Env. Science - GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 1...

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Unformatted text preview: GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 1 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) The term that applies to whether or not a process can be continued indefinitely is: A) stewardship. B) science. C) equity. D) sustainability. E) globalization. 2) Concern for the unfair concentration of waste sites and other hazardous activities in areas that are populated by poor or minorities is: A) sustainable growth. B) globalization. C) environmental justice. D) sustainable development. E) sound science. 3) A natural resource can be considered sustainable if: A) the resource is not harvested. B) it is a population of living organisms that is sustained by reproduction. C) the rate of harvest is greater than the rate at which the resource is renewed. D) the resource is harvested at a maximum rate. E) the rate of harvest does not exceed the rate at which the resource is replaced or renewed by natural processes. 4) Which of the following best describes the elements of all scientific investi— gation? A) models, theories, shaping principles B) observations, data, experiments, theories C) observations, data, models, theories D) data, theories, shaping principles E) data, objectivity, worldview 58 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 1 Examination Your weekly budget for the five-day workweek is twenty dollars. Lunch costs $2.00 per day, drinks $1.00. Gasoline for commuting to work costs $10.00 for the week. 5) Using the information above, match the statement with the correct step in the scientific method. “I carpool with my neighbor and save $5.00 per week in fuel costs." A) hypothesis B) theory/revised hypothesis/conclusion C) observation/question D) experiment 6) The case study of Easter Island demonstrates that: A) failure to achieve sustainability may result in highly undesirable conse quences. B) sustainability cannot be achieved on an island. 0) no society can achieve a sustainable state. D) sustainability cannot be achieved if the population is growing. E) sustainability can only be achieved if there are a lot of natural resources to exploit. 7) The most likely explanation for the collapse of the Rapa Nui society of Easter Island is: A) population growth. B) epidemic disease. C) an unstable society brought on by overexploitation of natural resources. 0) crop failure. E) lack of wood to make boats. 8) Light provides plants with A) organic matter. B) vitamins. C) energy. D) carbon dioxide E) chemical nutrients. 9) Which of the following is NOT a consumer? A) an oak tree B) a fish C) a deer D) a clam E) an insect 59 GED 108 Environmental Science vhit 1 Examination 10) Consider a plant growing in an environment where all abiotic factors for growth are ideal EXCEPT one single factor that is too high (above its limit of tolerance). How would this most likely affect the plant's growth? A) the plant will adapt B) since it’s only one factor, it would not affect growth C) there is no way of predicting what will happen D) the plant will die E) the plant will become sick and then recover 11) Which of the following would be considered INORGANIC? A) dead organisms B) complex molecules that make up tissues of living organisms C) wood and leather D) living organisms E) nitrogen, and water 12) The feeding relationships among plants and animals and among various animals in a biotic community is called a: A) biomass. B) food web. C) trophic level. D) niche. E) symbiosis 13) The major categories of organisms that make up the trophic structure of ecosystems are: A) producers and consumers. B) consumers, detritus feeders, and decomposers. C) fungi, bacteria, and decomposers. D) consumers, producers. detritus feeders, and decomposers. E) autotrophs, chemosynthetic organisms, and photosynthetic organisms. 14) Fats and sugars supply your body with mainly: A) energy. B) vitamins. C) salts. D) minerals. E) protein. 60 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 1 Examination 15) "Nitrogen fixation” refers to: A) releasing nitrogen to the air. B) animals releasing nitrogen in their urine. C) applying fertilizer. D) converting nitrogen gas to chemical forms which plants can incorporate. E) repairing broken molecules. 16) Which of the following is not a pool, or reservoir for phosphorus in the biosphere? A) dissolved phosphate in water B) the atmosphere C) organic phosphate in plants D) soil minerals E) phosphate rock 17) Which of the following is released by bacteria and fungi in the decomposi tion of plant and animal wastes? A) mineral nutrients B) glucose C) potential energy D) cellulose E) oxygen 18) is the natural process responsible for converting atmospheric inorganic carbon to the organic forms of carbon found in living systems. A) Decomposition B) Cell respiration C) Photosynthesis D) Fermentation E) Weathering 19) Abandoned farmland usually reverts back to forest. This process of forest regeneration is called: A) bioremediation. B) primary succession. C) secondary succession D) biorestoration. E) climax community. 61 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 1 Examination 20) The maximum population density that a habitat can support without experi encing long-term degradation is called: A) carrying capacity. B) critical number. C) replacement level. D) population equilibrium. E) population dynamic. 21) Increased resistance in bacteria after repeated exposure to antibiotics is due to: A) artificial selection. B) natural selection. C) increased biotic potential. D) speciation. E) reduced environmental resistance. 22) Periodic fires can change the species make-up of forest communities primarily because: A) tree species vary greatly in their tolerance to fire. B) tires are a natural part of the biosphere. C) the combustion of wood releases nutrients into the soil. D) fires are damaging to all forests. E) broad-leaf trees compete with pines and other conifers. 23) The population profile of a developing country such as iraq has the shape of a: A) pear, small end down. 8) pyramid. C) inverted pyramid. D) column. E) pear, large end down. 24) Most developed nations are in what phase of the demographic transition? A) low birth rate, low death rate B) low birth rater high death rate C) high birth rate, high death rate D) high birth rate, iow death rate E) high birth rate, moderate death rate 62 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 1 Examination 25) Which of the follow statements concerning rapid population growth and economic progress is correct? A) growth of public services and economic growth are unrelated B) the need to provide public services competes for capital that is needed for economic growth C) rapid population growth stimulates greater public services D) rapid population growth leads to greater public services and economic growth E) rapid population growth stimulates economic growth 63 GED 108 Environmental Science U nit 2 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) Which of the following is true of the status of women in developing countries? A) lack of education and discrimination limit economic opportunities for women B) women are not interested in further education or employment C) lack of education does not limit economic opportunities for women D) women are better educated than men E) women are given equal opportunities in education and employment 2) Countries with the highest fertility rates: A) lack an infrastructure where contraceptives are readily available. B) have government “safety nets" such as old age support. C) have good health care systems. D) are the developed countries. E) provide opportunities for women’s education and careers. 3) Which of the following improvements in health care would contribute most directly to reducing fertility rates in developing countries? A) greater access to surgical treatments B) better treatment of heart disease C) construction of centralized hospitals D) cancer therapies E) maternal health care 4) The debt crisis in developing countries today has had an adverse impact on the environment primary through: A) greater use of fossil fuels. B) a shift from staple crops to cash crops. C) a reduction in children's "helping hands" in food production. D) increased exploitation of natural resources for quick cash. E) a cutback on government social services. 5) The goal established at the Rio Earth Summit was to increase international development aid as a percent of GDP to: A) 20 °/o B) 0.7 % C) 10 % D) 2 % E) 5 % 138 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 2 Examination 6) Which of the following is the most important benefit of community based tree planting projects in developing countries? A) it develops a resource for export B) it will be of value to future generations C) it rebuilds a natural resource that will enhance income of the poor D) most people enjoy forests E) trees have many uses 7) As polluted water evaporates and recondenses, the recondensed water: A) is highly purified. B) is less than the original water. C) is changed in unpredictable ways. D) has the same degree of pollution. E) becomes more polluted. 8) An economic obstacle to greater use of drip irrigation in the US. is that: A) water is too expensive. B) it doesn’t result in any greater crop yield. C) drip irrigation equipment costs too much to be feasible. D) irrigation water is often heavily subsidized by governments. E) it has never been proven to work. 9) A body of water which has no outlet other than evaporation is bound to be: A) cold. B) salty. C) acidic. D) warm. E) fresh. 10) A major water related health problem in developing countries is that: A) surface waters are contaminated with industrial wastes. B) groundwater is usually contaminated with human waste. C) groundwater is usually contaminated with industrial wastes. D) surface waters used for water supplies are often contaminated with human wastes. E) groundwater is not available. 139 GED 108 Environmental Science Vnit 2 Examination 11) How would an increase in storm runoff to rivers most likely affect ground water? A) causing it to become non-renewable. B) increasing in the salinity of groundwater from road salt C) reducing the amount of infiltration and groundwater recharge D) reducing its quality E) increasing the amount of infiltration and groundwater recharge 12) Most plants grow best when the pH value of the soil is at or near: A) 9.0. B) 6.0. C) 3.0. D) 12.0. E) 1.0. 13) A method of agriculture that reduces soil disturbance from cultivation is A) shelterbelt. B) no-till planting. C) contourfarming. D) tillage. E) irrigation. 14) As far as agricultural applications are concerned, the main distinction between topsoil and the underlying subsoil is that topsoil: A) is more sandy. B) has a higher humus content. C) is on top. 0) has fewer rocks and stones. E) is more clayey. 15) Adding humus to a clayey sol! would: A) increase water infiltration. B) reduce water-holding capacity. C) reduce aeration. D) reduce nutrient—holding capacity. E) lead to mineralization. 140 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 2 Examination 16) In addition to plant nutrients, organic fertilizers, such as animal manures are a source of: A) mycorrhizal fungi. B) detritivores. C) excessive salts. D) symbiotic organisms. E) organic material to form humus. 17) The potential for world food production is being undercut by all of the following EXCEPT: A) high-yield varieties. B) increased demand for meat and dairy products. C) degradation of the soil. D) depletion of water resources. E) pollution. 18) The effect of climate on world food production: A) cannot be monitored. B) is variable and therefore unpredictable on the short term. 0) consistently favors production in temperate regions. D) has been abnormally variable but should become more consistent. E) is expected to increase future yields. 19) The lack of essential nutrients such as amino acids, vitamins and mineral is referred to as: A) over nutrition. B) chronic hunger. C) malnutrition. D) under nutrition. E) starvation. 20) The lack of basic food energy (calories) is referred to as: A) chronic hunger. B) starvation. C) malnutrition. D) overnutrition. E) undernutrition. 141 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 2 Examination 21) Which of the following impacts on wildlife is most directly caused by the economic activities of developed countries? A) regulated hunting B) trade in products made from endangered species parts C) ecotourism D) global climate change E) pet and wildlife trade 22) Which of the following best describes the state of North American song birds today? A) they breed in the tropics B) they are all endangered C) they became extinct due to DDT and other pesticides D) most of them are on the endangered species list E) their populations have been declining for several decades 23) The idea that a species has value for its own sake is called: A) intrinsic value. B) instrumental value. C) aesthetic. D) valueless. E) fragmented value. 24) Which of the following best explains why common pool resource are often overexploited? A) they are owned everyone B) they are periodically closed to public use C) all have access to them but without clear responsibility for their management. D) they are off limits to use by most people E) they are owned by more than one person 25) Which of the following best describes the state of world fisheries today? A) aquaculture is growing and will replace declining ocean harvests B) ocean harvest is growing exponentially C) many species have not been fished to their full potential D) maximum sustainable yield has proven to be an effective management tool E) ocean harvest is stable but many species are overfished 142 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 3 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) From the 17005 to the late 18005 the major source of energy in the United States was: A) crude oil. B) coal. C) fire wood. D) natural gas. E) nuclear power. 2) The Industrial Revolution came about because of the development of: A) the oil well. B) saw mills C) the steam engine. D) hydropower. E) nuclear power plants. 3) The United States currently receives of its crude oil from foreign sources. A) 65 percent B) 15 percent C) 25 percent D) 90 percent E) 5 percent 4) From the 18005 to the present, total energy consumption in the United States: A) has declined steadily with conservation. 8) has grown dramatically except for a brief drop in the 19805. C) has been more or less constant. D) has grown very stowly but steadily. E) grew to a peak in the 19505 but has been downward since then. 5) Which of the following precipitated the oil crisis of 1973? A) a decrease in crude oil consumption B) an increase in US. crude oil production C) a restriction in oil exports from OPEC countries E) an increase in oil imports 220 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 3 Examination 6) If U.S. military expenditures in the Middle East are considered, the true cost of imported Middle Eastern oil is: A) lower than the current market price. 8) over $100 per barrel. C) less than what it costs to produce domestic oil. D) lower than it has ever been. E) slightly more than what it costs to produce domestic oil. 7) The period of time when the most construction of new nuclear power plants took place in the United States was: A) 1960—1975. B) 1945—1960. C) 1975-1990. D) 1950—1960. E) 1990-1995. 8) in 1987, the U.S. Congress selected this site for long term disposal of high level radioactive waste. A) Oak Ridge, Tennessee B) Hanford, Washington C) Carlsbad, New Mexico D) Yucca Mountain, Nevada E) Three Mile Island, Pennsylvania 9) Enrichment of nuclear fuel refers to: A) increasing the energy content of U235. B) decreasing the percentage of fissionable U235. C) increasing the percent of fissionable U235. D) removal of non—uranium impurities. E) adding plutonium to uranium. 10) The "loss of coolant accident" (LOCA) that occurred at the Three Mile ls land nuclear plant resulted in: A) a nuclear explosion. B) deaths due to radiation sickness. C) partial meltdown and release of radioactive gas. D) nuclear fusion. E) an uncontrolled chain reaction. 221 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 3 Examination 11) High energy radiation that causes chemical changes in materials, including the formation of charged atoms or molecules is called: A) radioisotopes. B) ionizing radiation. C) X-rays. D) Sievert units. E) unstable isotopes. 12) The three essential technological components of any solar energy system are: A) collection, conversion to electricity, and distribution. B) collection, conversion, and distribution. C) conversion, storage, and distribution. D) conversion to electricity, storage, and distribution. E) collection, conversion, and storage. 13) Digesting manure anaerobically (without oxygen) will yield mainly: A) cellulose. B) carbon dioxide. C) methane. D) alcohol. E) oxygen. 14) Which of the following does NOT apply to solar heating? A) Backup conventional heating systems are always necessary. B) Appropriate landscaping can contribute to its efficiency. C) Savings can be as much as a 75 percent reduction in energy bills. D) Insulation is important. E) Sun-facing windows are important. 15) Using heat pumps that utilize the earth to heat and cool buildings is: A) a rapidly growing use of geothermal energy. B) is limited to certain geographic areas. C) is only experimental. D) impossible. E) has limited potential. 222 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 3 Examination 16) A carbon tax would be levied on: A) non—renewable energy sources. B) biofuels like biodiesel and ethanol. 0) gasoline. D) all fuels based on the amount of carbon they produce when consumed. E) fossil fuels. 17) The source of pollutants responsible for the chronic health effects of “sick building syndrome" are: A) outdoor air pollutants seeping in windows and doors. B) fumes from products and equipment used in homes or workplaces. C) daily exposure to pollutants on the way to work. D) minerals in bricks and cement. E) the general quality of the air in the community. 18) The vector for Plasmodium, the parasite that causes malaria is: A) leeches. B) mosquitoes. C) ticks. D) bed bugs. E) ticks. 19) Which of the following is the most important factor driving the development of public policy on risk? A) cost-benefit analysis B) media attention C) public perception of risk D) public concern E) risk-benefit analysis 20) Which of the following is a true statement concerning risk perception? A) moral judgments usually don't influence perception of risk. B) if you don’t understand the activity that creates the risk, you are likely to perceive that risk as lesser C) if the "experts" mention only benefits and no possible risk, you are naturally suspicious and perceive a greater risk D) even if the activity causing the risk does not produce direct benefits to them, most people are willing to accept risk E) if you feel that is your choice to accept a risk. you generally see that risk as greater 223 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 3 Examination 21) A pest is: A) a member of a recognized ecological category. B) a recognized ecological category including those organisms that are harmful to the ecosystem. C) any organism that interferes with humans or their endeavors. D) an organism that always plays a harmful role in an ecosystem. E) any species of insect. 22) A farmer sprays his crop with a synthetic chemical pesticide to control an insect infestation. The infestation subsides, and then a few weeks later, it actually becomes worse. This phenomenon is known as: A) a secondary pest outbreak. B) resurgence. C) a synergistic effect. D) ecological control. E) resistance. 23) A non-chemical approach to reducing damage due to plant diseases is: A) switching to some other crop. B) leaving some areas unplanted. C) use of parasitic wasps. D) development of genetically resistant strains. E) use of naturally occurring insecticides. 24) If the dissolved oxygen of water decreases to zero: A) the water becomes a “dead zone” and nothing can live in it. B) only anaerobic bacteria can survive. C) organisms will use some other dissolved gas to live. D) no living things can live there. E) aquatic animals die but plants can still survive. 25) The main constituent of raw sewage is: A) paper and related matter. B) soil and grit. C) household and industrial chemicals. D) fecal wastes. E) water. 224 GED 108 Environmental Science vhit 4 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1) Municipal solid waste includes: A) agricultural and mining residues. B) materials thrown away from homes and commercial enterprises. C) hazardous wastes. D) industrial wastes. E) sewage sludge. 2) Compared to 1960, the amount of solid waste produced today has increased because: A) fewer laws concerning waste and recycling. B) there is less interest in recycling today. C) of an increase in landfills. D) there is less recycling today. E) of population growth and increased use of disposable packaging. 3) in a “pay-as-you-throw” system of waste disposal consumers pay for waste disposal: A) the same amount regardless of how much waste they generate. B) based on their zip code. C) through local taxes. D) according to the amount of waste they generate. E) based on the average cost per household to dispose of waste. 4) Which of the following is true of plastic waste? A) it cannot be recycled B) there are few uses for recycled plastics C) it breaks down rapidly in modern landfills D) it is a poor fuel in combustion facilities E) it must be sorted by type before recycling 5) The largest fraction of municipal solid waste is: A) food wastes. B) metals. C) plastics. D) glass. E) paper products. 307 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 4 Examination 6) Which of the following best characterizes the make—up of leachate produced in landfills? A) a complex mixture of inorganic and organic wastes B) since it is mostly water it doesn’t pose a serious threat C) mostly organic nutrients D) discarded household cleaning products and pesticides E) mostly acids from batteries 7) The term “cradle to grave" means that: A) hazardous wastes that kill people must be carefully disposed of. B) hazardous wastes that kill infants and children are the most toxic. C) wastes cannot have a health impact on any aged individual. D) matter, and thus wastes can neither be created nor destroyed. E) there must be an accurate accounting of wastes from their initial production to ultimate disposal. 8) Which of the following is an example of Green Chemistry? A) cleaning and reusing industrial solvents B) redesigning automobiles so they pollute less C) substituting water based cleaners for dry cleaning chemicals D) reducing the quantities of toxic materials needed to accomplish a task E) using home air and water filters to combat pollution at home 9) The legislation that specifies the ways hazardous materials can be trans— ported across state Iines is: A) The Clean Water Act (CWA). B) The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). C) The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). D) The Clean Air Act (CAA). E) Department of Transportation Regulations. 10) After the discovery that TRIS, a substance in children’s sleepwear linked to cancer, congress passed the Toxic Substances Control Act. This legislation: A) banned the use of any hazardous substance in the production of chil— dren’s sleepwear. B) required potentially toxic materials to carry warning labels. C) banned the use of any hazardous substance in the production of con— sumer products. D) required labels that stated the percentage of toxic material actually in the product. E) required manufacturers to assess the health and environmental impacts of new products. 308 GED 108 Environmental Science v hit 4 Examination 11) An unintended consequence of regulations that limited the disposal of wastes in air or water was that industry: A) installed pollution control equipment. 8) shifted waste disposal to the oceans. C) stopped using many chemicals altogether. D) imported wastes. E) shifted waste disposal to landfills. 12) The ultimate source of energy that determines a region's climate is: A) geothermal vents. B) wind currents. C) ocean currents. D) solar radiation. E) greenhouse gases. 13) The major greenhouse gases are: A) chlorine, fluorine, neon, and argon. B) methane, oxygen, nitrogen and neon. C) carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane and chlorofluorocarbons. D) carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen, and water vapor. E) oxygen, nitrogen, argon, and neon. 14) Hydrocarbons may be emitted as a result of burning fuels because of: A) combustion occurring in an atmosphere which is 78 percent nitrogen. B) impurities in the fuels. C) incomplete combustion. D) sunlight. E) reactions occurring in the atmosphere after combustion. 15) The major anthropogenic source(s) of excess nitrous oxide in the atmo- sphere is/are: A) combustion of fossil fuels. B) emissions from automobiles and chemical fertilizers. C) evaporation from the Earth's oceans. D) microbial fermentation of organic matter in coal mines, oil well, and livestock. E) refrigerants, solvents and fire retardants. 309 GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 4 Examination 16) Which of the following is true concerning global warming and polar regions? A) the length of winters in polar regions is increasing. B) the effect of global warming is less at the poles because they are so cold C) there is little evidence of melting of glaciers or thinning of polar ice D) there is no difference in the degree of warming and latitude E) recent temperature increases have been greatest in polar regions 17) Which of the following is the major contributor to the formation of acid rain? A) ozone B) hydrocarbons. C) sulfurdioxide D) methane E) carbon dioxide 18) The chemical component which is responsible for BASE properties is: A) hydroxyl ions (OH—). B) hydrogen ions (H+). C) nitrogen oxide (NO). D) sulfur oxide (80). E) carbon dioxide. 19) An aerosol mixture of particulates and sulfur compounds forms a grayish colored substance that is called: A) inversion smog. B) industrial smog. C) brown smog. D) urban smog. E) photochemical smog. 20) The EPA sets standards for the release of toxic air pollutants under the: A) National Ambient Air Quality Standards. B) Kyoto Protocol. C) Montreal Protocol. D) National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants. E) Clean Air Act. 310 GED 108 Environmental Science v nit 4 Examination 21) The role of Congress in environmental protection is to: A) draw up regulations for pollution control. B) enforce environmental regulations. C) pass legislation and appropriate funds. D) decide at what level should pollutants be regulated. E) pass legislation. 22) Which of the following correctly expresses the historical relationship of pollution control and the economy? A) it results in a loss of jobs B) it results in major job creation C) the costs of pollution are modest compared to increases in productivity D) it always involves a substantial trade—off to economic growth E) it is a major cost of manufacturing 23) A centrally planned economy decisions on what to produce are made by: A) consumers. B) producers. C) government bureaucrats. D) environmentalists. E) the interaction of buyers and sellers in the market. 24) The breaking up of the landscape into small parcels of habitat as a result of urban sprawl has most negatively impacted: A) both game and non—game species of wildlife. B) forest songbirds. C) domesticated animals such as dogs and cats. D) game species such as deer. E) agricultural crops. 25) Which of the following best describes urban sprawl today? A) accommodating population growth but preserving open space B) population growth in cities spilling out into suburbs C) state land use planning creating new suburban communities D) suburban communities working together to minimize environmental impacts E) migration of city dwellers to suburbs and more distant locations 311 ...
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Env. Science - GED 108 Environmental Science Unit 1...

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