B150Mf01t1f0 - M .CO TEST # 1 September 25, 2001 411 Bil...

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Unformatted text preview: M .CO TEST # 1 September 25, 2001 411 Bil 150 Section PT Mallery - PR E MED FORM 0 D41 1.C OM Directions: Choose the BEST answer from among those given. P OM - PR EME 01. Which of the following numbers of progeny of a fertile woman most closely represents replacement level fertility? a) 2.1 b) 3.5 c) 5.0 d) 10 e) choose this answer if none of these is correct - PR EME D41 1.C 02. According to the “greenhouse” theory the atmospheric concentration of greenhouse gases, as CO2, have declined steadily throughout the last 100 years. a) true b) false D41 1.C OM 03. Stem cells are embryonic cells that can develop into functional, differentiated cells, and human embryonic stem cells are unique for they’re pluripotent, i.e., they can develop into all cells and tissues in the human body. a) true b) false OM - PR EME 04. A clone is colony or group of organisms (or an individual organism or group of cells) derived from a single organism or cell by asexual reproduction, all having identical genetic constitutions. a) true b) false - PR EME D41 1.C 05. The set of experimental conditions where all are identical but one variable is inactive, is often an experiments? a) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning b) control c) theory d) conclusion e) none of these is correct a) true b) false OM 06. Science does not deal with hypotheses that are not experimentally testable? e) none of these - PR EME D41 1.C 07. The individual(s) most responsible for the formalization of the cell theory is(are)? a) Francois Jacob b) Miller & Urey c) Schleiden & Schwann d) Leeuwenhoek 1.C OM 08. Cell and living matter function via a unique and special set of chemical and physical laws different from those that govern the physical properties of the rest of our Universe. a) true b) false OM - PR EME D41 09. The source of the early precursor molecules of life on the planet Earth is most probably? a) chemical evolution (like Miller-Urey experiment) b) comets c) deep-welling hydrothermal vents d) asteroids e) choose this answer if all of the above are possible or likely sources - PR EME D41 1.C 10. The chemical reaction that links monomeric units together to form a biological polymer is most likely? a) hydrolysis b) oxidation c) reduction d) condensation e) none of these is a correct choice D41 1.C OM 11. Eucaryotes are characterized by? a) presence of a nucleus b) a cytoskeleton c) organelles d) sexual reproduction e) choose this answer if all of the above are distinguishing characteristics of eucaryotes vs. procaryotes 11. COM - PR EME 12. Organisms that obtain their energy from chemical fuels [foods as sugars] and are unable to synthesize all their needed molecules and thus need to obtain many molecular nutrients by dietary means are classified as? a) autotrophs b) heterotrophs c) plant cells d) Hela cells e) none of these is correct COM - PR EME D4 13. A key molecular property of the molecules may be the self-assembly of molecules leading to greater molecular complexity, i.e., individual macromolecules with affinities for each other may easily form supra-molecular complexes, such as organelles. a) true b) false - PR EME D4 11. 14. While an increase in cell number is often defined as cell division, and increase in the mass of a cell is called? a) growth b) differentiation c) osmoregulation d) cyclosis e) none of these is correct a) true COM 15. All of today’s living cells are presumed to have derived from a single primordial cell? M PRE M ED4 11. 16. Isotopes differ from their normal element by having a different number of? a) protons b) neutrons c) electrons d) atoms e) none of these is a correct choice PRE MED 411 .CO 17. Of the types of chemical bonds listed below which is the weakest? a) covalent bond b) peptide bond c) glycosidic bond d) ionic bond e) choose this answer if all of these bonds are of the same strength level b) false M .CO MED 411 150F01 – form 0 - test 1 – pg 2 D41 1.C OM - PR E 18. Which of the following physical properties of water molecules is due to its ability form hydrogen bonds? a) its cohesiveness b) its heat of vaporization c) its specific heat d) its heat of fusion e) choose this answer if all of the above properties of water are due to its hydrogen bonding capability - -9 1.C OM - PR EME 19. Which side of the dipole molecule shown to the right is its electronegative side? a) O side b) H side c) neither, it’s not a dipole d) choose this answer if none of these is correct - PR EME D41 20. A solution that has a [ OH ] concentration of 10 molar would have a pH of? a) pH 9.0 b) pH 5.0 c) pH 3.0 d) ph 9.5 e) none of these is a correct choice a) true b) false 1.C OM 21. Isomers have the same structural formula, but a different chemical (empirical) formula? OM - PR EME D41 22. The glycosidic bond that makes up the malt sugar, maltose, is best described as? a) Ü 1-4 glucose-glucose b) â 1-4 glucose-glucose c) â 1-4 glucose-fructose c) L-aspartyl-phenylalanyl e) choose this answer if none of these is correct A-side - PR EME D41 1.C 23. Which of the following polysaccharide molecules is the most branched form of a long chain polymer of Ü-glucose? a) amylose b) starch c) glycogen d) cellulose e) none of these is a correct choice B-side - PR EME D41 1.C OM 24. Which side of the molecule shown to the left, the A-side or the B-side, would you describe as the hydrophobic side? a) A-side b) B-side c) neither side is hydrophobic d) none of these is a correct choice d) a purine base e) none of these is correct D41 1.C OM 25. Which of the following is never found as part of a nucleotide? a) a phosphate b) –SH (sulfhydryl) c) a ribose sugar D41 1.C OM - PR EME 26. Which of the following chemical functional groups (or part of it) is the one that best defines aldehydes/ketose, like the one you would find in aldose and ketose sugars? a) –C=O b) –CH3 c) –SH d) –NH2 e) choose this answer if none of these is correct OM - PR EME 27. What is the charge likely to be of the amino acid shown in the figure to the right at pH 8.9? a) +1 b) +2 c) –1 d) –2 e) none of these is a correct choice - PR EME D41 1.C 28. Which of the following is an electrically charged amino acid? a) a basic amino acid b) a non-polar amino acid c) aromatic amino acid d) amino acids that contain only hydrocarbons e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct d) amide (peptide) bond e) none of these - PR EME D4 11. COM 29. Which of these chemical bonds forms a dipeptide? a) hydrogen bond b) ester bond c) glycosidic bond 11. COM 30. Which of these laboratory procedures would might you use to determine the molecular weight of a protein? a) SDS-PAGE b) differential centrifugation c) light microscopy d) ion-exchange chromatography e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 11. COM - PR EME D4 31. The enzyme catalase from beef liver and from beef kidney catalyze the same chemical reaction, yet have much different primary protein structures. This is an example of? a) invariant proteins b) inter-specific polymorphism c) site specificity d) intra-specific polymorphism e) choose this answer if none of these is correct M PRE M ED4 32. Which of these is a complex protein? a) albumin b) globulin c) histone d) lipoprotein e) choose this answer if none of these is correct PRE MED 411 .CO 33. In the figure to the right the “boX ed” area depicts what level of protein structure? a) primary level b) alpha helix c) beta sheet d) quarternary level e) choose this answer if none of these is correct M .CO 1.C OM - PR E MED 411 150F01 – form 0 - test 1 – pg 3 - PR EME D41 1.C OM - PR EME D41 34. The type of column chromatography depicted in the figure to the left is? a) gel filtration chromatography b) size exclusion chromatography c) ion exchange chromatography d) affinity chromatography e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 1.C OM Protein Standard Curve - PR EME D41 1.C OM - PR EME Abs 590nm D41 35. After homogenizing a rat’s liver tissue, we take 1 ml of the homogenate and react it with Biuret reagent to determine the amount of protein it contains. We observe that the 1.0 ml of the homogenate has an absorbance of 0.5 when reacted with the Biuret reagent. If the whole rat liver homogenate had a total volume of 25 ml, then how much protein is there in this rat’s liver? [use curve to right to determine answer] a) 5 mg b) 25 mg c) 125 mg d) 300 mg e) choose this answer if none of these is correct 0.8 0.7 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 0 1 1.5 OM 0.5 2.5 5 10 25 - PR EME D41 1.C albumin mg/ml 1.C OM 36. Which of the following graphical plots of the rate of enzyme activity would result in a linear plot, i.e., a doubling? a) rate vs. [S] b) rate vs. pH c) rate vs. [E] d) rate vs. temperature e) none of these is correct 1.C OM - PR EME D41 37. The hypothesis that an enzyme protein only forms it full and specific active site upon direct interaction with its substrates is referred to as? a) lock & key hypothesis b) induced fit hypothesis c) allosteric inhibition theory d) coenzyme hypothesis e) choose this answer if none of these is correct - PR EME D41 38. A regulator molecule that can convert an inactive enzyme to an active one or vice-versa most likely binds to? a) active site b) allosteric site c) coenzyme d) substrate e) none of these is correct COM - PR EME D41 1.C OM 39. An new poison is believed to kill cells by its ability to change the shape of an enzyme molecule so that its Michaelis constant (Km) goes from 2.0 mg to 4.5 mg, while the maximum rate of activity of this inhibited enzyme at high substrate concentrations remains the same. This poison is functioning like as a? a) coenzyme b) non-competitive inhibitor c) competitive inhibitor d) allosteric activator e) choose this answer if none of these is correct - PR EME D4 11. 40. The major class of enzymes, like carboxypeptidase-A, that add water across carbon-carbon bonds is(are)? a) oxidoreductases b) transferases c) hydrolyases d) isomerases e) none of these is correct d) bacillus e) none of these is correct COM 41. Which of the following procaryotes is an Archaebacteria? a) a methanogen b) a cyanobacteria c) staphylococcus - PR EME D4 11. 42. A prion is a? a) plant cell b) virus particle c) procaryotic cell d) infective protein agent e) none of these ED4 11. COM 43. Which of the following instruments would one use to section (cut) tissue specimens for microscopy? a) centrifuge b) microtome c) tissue grinder d) electrophoresis e) none of these is correct PRE MED 411 .CO M PRE M 44. the resolving power (resolution) of the electron microscope is closest to? a) 1 meter b) 1 millimeter c) 1 ì meter d) 0.1 nanometer e) none of these is correct M .CO - PR E MED 411 150F01 – form 0 - test 1 – pg 4 1.C OM Answer questions 45,46, & 47 with regard to the graph below. - PR EME D41 45. Which enzyme better recognizes (has a greater affinity for) its substrate? a) enzyme A b) B c) neither A nor B - they have equal affinities d) 0.6 ì mole glucose - PR EME D41 1.C c) 6.0 ì mole glucose c) 6.0 ì mole glucose d) 0.6 ì mole glucose - PR EME D41 1.C OM 47. The Michaelis constant for enzyme B is ? a) 0.06 mg per min b) 1.0 mg per minute e) none of these is a correct choice OM 46. The Vmax for enzyme A is? a) 0.06 mg per min b) 1.0 mg per minute e) none of these is a correct choice d) none of these is correct Enz A 1.C OM Enz B D41 - PR EME OM 0.08 D41 1.C 0.06 0.04 - PR EME rate (mg per min) 0.1 D41 1.C OM 0.02 0.5 0.6 0.8 2 4 8 16 24 48 50 umole glucose D41 1.C OM 0.002 - PR EME 0 - PR EME D4 11. COM - PR EME D41 1.C OM - PR EME From the electron micrographs given below: B C 48. Pick out the one that is a FfEM? a) A b) B c) C d) none of these 49. Pick out the one that is a SEM? a) A b) B c) C d) none of these a) A b) B c) C d) none of these 11. COM - PR EME D4 11. COM A PRE MED 411 .CO M PRE M ED4 50. Pick out the one that is a TEM? M .CO 411 11 E 21 B 31 D 2B 12 B 22 A 32 D 3A 13 A 23 C 33 C 4A 14 A 24 B 34 D 5B 15 A 25 B 35 C 6A 16 B 26 A 36 C 7C 17 D 27 C 37 B 47 D 8B 18 E 28 A 38 B 48 C 9E 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 A 10 D 20 B 30 A 40 C 1.C D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME OM D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME OM 1.C D41 - PR EME COM 11. - PR EME D4 COM 11. - PR EME D4 COM 11. ED4 M PRE M .CO 411 MED PRE OM 1A 1.C - PR E MED KEY 41 A 42 D 43 B 44 D 45 B 46 E 50 B 150F01 – form 0 - test 1 – pg 5 ...
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