p33_076 - 76. (a) From Eq. 33-65, we have = tan1 VL VC VR =...

Info iconThis preview shows page 1. Sign up to view the full content.

View Full Document Right Arrow Icon
76. (a) From Eq. 33-65, we have φ =tan 1 µ V L V C V R =tan 1 µ V L ( V L / 1 . 50) ( V L / 2 . 00) which becomes tan 1 2 / 3=33 . 7 or 0 . 588 rad. (b) Since φ> 0, it is inductive ( X L >X C ). (c) We have V R = IR =9 . 98 V, so that
Background image of page 1
This is the end of the preview. Sign up to access the rest of the document.

This note was uploaded on 11/12/2011 for the course PHYS 2001 taught by Professor Sprunger during the Fall '08 term at LSU.

Ask a homework question - tutors are online