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76. (a) From Eq. 3365, we have
φ
=tan
−
1
µ
V
L
−
V
C
V
R
¶
=tan
−
1
µ
V
L
−
(
V
L
/
1
.
50)
(
V
L
/
2
.
00)
¶
which becomes tan
−
1
2
/
3=33
.
7
◦
or 0
.
588 rad.
(b) Since
φ>
0, it is inductive (
X
L
>X
C
).
(c) We have
V
R
=
IR
=9
.
98 V, so that
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This note was uploaded on 11/12/2011 for the course PHYS 2001 taught by Professor Sprunger during the Fall '08 term at LSU.
 Fall '08
 SPRUNGER
 Physics

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