Chapters 7 thru 11 and 16 thru 22

Chapters 7 thru 11 and 16 thru 22 -...

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Unformatted text preview: CHAPTER
7
–
THE
ENDOCRINE
SYSTEM
 Test
Questions
 11­1
c

 11­2
a

 11­3
e

 11­4
b
 11­5
d
 11­6
a
 At
any
given
concentration
of
hormone,
more
A
is
bound
to
receptor
than
B.
 11­7
d
 Goiter
results
from
dysfunction
of
the
thyroid
gland.
 11­8
e
 Recall
that
thyroid
hormone
potentiates
the
effects
of
epinephrine
and
the
SNS.
 11­9
b
 
 11­10
e
 Recall
that
there
exists
a
large
store
of
iodinated
thyroglobulin
in
thyroid
follicles.
 11­11
c
 Low
plasma
Ca2+
decreases
the
filtered
load
of
Ca2+.
It
also
stimulates
parathyroid
hormone,
 which
increases
Ca2+
reabsorption
from
the
distal
tubule.
This
helps
to
prevent
the
further
 loss
of
Ca2+
in
the
urine.
 11­12
d
 Parathyroid
hormone
is
a
potent
stimulator
of
Ca2+
resorption
from
bone.
 11­13
T
 T4
is
the
chief
circulating
form,
but
T3
is
more
active.
 11­14
F
 Acromegaly
is
associated
with
hyperglycemia
and
hypertension.
 11­15
T
 
 
 Quantitative
and
Thought
Questions
 11­1
 Epinephrine
 falls
 to
 very
 low
 levels
 during
 rest
 and
 fails
 to
 increase
 during
 stress.
 The
 sympathetic
preganglionics
provide
the
only
major
control
of
the
adrenal
medulla.
 11­2
 The
 increased
 concentration
 of
 binding
 protein
 causes
 more
 TH
 to
 be
 bound,
 thereby
 lowering
the
plasma
concentration
of
 free
TH.
This
causes
less
negative
feedback
inhibition
of
 TSH
 secretion
 by
 the
 anterior
 pituitary
 gland,
 and
 the
 increased
 TSH
 causes
 the
 thyroid
 to
 secrete
 more
 TH
 until
 the
 free
 concentration
 has
 returned
 to
 normal.
 The
 end
 result
 is
 an
 increased
 total
 plasma
 TH—most
 bound
 to
 the
 protein—but
 a
 normal
 free
 TH.
 There
 is
 no
 hyperthyroidism
 because
 it
 is
 only
 the
 free
 concentration
 that
 exerts
 effects
 on
 TH’s
 target
 cells.
 11­3
 Destruction
 of
 the
 anterior
 pituitary
 gland
 or
 hypothalamus.
 These
 symptoms
 reflect
 the
 absence
of,
in
order,
growth
hormone,
the
gonadotropins,
and
ACTH
(the
symptom
is
due
to
 the
resulting
decrease
in
cortisol
secretion).
The
problem
is
either
primary
hyposecretion
of
 anterior
 pituitary
 gland
 hormones
 or
 secondary
 hyposecretion
 because
 the
 hypothalamus
 is
 not
secreting
hypophysiotropic
hormones
normally.
 11­4
 Vasopressin
and
oxytocin
(the
posterior
pituitary
gland
hormones)
secretion
would
decrease.
 The
 anterior
 pituitary
 gland
 hormones
 would
 not
 be
 affected
 because
 the
 influence
 of
 the
 hypothalamus
 on
 these
 hormones
 is
 exerted
 not
 by
 connecting
 nerves
 but
 via
 the
 hypophysiotropic
hormones
in
the
portal
vascular
system.
 11­5
 The
secretion
of
GH
increases.
Somatostatin,
coming
from
the
hypothalamus,
normally
exerts
 an
inhibitory
effect
on
the
secretion
of
this
hormone.
 11­6
 Norepinephrine
and
many
other
neurotransmitters
are
released
by
neurons
that
terminate
on
 the
 hypothalamic
 neurons
 that
 secrete
 the
 hypophysiotropic
 hormones.
 Therefore,
 manipulation
 of
 these
 neurotransmitters
 will
 alter
 secretion
 of
 the
 hypophysiotropic
 hormones
and
thereby
the
anterior
pituitary
gland
hormones.
 11­7
 The
 high
 dose
 of
 the
 cortisol‐like
 substance
 inhibits
 the
 secretion
 of
 ACTH
 by
 feedback
 inhibition
 of
 (1)
 hypothalamic
 corticotropin
 releasing
 hormone
 and
 (2)
 the
 response
 of
 the
 anterior
 pituitary
 gland
 to
 this
 hypophysiotropic
 hormone.
 The
 lack
 of
 ACTH
 causes
 the
 adrenal
to
atrophy
and
decrease
its
secretion
of
cortisol.
 11­8
 The
hypothalamus.
The
low
basal
TSH
indicates
either
that
the
pituitary
gland
is
defective
or
 that
it
is
receiving
inadequate
stimulation
(TRH)
from
the
hypothalamus.
If
the
thyroid
itself
 were
defective,
basal
TSH
would
be
elevated
because
of
less
negative
feedback
inhibition
by
 TH.
 The
 TSH
 increase
 in
 response
 to
 TRH
 shows
 that
 the
 pituitary
 gland
 is
 capable
 of
 responding
to
a
stimulus
and
so
is
unlikely
to
be
defective.
Therefore,
the
problem
is
that
the
 hypothalamus
is
secreting
too
little
TRH
(in
reality,
this
is
very
rare).
 11­9
 In
 utero
 malnutrition.
 Neither
 growth
 hormone
 nor
 the
 thyroid
 hormones
 influence
 in
 utero
growth.
 11­10
 Androgens
stimulate
growth
but
also
cause
the
ultimate
cessation
of
growth
by
closing
the
 epiphyseal
 plates.
 Therefore,
 there
 might
 be
 a
 rapid
 growth
 spurt
 in
 response
 to
 the
 androgens
but
a
subsequent
premature
cessation
of
growth.
Estrogens
exert
similar
effects.
 
 CHAPTER
8
–
NEURONAL
SIGNALING
AND
THE
STRUCTURE
OF
THE
NERVOUS
SYSTEM
 Test
Questions
 6­1
b
 Afferent
 neurons
 have
 peripheral
 axon
 terminals
 associated
 with
 sensory
 receptors,
 cell
 bodies
in
the
dorsal
root
ganglion
of
the
spinal
cord,
and
central
axon
terminals
that
 project
 into
the
spinal
cord.
 6­2
c
 Oligodendrocytes
form
myelin
sheaths
in
the
central
nervous
system.
 6­3
d
 Insert
the
given
chloride
ion
concentrations
into
the
Nernst
equation;
remember
to
use
 ‐1
as
 the
valence
(Z).
 6­4
d
 A,
B,
and
C
all
are
correct.
Using
the
Nernst
equation
to
calculate
the
Na+
equilibrium
potential
 gives
values
of
 +31,
 +36,
and
 +40
mV
for
A,
B,
and
C.
If
the
membrane
potential
was
 +42
mV,
 the
outward
electrical
force
on
Na+
would
be
greater
than
the
inward
concentration
gradient,
 so
Na+
would
move
out
of
the
cell
in
each
of
these
cases.
 6­5
e
 Neither
Na+
nor
K+
is
in
equilibrium
at
the
resting
membrane
potential,
but
the
action
of
the
 Na+/K+‐ATPase
 pump
 prevents
 the
 small
 but
 steady
 leak
 of
 both
 ions
 from
 dissipating
 the
 concentration
gradients.
 6­6
a
 Because
 Na+
 is
 farther
 away
 from
 its
 electrochemical
 equilibrium
 than
 is
 K+,
 there
 would
 be
 more
 Na+
 entry
 than
 K+
 exit,
 causing
 local
 depolarization
 and
 local
 current
 flow
 that
 would
 decrease
with
distance
from
the
site
of
the
stimulus.
 6­7
c
 Due
to
the
persistent
open
state
of
the
voltage‐gated
K+
channels,
for
a
brief
time
at
the
end
 of
an
action
potential
the
membrane
is
hyperpolarized.
When
the
voltage‐gated
K+
channels
 eventually
close,
the
K+
leak
channels
once
again
determine
the
resting
membrane
potential.
 6­8
d
 The
 IPSP
 caused
 by
 neuron
 B
 would
 summate
 with
 (subtract
 from)
 the
 amplitude
 of
 the
 EPSP
caused
by
neuron
A’s
firing.
 6­9
a
 Dopamine,
 like
 norepinephrine
 and
 epinephrine,
 is
 a
 catecholamine
 neurotransmitter
 manufactured
by
enzymatic
modification
of
the
amino
acid
tyrosine.
 6­10
b
 Norepinephrine
 is
 the
 neurotransmitter
 released
 by
 postganglionic
 neurons
 onto
 smooth
 muscle
cells.
 
 Quantitative
and
Thought
Questions
 6 ­1 
 Little
 change
 in
 the
 resting
 membrane
 potential
 would
 occur
 when
 the
 pump
 first
 stops
 because
 the
 pump’s
 direct
 contribution
 to
 charge
 separation
 is
 very
 small.
 With
 time,
 however,
the
membrane
potential
would
depolarize
progressively
toward
zero
because
the
 Na+
and
K+
concentration
gradients,
which
depend
on
the
Na+/K+‐ATPase
pumps
and
which
 give
rise
to
the
membrane
potential,
run
down.
 6 ­2 
 The
resting
potential
would
decrease
(i.e.,
become
less
negative)
because
the
concentration
 gradient
causing
net
diffusion
of
this
positively
charged
ion
out
of
the
cell
would
be
smaller.
 The
 action
 potential
 would
 fire
 more
 easily
 (i.e.,
 with
 smaller
 stimuli)
 because
 the
 resting
 potential
 would
 be
 closer
 to
 threshold.
 It
 would
 repolarize
 more
 slowly
 because
 repolarization
 depends
 on
 net
 K+
 diffusion
 from
 the
 cell,
 and
 the
 concentration
 gradient
 driving
this
diffusion
is
lower.
Also,
the
afterhyperpolarization
would
be
smaller.
 6 ­3 
 The
 hypothalamus
 was
 probably
 damaged.
 It
 plays
 a
 critical
 role
 in
 appetite,
 thirst,
 and
 sexual
capacity.
 6 ­4 
 The
drug
probably
blocks
cholinergic
muscarinic
receptors.
These
receptors
on
effector
cells
 mediate
 the
 actions
 of
 parasympathetic
 nerves.
 Therefore,
 the
 drug
 would
 remove
 the
 slowing
 effect
 of
 these
 nerves
 on
 the
 heart,
 allowing
 the
 heart
 to
 speed
 up.
 Blocking
 their
 effect
 on
 the
 salivary
 glands
 would
 cause
 the
 dry
 mouth.
 We
 know
 that
 the
 drug
 is
 not
 blocking
cholinergic
nicotinic
receptors
because
the
skeletal
muscles
are
not
affected.
 6 ­5 
 Because
 the
 membrane
 potential
 of
 the
 cells
 in
 question
 depolarizes
 (i.e.,
 becomes
 less
 − − negative)
when
Cl 
channels
are
blocked,
one
can
assume
there
was
net
Cl 
diffusion
into
the
 cells
 through
 these
 channels
 prior
 to
 treatment
 with
 the
 drug.
 Therefore,
 one
 can
 also
 predict
that
this
passive
inward
movement
was
being
exactly
balanced
by
active
transport
of
 − Cl 
out
of
the
cells.
 6 ­6 
 Without
acetylcholinesterase,
more
acetylcholine
would
remain
bound
to
the
receptors,
and
 all
the
actions
normally
caused
by
acetylcholine
would
be

 accentuated.
 Thus,
 there
 would
 be
 marked
 narrowing
 of
 the
 pupils,
 airway
 constriction,
 stomach
 cramping
 and
 diarrhea,
 sweating,
salivation,
slowing
of
the
heart,
and
decrease
in
blood
pressure.
On
the
other
hand,
 in
skeletal
muscles,
which
must
repolarize
after
excitation
in
order
to
be
excited
again,
there
 would
be
weakness,
fatigue,
and
finally
inability
to
contract.
In
fact,
lethal
poisoning
by
high
 doses
 of
 cholinesterase
 inhibitors
 occurs
 because
 of
 paralysis
 of
 the
 muscles
 involved
 in
 respiration.
Low
doses
of
these
compounds
are
used
therapeutically.
 6 ­7 
 These
 K+
 channels,
 which
 open
 after
 a
 short
 delay
 following
 the
 initiation
 of
 an
 action
 potential,
increase
K+
diffusion
out
of
the
cell,
hastening
repolarization.
They
also
account
for
 the
 increased
 K+
 permeability
 that
 causes
 the
 afterhyperpolarization.
 Therefore,
 the
 action
 potential
 would
 be
 broader
 (that
 is,
 longer
 in
 duration)
 and
 would
 return
 to
 resting
 level
 more
slowly,
and
the
afterhyperpolarization
would
be
absent.
 
 CHAPTER
9
–
MUSCLE
 9­1
a
 A
single
skeletal
muscle
fiber,
or
cell,
is
composed
of
many
myofibrils.
 9­2
e
 The
dark
stripe
in
a
striated
muscle
that
constitutes
the
A
band
results
from
the
aligned
thick
 filaments
within
myofibrils,
so
thick
filament
length
is
equal
to
A‐band
width.
 9­3
b
 As
 filaments
 slide
 during
 a
 shortening
 contraction,
 the
 I
 band
 becomes
 narrower,
 so
 the
 distance
between
the
Z
line
and
the
thick
filaments
(at
the
end
of
the
A
band)
must
decrease.
 9­4
d
 DHP
receptors
act
as
voltage
sensors
in
the
T‐tubule
membrane
and
are
physically
linked
to
 ryanodine
 receptors
 in
 the
 sarcoplasmic
 reticulum
 membrane.
 When
 an
 action
 potential
 depolarizes
 the
 T‐tubule
 membrane,
 DHP
 receptors
 change
 conformation
 and
 trigger
 the
 opening
 of
 the
 ryanodine
 receptors.
 This
 allows
 Ca2+
 to
 diffuse
 from
 the
 interior
 of
 the
 sarcoplasmic
reticulum
into
the
cytosol.
 9­5
c
 In
an
isometric
twitch,
tension
begins
to
rise
as
soon
as
excitation–contraction
is
complete
 and
 the
 first
 cross‐bridges
 begin
 to
 attach.
 In
 an
 isotonic
 twitch,
 excitation–contraction
 coupling
takes
the
same
amount
of
time,
but
the
fiber
is
delayed
from
shortening
until
after
 enough
cross‐bridges
have
attached
to
move
the
load.
 9­6
b
 In
the
first
few
seconds
of
exercise,
mass
action
favors
transfer
of
the
high‐energy
phosphate
 from
creatine
phosphate
to
ADP
by
the
enzyme
creatine
kinase.
 9­7
d
 Fast‐oxidative‐glycolytic
 fibers
 are
 an
 intermediate
 type
 that
 are
 designed
 to
 contract
 rapidly
 but
 to
 resist
 fatigue.
 They
 utilize
 both
 aerobic
 and
 anaerobic
 energy
 systems;
 thus,
 they
 are
 red
 fibers
 with
 high
 myoglobin
 (which
 facilitates
 production
 of
 ATP
 by
 oxidative
 phosphorylation),
but
they
also
have
a
moderate
ability
to
generate
ATP
through
glycolytic
 pathways.
(Refer
to
Table
9–3.)
 9­8
c
 In
smooth
muscle
cells,
dense
bodies
serve
the
same
functional
role
as
Z
lines
do
in
striated
 muscle
cells—they
serve
as
the
anchoring
point
for
the
thin
filaments.
 9­9
b
 When
myosin‐light‐chain
kinase
transfers
a
phosphate
group
from
ATP
to
the
myosin
light
 chains
of
the
cross‐bridges,
binding
and
cycling
of
cross‐bridges
is
activated.
 9­10
d
 Stretching
a
sheet
of
single‐unit
smooth
muscle
cells
opens
mechanically
gated
ion
channels,
 which
causes
a
depolarization
that
propagates
through
gap
junctions,
followed
by
Ca2+
entry
 and
contraction.
This
does
not
occur
in
multiunit
smooth
muscle.
 9­11
e
 The
amount
of
Ca2+
released
during
a
typical
resting
heart
beat
exposes
less
than
half
of
the
 thin
 filament
 cross‐bridge
 binding
 sites.
 Autonomic
 neurotransmitters
 and
 hormones
 can
 increase
or
decrease
the
amount
of
Ca2+
released
to
the
cytosol
during
EC
coupling.
 Quantitative
and
Thought
Questions
 9 ­1 
 Under
resting
conditions,
the
myosin
has
already
bound
and
hydrolyzed
a
molecule
of
ATP,
 resulting
 in
 an
 energized
 molecule
 of
 myosin
 (M
 ·
 ADP
 ·
 Pi).
 Because
 ATP
 is
 necessary
 to
 detach
the
myosin
cross‐bridge
from
actin
at
the
end
of
cross‐bridge
movement,
the
absence
 of
ATP
will
result
in
rigor
mortis,
in
which
case
the
cross‐bridges
become
bound
to
actin
but
 do
not
detach,
leaving
myosin
bound
to
actin
(A
⋅
M).
 9 ­2 
 No.
The
transverse
tubules
conduct
the
muscle
action
potential
from
the
plasma
 membrane
 into
the
interior
of
the
fiber,
where
it
can
trigger
the
release
of
Ca2+
from
the
sarcoplasmic
 reticulum.
 If
 the
 transverse
 tubules
 were
 not
 attached
 to
 the
 plasma
 membrane,
 an
 action
 potential
 could
 not
 be
 conducted
 to
 the
 sarcoplasmic
 reticulum,
 and
 there
 would
 be
 no
 release
of
Ca2+
to
initiate
contraction.
 9 ­3 
 The
 length–tension
 relationship
 states
 that
 the
 maximum
 tension
 developed
 by
 a
 muscle
 decreases
at
lengths
below
L0.
During
normal
shortening,
as
the
sarcomere
length
becomes
 shorter
than
the
optimal
length,
the
maximum
tension
that
can
be
generated
decreases.
With
 a
light
load,
the
muscle
will
continue
to
shorten
until
its
maximal
tension
just
equals
the
load.
 No
further
shortening
is
possible
because
at
shorter
sarcomere
lengths
the
tension
would
be
 less
than
the
load.
The
heavier
the
load,
the
less
the
distance
shortened
before
reaching
the
 isometric
state.
 9 ­4 
 Maximum
 tension
 is
 produced
 when
 the
 fiber
 is
 (a)
 stimulated
 by
 an
 action
 potential
 frequency
that
is
high
enough
to
produce
a
maximal
tetanic
tension
and
(b)
at
its
optimum
 length
L0,
where
the
thick
and
thin
filaments
have
overlap
sufficient
to
provide
the
greatest
 number
of
cross‐bridges
for
tension
production.
 9 ­5 
 Moderate
 tension—for
 example,
 50
 percent
 of
 maximal
 tension—is
 accomplished
 by
 recruiting
sufficient
numbers
of
motor
units
to
produce
this
degree
of
tension.
If
activity
is
 maintained
at
this
level
for
prolonged
periods,
some
of
the
active
fibers
will
begin
to
fatigue
 and
their
contribution
to
the
total
tension
will
decrease.
The
same
level
of
total
tension
can
 be
maintained,
however,
by
recruiting
new
motor
units
as
some
of
the
original
ones
fatigue.
 At
 this
 point,
 for
 example,
 one
 might
 have
 50
 percent
 of
 the
 fibers
 active,
 25
 percent
 fatigued,
and
25
percent
still
unrecruited.
Eventually,
when
all
the
fibers
have
fatigued
and
 there
are
no
additional
motor
units
to
recruit,
the
whole
muscle
will
fatigue.
 9 ­6 
 The
oxidative
motor
units,
both
fast
and
slow,
will
be
affected
first
by
a
decrease
in
blood
flow
 because
they
depend
on
blood
flow
to
provide
both
the
fuel—glucose
and
fatty
acids—and
the
 oxygen
required
to
metabolize
the
fuel.
The
fast‐glycolytic
motor
units
will
be
affected
more
 slowly
because
they
rely
predominantly
on
internal
stores
of
glycogen,
which
is
anaerobically
 metabolized
by
glycolysis.
 9 ­7 
 Two
factors
lead
to
therecovery
of
muscle
force.
(a)
Some
new
fibers
can
be
formed
by
the
 fusion
and
development
of
undifferentiated
satellite
cells.
This
will
replace
some,
but
not
all,
 of
the
fibers
that
were
damaged.
(b)
Some
of
the
restored
force
results
from
hypertrophy
of
 the
 surviving
 fibers.
 Because
 of
 the
 loss
 of
 fibers
 in
 the
 accident,
 the
 remaining
 fibers
 must
 produce
more
force
to
move
a
given
load.
The
remaining
fibers
undergo
increased
synthesis
of
 actin
and
myosin,
resulting
in
increases
in
fiber
diameter
and
thus
their
force
of
contraction.
 9 ­8 
 In
the
absence
of
extracellular
calcium
ions,
skeletal
muscle
contracts
normally
in
response
to
 an
 action
 potential
 generated
 in
 its
 plasma
 membrane
 because
 the
 Ca2+
 required
 to
 trigger
 contraction
 comes
 entirely
 from
 the
 sarcoplasmic
 reticulum
 within
 the
 muscle
 fibers.
 If
 the
 motor
neuron
to
the
muscle
is
stimulated
in
a
calcium‐free
medium,
however,
the
muscle
will
 not
 contract
 because
 the
 influx
 of
 Ca2+
 from
 the
 extracellular
 fluid
 into
 the
 motor
 nerve
 terminal
 is
 necessary
 to
 trigger
 the
 release
 of
 acetylcholine
 that
 in
 turn
 triggers
 an
 action
 potential
in
the
muscle.
 
 
 In
a
calcium‐free
solution,
smooth
muscles
would
not
respond
either
to
stimulation
of
the
 nerve
 or
 to
 the
 plasma
 membrane.
 Stimulating
 the
 nerve
 would
 have
 no
 effect
 because
 Ca2+
 entry
 into
 presynaptic
 terminals
 is
 necessary
 for
 neurotransmitter
 release.
 Stimulating
 the
 smooth
muscle
cell
membrane
would
also
not
cause
a
response
in
the
absence
of
Ca2+
because
 in
all
of
the
various
types
of
smooth
muscle,
Ca2+
must
enter
from
outside
the
cell
to
trigger
 contraction.
 In
 some
 cases,
 the
 external
 Ca2+
 directly
 initiates
 contraction,
 and
 in
 others
 it
 triggers
the
release
of
Ca2+
from
the
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
(calcium‐induced
Ca2+
release).
 9 ­9 
 The
 simplest
 model
 to
 explain
 the
 experimental
 observations
 is
 as
 follows.
 Upon
 parasympathetic
nerve
stimulation,
a
neurotransmitter
is
released
that
binds
to
receptors
on
 the
 membranes
 of
 smooth
 muscle
 cells
 and
 triggers
 contraction.
 The
 substance
 released,
 however,
is
not
acetylcholine
(ACh)
for
the
following
reason.
 
 
 Action
potentials
in
the
parasympathetic
nerves
are
essential
for
initiating
nerve‐induced
 contraction.
When
the
nerves
were
prevented
from
generating
action
potentials
by
blockage
 of
 their
 voltage‐gated
 Na+
 channels,
 there
 was
 no
 response
 to
 nerve
 stimulation.
 ACh
 is
 the
 neurotransmitter
released
from
most,
but
not
all,
parasympathetic
endings.
 
 When
 the
 muscarinic
 receptors
 for
 ACh
 were
 blocked,
 however,
 stimulation
 of
 the
 parasympathetic
 nerves
 still
 produced
 a
 contraction,
 providing
 evidence
 that
 some
 substance
other
than
ACh
is
being
released
by
the
neurons
and
producing
contraction.
 9­10
 Elevation
 of
 extracellular
 fluid
 Ca2+
 concentration
 would
 increase
 the
 amount
 of
 Ca2+
 entering
 the
 cytosol
 through
 L‐type
 Ca2+
 channels.
 This
 would
 result
 in
 a
 greater
 depolarization
of
cardiac
muscle
cell
membranes
during
action
potentials.
The
strength
of
 cardiac
 muscle
 contractions
 would
 also
 be
 increased
 because
 this
 larger
 Ca2+
 entry
 would
 trigger
more
Ca2+
release
through
ryanodine
receptor
channels,
and
thus
there
would
be
a
 greater
activation
of
cross‐bridge
cycling.
 CHAPTER
10
–
THE
AXIAL
MUSCULATURE
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
b
 8.
a
 15.
digastric
 2.
c
 9.
c
 16.
urogenital
triangle
 3.
a
 10.
d
 17.
linea
alba
 4.
c
 11.
erector
spinae
 18.
larynx
 5.
e
 12.
bulbospongiosus
 19.
sternocleidomastoid
 6.
e
 13.
levator
palpebrae
superioris
 20.
trapezius
 7.
a
 14.
hypoglossal
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
triangular—deltoid
 2.
raise—levator
labii
superioris
 3.
eye—orbicularis
oculi
 4.
away,
apart—aponeurosis
 5.
mouth—orbicularis
oris
 6.
finger,
toe—flexor
digitorum
 7.
lip—depressor
labii
inferioris
 8.
same—ipsilateral
 9.
tongue—hypoglossal
 10.
two—digastric
 
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 1.
The
mastoid
process
is
the
insertion,
not
the
origin.
 5.
Normal
exhalation
is
passive
and
does
not
employ
the
internal
intercostals.
 6.
The
floor
of
the
mouth
is
formed
by
the
mylohyoid
muscle.
 7.
The
scalenes
are
deep
to
the
trapezius.
 10.
Only
cranial
nerves
III,
V,
VII,
XI,
and
XII
innervate
head
and
neck
muscles.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 11.4
Zygomaticus
major,
levator
palpebrae
superioris,
orbicularis
oris
(answers
 may
vary)
 11.6
If
the
mandible
were
already
at
its
farthest
right
lateral
excursion,
the
right
medial
 pterygoid
would
help
draw
it
back
to
the
zero
position
or
midline
(medial
 excursion),
or
it
could
contract
still
more
to
cause
left
lateral
excursion.
 11.8
Compare
figure
11.7b
.
A1
contains
the
sternohyoid
and
superior
belly
of
 the
omohyoid;
A4
contains
the
mylohyoid
and
anterior
belly
of
the
digastric;
 and
P1
contains
the
scalenes,
levator
scapulae,
and
splenius
capitis
 (answers
may
vary).
 11.13
The
pectoralis
minor,
subclavius,
and
the
upper
intercostal
and
serratus
 anterior
muscles
 
 CHAPTER
11
–
THE
APPENDICULAR
MUSCULATURE
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
c
 8.
a
 15.
retinacula
 2.
e
 9.
d
 16.
adductor
pollicis
 3.
b
 10.
a
 17.
quadriceps
femoris
 4.
d
 11.
deltoid
 18.
coracobrachialis
 5.
d
 12.
great
toe
 19.
gracilis
 6.
e
 13.
teres,
quadratus
 20.
iliacus,
psoas
major
 7.
b
 14.
hamstring
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
scalloped—serratus
anterior
 2.
the
back—latissimus
dorsi
 3.
head—biceps
 4.
below—infraspinous
 5.
round—pronator
teres
 6.
deep—flexor
digitorum
profundus
 7.
bone—interosseous
 8.
hip—iliacus
 9.
carry—afferent
 10.
largest—gluteus
maximus
 
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 1.
The
plantaris
muscle
inserts
on
the
foot
by
a
tendon
of
its
own.
 5.
The
interosseous
muscles
are
pennate.
 7.
The
psoas
major
and
rectus
femoris
are
synergists
in
flexing
the
hip.
 8.
Hamstring
injuries
usually
result
from
rapid
extension
of
the
knee,
not
flexion.
 10.
These
muscles
are
on
opposite
sides
of
the
tibia
and
act
as
antagonists.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 12.3
The
deltoid
 12.6
Teres
indicates
that
muscle’s
rounded,
cordlike
shape;
quadratus
indicates
 that
muscle’s
angular,
four‐sided
shape.
 12.7
Those
two
muscles
are
found
in
the
distal
half
of
the
forearm,
whereas
this
 section
represents
the
more
proximal
muscles.
 12.12
Lifting
the
body
to
the
next
higher
step
when
climbing
stairs;
the
backswing
 of
the
lower
limb
when
walking
or
running
(answers
may
vary)
 12.17
The
soleus
 
 Atlas
 Muscle
Test
(fig.
A.25)
 1.
f
 6.
y
 11.
x
 2.
b
 7.
z
 12.
m
 3.
k
 8.
w
 13.
n
 4.
p
 9.
c
 14.
e
 5.
h
 10.
a
 15.
g
 16.
v
 21.
k
 26.
u
 17.
f
 22.
d
 27.
j
 18.
c
 23.
f
 28.
i
 19.
x
 24.
b
 29.
g
 20.
w
 25.
a
 30.
q
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 A.1
The
orbicularis
oris.
The
trapezius.
 A.5
Lungs,
heart,
thymus,
liver,
stomach,
spleen,
kidneys
 A.8
The
sternocleidomastoids
 A.11
Posterior
 A.13
Subcutaneous
fat
(adipose
tissue)
 A.18
Four
 A.19
In
part
(a),
at
the
base
of
the
first
metacarpal
bone,
between
the
two
leaders
 from
the
“Flexion
lines”
label
 A.20
Deep
to
the
rectus
femoris
 A.21
The
fibula
 A.24
There
is
no
such
bone;
the
great
toe
has
only
two
phalanges,
proximal
 and
distal.
 
 CHAPTER
16
–
BONE
TISSUE
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
e
 8.
e
 15.
parathyroid
 2.
a
 9.
b
 16.
articular
cartilage
 3.
d
 10.
d
 17.
osteoblasts
 4.
c
 11.
hydroxyapatite
 18.
osteoporosis
 5.
d
 12.
canaliculi
 19.
metaphysis
 6.
c
 13.
appositional
 20.
intramembranous
ossification
 7.
d
 14.
osteons
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
bone—periosteum
 2.
double—diploe
 3.
space,
cavity—lacuna
 4.
breakdown,
destroyer—osteoclast
 5.
medical
condition—osteoporosis
 6.
across—diaphysis
 7.
study
of—osteology
 8.
joint—articular
 9.
little—canaliculus
 10.
like,
resembling—osteoid
 
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 3.
The
most
common
bone
disorder
is
osteoporosis.
 4.
The
growth
zone
is
the
epiphyseal
plate.
 5.
Osteoclasts
develop
from
stem
cells
related
to
monocytes.
 7.
The
protein
of
the
bone
matrix
is
collagen.
 9.
Only
the
red
bone
marrow
is
hemopoietic.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 6.2
The
wide
epiphyses
provide
expanded
surface
area
for
bone
articulation
 and
for
tendon
and
ligament
attachments.
Joints
would
be
very
unstable
if
 they
were
as
narrow
as
the
diaphysis.
 6.5
Spongy
bone
 6.7
The
crest
of
the
hip
and
the
sternum
 6.8
The
parietal
and
frontal
bones
(answers
may
vary
)
 6.10
The
humerus,
radius,
ulna,
femur,
tibia,
and
fibula
(any
two)
 6.12
The
zones
of
cell
proliferation
and
hypertrophy
(2
and
3)
 CHAPTER
17
–
THE
AXIAL
SKELETON
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
b
 8.
a
 2.
e
 9.
c
 3.
a
 10.
c
 4.
d
 11.
fontanels
 5.
a
 12.
temporal
 6.
b
 13.
sutures
 7.
a
 14.
sphenoid
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
skull—cranial
 2.
time—temporal
bone
 3.
breast—mastoid
process
 4.
stone—petrous
 5.
layer—lamina
 6.
wing—pterygoid
 7.
crest,
ridge—crista
galli
 8.
tears—lacrimal
bone
 9.
rib—costal
cartilage
 10.
foot—pedicle
 15.
anulus
fibrosus
 16.
dens
 17.
auricular
 18.
false,
floating
 19.
costal
cartilages
 20.
xiphoid
process
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 1.
The
vertebral
bodies
are
derived
from
the
sclerotomes.
 2.
Adults
have
fewer
bones
than
children
do.
 4.
The
zygomatic
processes
of
the
temporal
bone
and
maxilla
also
contribute
to
 the
arch.
 5.
The
dura
mater
lies
loosely
against
most
of
the
cranium.
 10.
Lumbar
vertebrae
have
transverse
processes,
but
not
transverse
costal
facets.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 7.7
They
produce
turbulence
in
the
airflow
and
support
the
mucous
membranes
 that
warm,
cleanse,
and
humidify
inhaled
air.
 7.8
The
anterior
portion
of
the
skull
would
be
much
heavier
and
the
skull
 would
tend
to
tip
forward.
More
effort
would
be
required
to
oppose
this.
 7.13
The
vomer
and
the
perpendicular
plate
of
the
ethmoid.
 7.16
The
hyoid
is
a
delicate,
easily
broken
bone,
and
its
location
subjects
it
to
fracture
 by
a
rope,
hands,
or
other
means
of
strangulation
applied
around
the
neck.
 7.24
The
dens
could
shift
forward
and
severely
damage
the
spinal
cord.
 7.30
Most
joints
of
an
infant
are
still
cartilaginous
and
therefore
not
very
resistant
 to
stress.
 7.36
The
lumbar
vertebrae
and
discs
must
bear
more
weight
from
the
body
and
 from
heavy
objects
that
one
lifts,
and
are
therefore
the
most
likely
ones
to
 herniate.
The
cervical
vertebrae
and
discs
bear
very
little
weight.
 CHAPTER
18
–
THE
APPENDICULAR
SKELETON
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
a
 8.
b
 15.
hamate
 2.
e
 9.
e
 16.
interpubic
disc
 3.
c
 10.
b
 17.
crural
 4.
b
 11.
pollex,
hallux
 18.
styloid
 5.
a
 12.
scapula
 19.
trochanters
 6.
d
 13.
56
 20.
medial
longitudinal
 7.
c
 14.
epicondyles
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
chest—pectoralis
 2.
peak,
apex,
extremity—acromion
 3.
little—ossicle
 4.
above—supraspinous
 5.
wrist—carpal
 6.
head—capitulum
 7.
little—acetabulum
 8.
beyond,
next
in
a
series—metacarpal
 9.
ear—auricular
 10.
ankle—tarsal
 
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 2.
Each
hand
and
foot
has
14
phalanges.
 3.
The
upper
limb
is
attached
at
the
glenohumeral
joint.
 5.
The
arm
contains
only
the
humerus,
but
the
leg
contains
the
tibia
and
fibula.
 7.
The
most
frequently
broken
bone
is
the
clavicle.
 10.
That
opening
is
the
pelvic
inlet.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 8.1
See
Deeper
Insight
8.1
for
the
reasons.
 8.2
It
is
attached
at
the
glenoid
cavity
to
the
humerus
and
attached
at
the
acromion
 to
the
clavicle.
 8.6
During
birth,
the
fetal
head
must
pass
through
the
narrow
pelvic
inlet
and
 outlet.
It
could
not
do
so
if
the
cranial
bones
were
immovably
fused;
the
 infant
must
be
born
before
the
bones
fuse
at
the
sutures
and
fontanels.
 8.10
Four:
the
head,
the
medial
condyle,
the
lateral
condyle,
and
the
patellar
surface
 8.14
The
sesamoid
bone
 CHAPTER
19
–
JOINTS
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
c
 8.
d
 2.
b
 9.
b
 3.
a
 10.
b
 4.
e
 11.
synovial
fluid
 5.
c
 12.
bursa
 6.
c
 13.
pivot
 7.
c
 14.
kinesiology
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 15.
gomphosis
 16.
serrate
 17.
extension
 18.
range
of
motion
 19.
rheumatologist
 20.
menisci
 1.
joint—arthritis
 2.
back—reposition
 3.
together—symphysis
 4.
both—amphiarthrosis
 5.
growth—diaphysis
 6.
around—circumduction
 7.
away—abduction
 8.
toward—adduction
 9.
to
lead—abduction
 10.
motion—kinesiology
 
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 1.
Osteoarthritis
is
much
more
common
than
rheumatoid
arthritis.
 2.
A
doctor
who
treats
arthritis
is
a
rheumatologist.
 3.
Synovial
joints
are
diarthroses.
 5.
This
action
hyperextends
the
shoulder;
the
elbow
cannot
be
hyperextended.
 9.
Synovial
fluid
fills
the
bursae
but
is
secreted
by
the
synovial
membrane
of
the
 joint
capsule.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 9.1
A
gomphosis
is
a
joint
between
a
bone
and
a
tooth;
teeth
are
not
bones.
 9.3
The
interpubic
disc
is
only
the
fibrocartilage
pad;
the
pubic
symphysis
is
 the
disc
plus
the
adjacent
areas
of
the
pubic
bones.
 9.4
Interphalangeal
joints
are
not
subject
to
routine
compression.
 9.14
The
atlas
 9.17
Variable
answers;
for
example,
changing
direction
when
walking
or
running,
 or
walking
on
a
rocky
trail
 9.19
The
glenoid
labrum
 CHAPTER
20
–
THE
BRAIN
AND
CRANIAL
NERVES
 Testing
Your
Recall
 1.
c
 8.
d
 2.
d
 9.
e
 3.
e
 10.
e
 4.
a
 11.
corpus
callosum
 5.
e
 12.
ventricles,
cerebrospinal
 6.
c
 13.
arbor
vitae
 7.
a
 14.
hippocampus
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
turn,
twist—gyrus
 2.
groove—sulcus
 3.
brain—cerebrum
 4.
stalk—peduncle
 5.
island—insula
 6.
little—cerebellum
 7.
new—neocortex
 8.
four—corpora
quadrigemina
 9.
leaf—folia
 10.
radiating—corona
radiata
 
 
 15.
choroid
plexus
 16.
precentral
 17.
frontal
 18.
association
cortex
 19.
categorical
 20.
Broca
area
 True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 1.
The
longitudinal
fissure
separates
the
cerebral
hemispheres,
not
 cerebellar
hemispheres.
 2.
Degeneration
of
the
substantia
nigra
causes
Parkinson
disease.
 5.
The
choroid
plexuses
produce
only
30%
of
the
CSF.
 6.
Hearing
is
a
temporal
lobe
function.
 10.
The
optic
nerve
carries
visual
signals,
not
motor
signals.
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 15.1
The
dura
mater
 15.7
(To
be
answered
by
pointing
out
or
marking
structures
in
the
illustration
)
 15.8
(To
be
answered
by
pointing
out
or
marking
structures
in
the
illustration
)
 15.14
Dendrites
 15.19
Those
with
many
small
muscles
 15.22
No;
everyone
makes
extensive
use
of
both
hemispheres.
 CHAPTER
21
–
SENSE
ORGANS
 Testing
Your
Recall
 
 1.
a
 8.
c
 2.
a
 9.
c
 3.
a
 10.
a
 4.
d
 11.
fovea
centralis
 5.
b
 12.
ganglion
 6.
e
 13.
nociceptor
 7.
d
 14.
otoliths
 
 
 Building
Your
Medical
Vocabulary
 (Answers
may
vary;
these
are
acceptable
examples.)
 1.
pain—nociceptor
 2.
without—anosmia
 3.
thread—filiform
 4.
ear—otitis
media
 5.
pulley—trochlea
 6.
pit,
depression—fovea
centralis
 7.
pain—analgesic
 8.
like—foliate
 9.
drum—tympanic
 10.
making
a
new
opening—tympanostomy
 15.
outer
hair
cells
 16.
stapes
 17.
inferior
colliculi
 18.
taste
hairs
 19.
olfactory
bulb
 20.
referred
pain True
or
False
 (These
items
are
false
for
the
reasons
given;
all
others
are
true.)
 2.
Afferent
touch
fibers
end
in
the
spinal
cord
and
medulla
oblongata.
 4.
Pain
signals
are
blocked
after
entering
the
spinal
cord,
before
ascending
to
 the
brain.
 8.
Olfactory
neurons
are
directly
exposed
to
the
external
environment.
 9.
The
tympanic
membrane
has
sensory
fibers
of
the
vagus
and
 trigeminal
nerves.
 10.
The
posterior
chamber,
between
the
iris
and
lens,
is
filled
with
 aqueous
humor.
 
 
 Figure
Legend
Questions
 17.3
Postcentral
gyrus;
parietal
lobe
 17.5
The
basal
cell
can
divide,
and
one
of
its
daughter
cells
can
become
a
new
 taste
cell.
 17.14
High
middle‐ear
pressure
would
interfere
with
inward
movements
of
the
 tympanic
membrane
and
therefore
reduce
the
transfer
of
vibrations
to
the
 inner
ear.
 17.16
The
macula
sacculi
is
vertically
oriented,
so
up
or
down
movements
in
an
 elevator
would
cause
the
otolithic
membrane
to
shift
up
or
down
across
the
 hair
cells
and
bend
their
stereocilia.
 17.20
Watery
eyes;
tears
would
be
unable
to
drain
from
the
eye
surface
and
 would
spill
over
the
eyelid.
 17.21
CN
III,
the
oculomotor
nerve.
This
nerve
controls
four
muscles,
whereas
 the
others
each
control
only
one.
CN
III
is
indispensable
to
the
ability
to
 look
up,
down,
and
sideways.
 CHAPTER
22
–
SENSORY
PHYSIOLOGY
 Test
Questions
 7­1
a
 For
 example,
 photons
 of
 light
 are
 the
 adequate
 stimulus
 for
 photoreceptors
 of
 the
 eye,
 and
 sound
is
the
adequate
stimulus
for
hair
cells
of
the
ear.
 7­2
b
 Receptor
 potentials
 generate
 only
 local
 currents
 in
 the
 receptor
 membrane
 that
 transduces
 the
stimulus,
but
when
they
reach
the
first
node
of
Ranvier,
they
depolarize
the
membrane
to
 threshold,
 and
 there
 the
 voltage‐gated
 Na+
 channels
 first
 initiate
 action
 potentials.
 Beyond
 that
 point,
 the
 receptor
 potential
 decreases
 with
 distance,
 whereas
 action
 potentials
 propagate
all
the
way
to
the
central
axon
terminals.
 7­3
d
 Lateral
 inhibition
 increases
 the
 contrast
 between
 the
 region
 at
 the
 center
 of
 a
 stimulus
 and
 regions
at
the
edges
of
the
stimulus,
which
increases
the
acuity
of
stimulus
localization.
 7­4
a
 The
occipital
lobe
of
the
cortex
is
the
initial
site
of
visual
processing.
(Review
Figure
7–13.)
 7­5
e
 Somatic
 sensations
 include
 those
 from
 the
 skin,
 muscles,
 bones,
 tendons,
 and
 joints,
 but
 not
 encoding
of
sound
by
cochlear
hair
cells.
 7­6
b
 A
 myopic
 (nearsighted)
 person
 has
 an
 eyeball
 that
 is
 too
 long.
 When
 the
 ciliary
 muscles
 are
 relaxed
and
the
lens
is
as
flat
as
possible,
parallel
light
rays
from
distant
objects
focus
in
front
 of
the
retina,
whereas
diverging
rays
from
near
objects
are
able
to
focus
on
the
retina.
(Recall
 that
with
normal
vision,
it
takes
ciliary
muscle
contraction
and
a
rounded
lens
to
focus
on
near
 objects.)
 7­7
d
 When
the
right
optic
tract
is
destroyed,
perception
of
images
formed
on
the
right
half
of
the
 retina
 in
 both
 eyes
 is
 lost,
 so
 nothing
 is
 visible
 at
 the
 left
 side
 of
 a
 person’s
 field
 of
 view.
 (Review
Figure
7–31.)
 7­8
a
 Pressure
waves
traveling
down
the
cochlea
make
the
cochlear
duct
vibrate,
moving
the
basilar
 membrane
 against
 the
 stationary
 tectorial
 membrane
 and
 bending
 the
 hair
 cells
 that
 bridge
 the
gap
between
the
two.
 7­9
c
 With
the
sudden
head
rotation
from
left
to
right,
inertia
of
the
endolymph
causes
it
to
rotate
 from
right
to
left
with
respect
to
the
semicircular
canal
that
lies
in
the
horizontal
plane.
This
 fluid
 flow
 bends
 the
 cupula
 and
 embedded
 hair
 cells
 within
 the
 ampulla,
 which
 influences
 the
firing
of
action
potentials
along
the
vestibular
nerve.
 7­10
d
 “Umami”
 is
 derived
 from
 the
 Japanese
 word
 meaning
 “delicious”;
 the
 stimulation
 of
 these
 taste
receptors
by
glutamate
produces
the
perception
of
a
rich,
meaty
flavor.
 
 Quantitative
and
Thought
Questions
 7 ­1 
 (a)
Use
drugs
to
block
transmission
in
the
pathways
that
convey
information
about
pain
to
 the
brain.
For
example,
if
substance
P
is
the
neurotransmitter
at
the
central
endings
of
the
 nociceptor
 afferent
 fibers,
 give
 a
 drug
 that
 blocks
 the
 substance
 P
 receptors.
 (b)
 Cut
 the
 dorsal
 root
 at
 the
 level
 of
 entry
 of
 the
 nociceptor
 fibers
 to
 prevent
 transmission
 of
 their
 action
potentials
into
the
central
nervous
system.
(c)
Give
a
drug
that
activates
receptors
in
 the
 descending
 pathways
 that
 block
 transmission
 of
 the
 incoming
 or
 ascending
 pain
 information.
(d)
Stimulate
the
neurons
in
these
same
descending
pathways
to
increase
their
 blocking
 activity
 (stimulation‐produced
 analgesia
 or,
 possibly,
 acupuncture).
 (e)
 Cut
 the
 ascending
 pathways
 that
 transmit
 information
 from
 the
 nociceptor
 afferents.
 (f)
 Deal
 with
 emotions,
 attitudes,
 memories,
 and
 so
 on
 to
 decrease
 sensitivity
 to
 the
 pain.
 (g)
 Stimulate
 nonpain,
 low‐threshold
 afferent
 fibers
 to
 block
 transmission
 through
 the
 pain
 pathways
 (TENS).
 (h)
 Block
 transmission
 in
 the
 afferent
 nerve
 with
 a
 local
 anesthetic
 such
 as
 Novocaine
or
Lidocaine.
 7 ­2 
 Information
 regarding
 temperature
 is
 carried
 via
 the
 anterolateral
 system
 to
 the
 brain.
 Fibers
of
this
system
cross
to
the
opposite
side
of
the
body
in
the
spinal
cord
at
the
level
of
 entry
of
the
afferent
fibers
(see
Figure
7–19a).
Damage
to
the
left
side
of
the
spinal
cord
or
 any
 part
 of
 the
 left
 side
 of
 the
 brain
 that
 contains
 fibers
 of
 the
 pathways
 for
 temperature
 would
 interfere
 with
 awareness
 of
 a
 heat
 stimulus
 on
 the
 right.
 Thus,
 damage
 to
 the
 somatosensory
 cortex
 of
 the
 left
 cerebral
 hemisphere
 (i.e.,
 opposite
 the
 stimulus)
 would
 interfere
 with
 awareness
 of
 the
 stimulus.
 Injury
 to
 the
 spinal
 cord
 at
 the
 point
 at
 which
 fibers
of
the
anterolateral
system
from
thetwo
halves
of
the
spinal
cord
cross
to
the
opposite
 side
would
interfere
with
the
awareness
of
heat
applied
to
either
side
of
the
body,
as
would
 the
unlikely
event
that
damage
occurred
to
relevant
areas
of
both
sides
of
the
brain.
 7 ­3 
 Vision
 would
 be
 restricted
 to
 the
 rods;
 therefore,
 it
 would
 be
 normal
 at
 very
 low
 levels
 of
 illumination
 (when
 the
 cones
 would
 not
 be
 stimulated
 anyway).
 At
 higher
 levels
 of
 illumination,
 however,
 clear
 vision
 of
 fine
 details
 would
 be
 lost,
 and
 everything
 would
 appear
in
shades
of
gray,
with
no
color
vision.
In
very
bright
light,
there
would
be
no
vision
 because
of
bleaching
of
the
rods’
rhodopsin.
 7 ­4 
 (a)
 The
 individual
 lacks
 a
 functioning
 primary
 visual
 cortex.
 (b)
 The
 individual
 lacks
 a
 functioning
visual
association
cortex.
 
 
 ...
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