans. 108. Casoni test: A. is used for the diagnosis of schistosomiasis. B. is used for the diagnosis of hydatid disease. C. is used for the diagnosis of neurocysticercosis. D. is used for the diagnosis of Visceral Larva Migrans. E. is used for the diagnosis of hepatic amebiasis. MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 109. Gene conversion is used by: A Leishmam'a to express different LPG molecules. B. Tijvpanosoma brucei to express different VSG genes. C. Leishmania to carry out RNA editing. D. T rypanosoma brucei to edit mitochondrion RNA. E. T rypaizosoma brucez' to carry out Tran splicing. 110. Which one or a combination of the procedures described below is/are used for the diagnosis of neurocysticercosis: A. CT scan (brain imaging). B. histological examination of the biopsied sample from the brain. C. Western blotting. D. microscopic examination of the cerebrospinal fluid. E. none of the above. 111. Entamoebadispar A. cysts have 4 nuclei. B. was proposed by Brumpt to designate the non~pathogenic strain of Entamoeba histolytica. C. cysts dimensions are similar to Entamoeba (2011' cysts. D. cysts dimensions are not similar to Entamocba histolytica cysts. E. cyst may have more than four nuclei. 112. During the life cycle of Cryptosporidium parvum merozoites attach to the brush border of intestinal cells. schizogony precedes the development of merozoites. microgametes and macrogametes are not generated. sporozoites attach to the mucus present in the small intestine. four merozoites are released at the rupture of the oocyst. mcow? 113. Hemoglobin “ingested” by the early erythrocytic stages of Plasmodium Sp: A is completely degraded into its constituent amino acids in the lysosomes. B. eventually polymerises into hemozoin granules in the lysosomes. C remains stored in the lysosomes and following exocytosis contributes to hemoglobinemia. D. is partially degraded into the lysosomes where the globin moiety polymerizes into hemozoin granules. E. is partially degraded into the lysosomes where the heme moiety polymerizes into hemozoin granules. MIMM413 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 In Leishmania, mitochondrion transcripts must undergo which process in order to be functional A. Gene conversion. B. Trans—splicing. C. Cis-splicing. D. RNA stabilization through the 3’ UTR. E. RNA editing. The scolex ofEchmococcm‘ protoscolices: FUD.“ have the potential to develop into adult Echinococcus in carnivores. released in the peritoneal cavity during surgery, can develop into new hydatid cysts. are morphologically similar to the adult EC/n’nococcus scolex. can survive for months in moist soil. ingested with undercooked sheep liver. can develop into adult Echinococcus in humans. The life span of unilocular hydatid cyst in humans can he as long as 53 years, indicating that the parasite subverts host protective immune responses; which of these mechanisms explain immunomodution. F1150???” depletion oi'T-cclls. induction of suppressor cells. alteration of lymphoid organ architecture. significantly depressed anti-hydatid cyst lgG. peripheral leukopenia (low number of leukocytes). The protozoan parasite Tifypanosoma cruzz': A. B. C. D. B. Is encountered mainly in Central and South America. Has been discovered by Carlos Chagas. ls transmitted at night. Is transmitted by Tse—tse 11y. Use rodents, cockroaches and armadillos as natural reservoir. Which morphologic features characterize T Iji'pcmosoma cruzi‘? moom> Large—subterminal kinetoplast No amastigote form 5-6 undulations per membrane “Question mark” shape when it is dead Salivaria MIMM4I 3 For each of the questions or incomplete statements below ONE or MORE of the suggested answers or completions are correct: If A and B are correct Mark 1 If A and D are correct Mark 2 If A, B and C are correct Mark 3 If B is correct Mark 4 If E is correct Mark 5 119. These parasites can survive within or escape from phagolysosome: Leishmcmia Toxoplasma Trypan osoma cruzi Trypanosoma brucei En tamoeba WUOW? 120. Which pathology occurring during Chagas disease is not observed during chronic form of the disease? Flabbiness of organs Megacolon A. Ventricular hypertrophy B. Chagoma C. Megaoesophagtts D, E. ...
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This note was uploaded on 08/17/2011 for the course MIMM 413 taught by Professor Alikhan during the Winter '11 term at McGill.

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