Reading15-STIaIIaeq88a1 - Whether venial sin is ttingly...

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Ia IIae q. 88 a. 1 Whether venial sin is fttingly condivided with mortal sin? Objection 1. It would seem that venial sin is unfttingly condivided with mortal sin. For Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxii, 27): “Sin is a word, deed or desire contrary to the eternal law.” But the ±act o± being against the eternal law makes a sin to be mortal. Consequently every sin is mortal. ere±ore venial sin is not condivided with mortal sin. Objection 2. Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 10:31): “Whether you eat or drink, or whatever else you do; do all to the glory o± God.” Now whoever sins breaks this command- ment, because sin is not done ±or God’s glory. Consequently, since to break a commandment is to commit a mortal sin, it seems that whoever sins, sins mortally. Objection 3. Further, whoever cleaves to a thing by love, cleaves either as enjoying it, or as using it, as Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 3,4). But no person, in sinning, cleaves to a mutable good as using it: because he does not re±er it to that good which gives us happiness, which, properly speaking, is to use, according to Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 3,4). ere- ±ore whoever sins enjoys a mutable good. Now “to enjoy what we should use is human perverseness,” as Augustine again says (Qq. lxxxiii, qu. 30). ere±ore, since “perverseness” * denotes a mortal sin, it seems that whoever sins, sins mortally. Objection 4. Further, whoever approaches one term, ±rom that very ±act turns away ±rom the opposite. Now whoever sins, approaches a mutable good, and, consequently turns away ±rom the immutable good, so that he sins mortally. ere±ore
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