B150MalF98T12

B150MalF98T12 - premed411.com B150MalF9812 BIL 150 Test #2...

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Unformatted text preview: premed411.com B150MalF9812 BIL 150 Test #2 02 November 1998 Fall 1998 Mallery - Sections PT FORM 0 MULTIPLE CHOICE Instructions: Pick the BEST answer choice form among those given. 1) A protein of a biological membrane that is easily removable without losing its biological activity or structural integrity is best referred to as a(an) ? a) extra-cellular protein b) intrinsic protein c) an enzyme d) peripheral protein e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 2) From among those given, which of the following would most likely move rapidly through the lipid bilayer of a membrane? a) CO2 b) an amino acid c) starch d) glucose e) choose this answer if none if these is likely to move more rapidly than any other 3) According to the fluid-mosaic model of membrane structure, phospholipids in a membrane frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other ? a) true b) false 4) The interior portion of a biological membrane ? a) is hydrophobic c) is where cholesterol molecules can be found b) contains the fatty acid tails of phospholipids d) choose this answer if all of these are correct 5) From the choices given which is most likely to be involved directly in active transport ? a) carbohydrates b) peripheral proteins c) integral proteins d) phospholipids e) choose this answer if none of these is likely to be involved in active transport 6) The net movement of uncharged molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration is? a) diffusion b) active transport c) osmosis d) exocytosis e) none of these is correct 7) The electrical voltage across a cell membrane is called its ? a) water potential b) osmotic potential c) electrochemical gradient e) choose this answer if none of these is correct d) membrane potential 8) The Na-Pump (sodium-potassium ATPase) is referred to as an electrogenic pump because it ? a) pumps equal amounts of Na and K across membranes by diffusion b) pumps hydrogen ions into a cells c) ionizes sodium d) results in a net movement of + charge to one side of a membrane d) choose this answer if none of these is correct 9) An organism with a cell wall of cellulose would probably have the greatest difficulty doing which of the following membrane processes ? a) phagocytosis b) osmosis c) diffusion d) active transport e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 10) Carrier molecules, as protein/enzymes, in plasma membranes are directly required for ? a) diffusion b) both facilitated diffusions and active transport c) osmosis d) exocytosis e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 11) Two similar sized epithelial cells are placed in a 0.5% sucrose solution. Cell 1 enlarges in size for a while, then stops enlarging. Cell 2 continues to enlarge and finally ruptures. Which of the following best describes the state of Cell1 and Cell 2 relative to each other at the beginning of this experiment? a) Cell 2 was hypertonic relative to Cell 1 b) Cell 1 was hypertonic relative to Cell 2 c) Cells 1 and 2 were isotonic to each other d) Cell 1 was hypotonic to the solution e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 12) Glycolysis, as an anaerobic process, can only be performed by bacterial cells? a) true b) false Bil 150 F98 - Test#2 Form 0 - 11/02/98 - Page 2 of 6 Use figure 1 to answer questions 13, 14 and 15 13) The item identified by the label (e.) is ? a) a peripheral protein b) collagen c) cholesterol d) a glycolipid e) it is none of these 14) The item identified by the label (a.) is ? a) a peripheral protein b) collagen c) cholesterol d) a glycolipid e) it is none of these 15) The item identified by the label (d.) is ? a) a peripheral protein b) collagen c) cholesterol d) a glycolipid e) it is none of these 16) The enzymes of glycolysis are found ? a) in a membrane bound organelle d) peri-mitochondrial space b) in the cytoplasm c) chloroplasm e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 17) Of the following energy-metabolic processes, which is most likely to be directly associated with membranes ? a) electron transport b) substrate level phosphorylation c) glycolysis d) the Krebs cycle e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 18) The establishment of a proton-motive gradient which drives the synthesis of ATP is often called ? a) substrate level phosphorylation b) glycolysis c) Krebs cycle d) chemiosmosis e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 19) Muscle cells, when in oxygen deprivation, convert pyruvate into ______ & by so doing regenerate ______? a) alcohol & CO2 b) lactate & NAD+ c) ATP & NAD+ d) CO2 & ATP e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 20) Which of the following is most directly responsible for establishing the proton gradient used to make ATP in cells during cellular respiration? a) substrate level phosphorylation b) decarboxylation c) the electron transfer chain d) reduction of NAD+ e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 21) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and Krebs cycle? a) true b) false 22) The primary function of the mitochondria is the production of ATP. To carry out this function, the mitochondria must have all of the following except? a) a mitochondrial membrane-bound electron transfer chain b) pumps embedded in mitochondrial membrane from moving protons c) the enzymes of the Krebs cycle d) mitochondrial ATP synthase e) choose this answer if the mitochondrial must have all of the above to make ATP 23) The gross total number of ATP's made per glucose directly by substrate level phosphorylation is greatest in ? a) glycolysis b) Krebs cycle c) electron transfer chain d) chemiosmosis e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 24) All of the following substances are made in a muscle cells under anaerobic conditions except? a) acetyl-CoA b) ATP c) NADH d) pyruvate e) lactate Bil 150 F98 - Test#2 Form 0 - 11/02/98 - Page 3 of 6 25) CO2 is released directly during which of the following? a) glycolysis b) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA c) chemiosmosis d) substrate level phosphorylation e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 26) The ATP synthase of cellular respiration is located ? a) on ribosomes b) in the electron transfer chain c) on inner mitochondrial membrane d) in the mitoplasm e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 27) During cell respiration energy travels, via electrons, from food molecules to NADH through an electron transfer chain eventually to oxygen? a) true b) false 28) The number of ATP molecules which may be generated by the oxidation of a single FADH2 molecule through the electron transfer chain is? a) 3 b) 2 c) 36 d) 38 e) none of these numbers is correct 29) You have a friend who lost some 15 pounds of fat on a rigorous diet. The fat was consumed by the pathway of betaoxidation and was therefore lost how? a) it was released as CO2 and H2O b) it was converted to heat, the released c) it was broken in amino acids and excreted d) it was converted to urine and excreted e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 30) During cellular respiration Acetyl-COA is made ? a) in the chloroplasm b) cytoplasm e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct c) inside the mitochondria d) nucleus 31) Which of the following is not a normal function of glycolysis? a) making of ATP b) making of NADH c) making of FADH2 d) formation of pyruvate e) choose this answer if all of the above are functions of glycolysis 32) Which of the following is not a normal function of Krebs cycle? a) making of ATP (GTP) b) making of NADH c) making of FADH2 d) release of CO2 e) choose this answer if all of the above are functions of Krebs cycle 33) The group of plants which fix CO2 into organic acids at night, when the stoma are open, and carry out the Calvin cycle during the day, when the stoma are closed are? a) C3 plants b) C4 plants c) CAM plants d) photosynthetic bacteria only e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 34) Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of green plants photosynthesis by interfering with which of the following's contribution in the Calvin cycle? a) PEP carboxylase b) ATP molecules c) CO2 molecules d) water molecules e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 35) A newly released environmental toxic chemical has its effect by binding to thylakoid disks in chloroplasts and somehow puncturing the disk, so that the interior contents are no longer separated from the chloroplasm (stroma). The damage caused by this chemical will effect most directly which of the following processes? a) splitting of water b) synthesis of ATP c) absorption of light by chlorophyll d) reduction of NADP+ e) it will affect none of these processes 36) C4 plants use a more efficient enzyme to initially fix CO2 resulting in an apparent lack of photorespiration. This enzyme is? a) RuBP carboxylase b) PEP carboxylase c) pyruvate decarboxylase d) Rubisco e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct Bil 150 F98 - Test#2 Form 0 - 11/02/98 - Page 4 of 6 37) The proton gradient established during electron transfer in photosynthesis is used to reduce NADP+ ? a) true b) false 38) An action spectra for human vision might be a plot of the neuron activity of the human optic nerve against the wavelengths of light in the visible spectrum? a) true b) false 39) The primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis seem to be to ? a) make glucose from CO2 and water directly b) to make ATP and NADPH c) to make RuBP d) make NADH for fermentation e) none of these 40) On a trip to the hurricane ravaged coast of Honduras, you discover a new flowering species with a unique photosynthetic pigment. The plant's leaves appear reddish-yellow in color. What wavelengths of visible light are not being absorbed by this plant's pigments? a) blue/violet b) green/blue c) green/yellow d) red/yellow e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 41) Which of the following events occur because of or during the light reactions of photosynthesis? a) photolysis b) NADP+ reduction c) ADP phosphorylation d) light absorption e) choose this answer if all of these things happen as a result of the light reactions 42) During the events at Photosystem II the P680 chlorophyll molecule donates a pair of electrons directly to NADPH converting it into NADP+. a) true b) false 43) When a chlorophyll, in photosystem I, photoionizes in non-cyclic electron flow, its electron is replaced by ? a) an electron from NADPH b) by an electron from PS II c) by an electron from FADH2 d) by an electron directly from H2O e) none of these is correct 44) Where does the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis take place? a) cytoplasm surrounding a chloroplast b) on a chlorophyll molecule c) peri-chloroplast space d) chloroplasm (stroma) of a chloroplast e) none of these is correct 45) The color of visible light which is most effective for photosynthesis in plants is green? a) true b) false 46) Cyclic electron flow in photosynthesis produces? a) ATP only b) ATP and NADPH e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct c) NADPH only d) glucose only 47) Photosynthesis stores energy into complex organic molecules, while cellular respiration releases some of this stored energy? a) true b) false 48) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If cells were to undergo mitosis, but not subsequent cytokinesis, this would likely result in ? a) abnormally small nuclei b) a tetraploid cell c) no microtubules being formed d) only 2 chromosomes being present e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 49) If there were 24 chromosomes present in the G2 stage of the cell cycle, then the diploid number of chromosomes for this organism is ? a) 6 b) 12 c) 24 d) 36 e) none of these is correct 50) The group of enzymes which catalyze the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to target proteins, often changing the shape and relative activity (inactive to active and vice versa) are the? a) MPF's - mitotic promoting factors b) cyclins c) kinases d) microtubulinases e) choose this answer if none of these is correct Bil 150 F98 - Test#2 Form 0 - 11/02/98 - Page 5 of 6 51) If the haploid chromosome number for a given species is 3, then each dividing diploid cell will have how many chromatids at metaphase? a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12 e) none of these is a correct number 52) When does a synaptonemal complex form? a) prophase I of meiosis b) metaphase II of meiosis c) anaphase of mitosis b) prophase of mitosis e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 53) How does the sexual life cycle (meiosis) increase the genetic variability within a species? a) by making gametes with different combinations of parental chromosomes b) by allowing recombination of chromosomes from two different individuals c) by allowing recombination of alleles on a chromosome d) choose this answer if all of the above increase genetic variability 54) Which of the following events occur prophase I of meiosis? a) duplication of chromatids b) synapsis and crossing over c) reduction-division d) attachment of spindle fibers e) choose this answer if none of these events occur 55) What is a karyotype? a) a kind of nucleus a cell has b) the phenotype of an individual c) the genotype of an individual d) a unique combination of gamete chromosomes e) choose this answer if none of these is a karyotype 56) Which of the following is the best term to describe a human, which contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two x chromosomes? a) an unfertilized egg cell b) heterogametic sex c) male d) homogametic sex e) choose this answer if none of these is a correct term 57) A couple, who are both carriers for the gene for cystic fibrosis, already have two children who have cf. What is the probability that their next child will be phenotypically normal? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 75% e) none of these is a correct choice 58) A cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and a homozygous recessive is known as? a) a self-cross b) a test-cross c) a hybrid cross d) a dihybrid cross e) none of these is correct 59) In Ibises, a small feathered mascot of the best team in the land, orange feathers (G) is dominant to green feathers (g); short legs (L) is dominant to long legs (l). What proportion of the progeny of the following cross [GgLl x GGll] will have orange feathers and long legs? a) 1/16 b) 4/16 c) 8/16 d) 9/16 e) none of these is correct 60) A couple has 3 kids, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB), but one parent is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) it's impossible e) none of these is correct 61) A mammalian zygote with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities will probably never be a viable embryo and survive? a) YO b) XXX c) XYY d) XO e) none of these is a correct answer 62) The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is proportional to the distance between the two genes? a) true b) false Bil 150 F98 - Test#2 Form 0 - 11/02/98 - Page 6 of 6 63) A man who carries an X-linked recessive allele will pass it on to ? a) all of his daughters b) all of his sons c) half his sons e) choose this answer if none of these is correct d) half his daughters 64) Gene M is 10 centiMorgans (cM) from gene P, and gene A is 7 cM from gene M, and gene P is 3 cM from gene A. The most like gene map for these genes is? a) AMP b) PAMc) MPA d) PMA e) none of these is likely 65) Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive character in humans. If Queen Victoria, a known hemophiliac, and Prince Albert, who was normal, had a son, Prince Leopold, and two Princesses, Alice and Beatrice. The probability that Leopold is a hemophiliac is ? a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100% e) none of these is correct 66) The enzyme of DNA replication which enhances the separation of the two DNA strands is ? a) helicase b) RuBP carboxylase c) primase d) binding proteins e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 67) If cytosine make up 22% of all the nucleotides in a piece of DNA then adenine would make up ? a) 22% b) 44% c) 28% d) 56% e) none of these is correct 68) The investigator(s) credited with the following is(are): Chemicals from heat killed S cells were purified and tested for their ability to transform live R cells. He (they) identified the chemical as DNA. a) Griffith b) Meselson and Stahl c) Avery, MacLeod, & McCarty d) Hershey & Chase e) none of these investigators did this 69) Beavis and his friend find out about Hershey and Chase's experiment. For their science fair project, they decide to repeat the experiment, but decide that labeling with P-32 isn't good enough. Each nucleotide has only 1 phosphate, but has 2 to 5 nitrogen's, thus labeling with radioactive nitrogen's would give the a bigger result. You should warn them it won't work, because? a) there is no radioactive nitrogen b) Meselson & Stahl already did it c) P is more radioactive than N d) amino acids (& proteins) contain N, thus radioactivity wouldn't distinquish DNA from protein e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct 70) A piece of DNA is known to have exactly 5 complete 3600 turns in it; therefore this DNA contains? a) 50 total nucleotides b) 100 total nucleotides c) 360 total nucleotides d) zero nucleotides for DNA doesn't have nucleotides e) none of these is a correct answer 71) In "Medical Terminology" for the Layman which of the following is correct. a) IMPOTENT is to be distinguished & well known b) DILATE is to live long c) CONGENITAL is friendly d) VEIN is to be conceited e) none of the above is correct - PICK only this choice to receive credit. ...
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