2010 Fall Midterm -...

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Unformatted text preview: University
of
Toronto
–
Scarborough

 
 Instructor:
Prof.
Carl
Mitchell
 “Introduction
to
Environmental
Science”
(EESA01
L01
and
L60)
 Mid­Term
Examination:
Wednesday,
October
27,
2010,
5­7
pm.
 Time
Allotted:
2
hours.


 This
mid­term
examination
has
70
questions
and
is
worth
25%
of
your
final
 grade.
 INSTRUCTIONS:

Answer
ALL
questions
on
the
the
SCANTRON
sheet
provided.

 Choose
the
answer
which
is
most
correct.

Make
only
one
mark
per
answer.

 Use
either
pencil
(preferred)
or
black
ball­point
pen.

Do
not
use
felt­tipped
 pens
or
anything
that
writes
in
red.

If
you
make
a
mistake,
call
over
an
 invigilator;
do
not
attempt
to
make
corrections
on
the
Scantron
sheet.
 ANSWER
ALL
THE
FOLLOWING
QUESTIONS:
 1.
A
scientific
experiment:

 a) is
an
activity
designed
to
test
the
validity
of
a
hypothesis
 b) should
involve
manipulating
as
many
variables
as
possible
 c) does
not
need
to
be
repeated
 d) is
designed
to
prove
a
scientific
hypothesis
 e) all
the
above
except
(c)
 
 2.
Farmer
John
has
a
pond
behind
his
cornfield
that,
in
the
middle
of
summer
every
 year,
turns
totally
green
with
algae.

He
sets
up
a
scientific
experiment
to
see
what
 the
issue
is.

In
his
experiment,
he
reduces
fertilizer
additions
to
his
cornfield
and
 sprinkles
an
antimicrobrial
mixture
into
the
pond.

What
is
wrong
with
Farmer
 John’s
experiment?

 a) Nothing
is
wrong;
he’ll
easily
see
that
reducing
fertilizer
usage
will
lessen
the
 amount
of
algae
in
his
pond.

 b) Farmer
John
cannot
possibly
figure
out
how
to
measure
the
amount
of
algae.
 c) Farmer
John
is
manipulating
too
many
variables.
 d) The
experiment
has
no
control.

 e) C
and
D
 
 3.
In
a
controlled
experiment,
_______:
 a) the
researcher
has
several
hypotheses,
one
of
which
will
be
proven
correct
 b) the
researcher
knows
the
outcome
before
she
or
he
begins
 c) the
experimental
organisms
have
all
been
used
before
and
given
good
results
 d) the
research
controls
for
the
effects
of
all
variables
except
one
 e) you
need
only
a
single
experimental
organism;
replicates
are
not
needed
 
 
 
 
 
 1
 4.
Which
of
the
following
would
be
the
strongest
experimental
design?
 a) Repeated
correlative
study
with
good
control
 b) Controlled
correlative
study
 c) Controlled
manipulative
study
 d) Repeated
manipulative
study
with
good
control
 e) Repeated
cross‐hatch
study
with
good
control
 
 5.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
a
component
of
the
scientific
method:

 a) Hypothesis
 b) Testing
 c) Extrapolation
 d) Observations
 e) Results
 
 6.
The
theory
explaining
that
unregulated
exploitation
of
resources
leads
to
 resource
depletion
has
been
coined:

 f) Tragedy
of
the
Community
 g) Tragedy
of
the
Common
 h) Tragedy
of
the
Commons
 i) Common
Environmental
Tragedy
 j) Communal
Tragedy
 
 7.
The
Cornucopian
viewpoint
suggests
that
resource
depletion
due
to
greater
 number
of
people
_____________.

 a) is
not
a
problem
if
new
resources
can
be
found
to
replace
the
depleted
 ones
 b) is
not
a
problem
because
disease
will
limit
population
size
 c) is
not
a
problem
because
we
will
be
able
to
import
new
matter
into
Earth’s
 closed
system
 d) none
of
the
above
 e) all
of
the
above
 
 
 Figure
1:
 
 
 
 
 
 2
 8.
Refer
to
figure
1.

Looking
at
the
figure,
you
are
able
to
determine:

 a) that
the
population
in
part
(a)
is
growing
rapidly
 b) that
the
population
in
part
(b)
is
growing
rapidly
 c) that
the
population
in
part
(b)
has
many
more
males
than
females
 d) that
the
population
in
part
(b)
is
aging
rapidly
 e) that
there
was
a
“baby
boom”
in
the
population
in
part
(b)
about
30
years
ago
 
 9.
Refer
to
figure
1.

What
is
the
population
in
part
(a)
likely
to
experience
soon?

 a) more
single
males
 b) exponential
population
growth
 c) government
institution
of
a
population
control
policy
 d) more
senior
citizens
 e) lack
of
economic
growth
 
 10.

The
downfall
of
the
civilization
on
Rapa
Nui
(Easter
Island)
was
mostly
a
 function
of:

 a) War
 b) Overconsumption
of
renewable
resources
 c) Disease
 d) European
colonization
 e) Overconsumption
of
non‐renewable
resources
 
 11.
World
population
has
been
over
2
billion
for
at
least:

 a) 100
years
 b) 200
years
 c) 500
years
 d) 1000
years
 e) 10,000
years
 
 12.
During
which
of
the
following
time
periods
did
the
world’s
population
more
than
 double?

 a) 1800‐1850
 b) 1850‐1900
 c) 1900‐1950
 d) 1950­2000
 e) both
(c)
and
(d)
 
 13.
Why
was
human
population
growth
originally
considered
a
good
thing?

 a) greater
pool
of
workers
and
helpers
 b) larger
armies
for
conquering
new
lands
 c) fewer
children
to
support
folks
in
old
age
 d) to
spread
religion
around
the
world
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 
 
 
 3
 14.
If
a
population
doubles
in
6.0x101
years,
its
annual
growth
rate
would
be:

 a) 1%
 b) 1.2%
 c) 1.17%
 d) 0.9%
 e) 0.85%
 
 15.
Replacement
fertility
_______:
 a) restores
population
size
after
a
catastrophic
event
 b) is
a
contraceptive
technique
 c) is
below
2
in
Latin
America
and
the
Caribbean
 d) is
below
2
in
Africa
 e) is
equal
to
2.1
in
stable
populations
 
 16.
Declining
death
rates
due
to
increased
food
production
and
improved
medical
 care
while
birth
rates
remain
high
is
characteristic
of
the
___________
stage.

 a) pre‐industrial
 b) stabilization
 c) post‐industrial
 d) transitional
 e) revolutionary
 
 17.
A
country
with
____________
is
not
expected
to
grow
relatively
quickly
in
the
near
 future.

 a) a
pyramid‐shaped
age‐structure
diagram
 b) high
female
literacy
 c) a
female
to
male
ratio
of
1.2
to
1
 d) growing
industrialization
 e) many
developing
regions
 
 18.
Limiting
factors
on
the
carrying
capacity
of
a
system
do
NOT
include:

 a) water
 
 b) space
 c) disease
 d) food

 e) none
of
the
above
 
 19.
According
to
the
IPAT
model,
technology
that
enhances
our
acquisition
of
 minerals,
fossil
fuels,
timber,
and
ocean
fish
______________.

 a) increases
environmental
impact
 b) decreases
environmental
impact
 c) increases
population
 d) increases
sensitivity
 e) decreases
sensitivity
 
 
 
 4
 20.
We
moved
to
an
omnivorous
diet
and
began
to
make
tools
during
the:

 a) cultural
revolution
 b) industrial
revolution
 c) green
revolution
 d) neandrethal
transition
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 21.
According
to
theIPAT(S)
model,
if
technology
were
to
lessen
the
impact
due
to
 increases
in
population
and
affluence,
T
would
likely
be:

 a) highly
positive
 b) highly
negative
 c) zero
 d) less
than
one
 e) greater
than
one
 
 22.
Demographic
fatigue
is:

 a) the
inability
to
conduct
demographic
studies
 b) not
a
coined
term
 c) occurs
when
demographers
cannot
deal
with
challenges
related
to
 environmental
degradation
 d) occurs
when
nations
cannot
deal
with
challenges
related
to
population
 growth
 e) was
a
term
coined
by
Malthus
 
 23.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
a
main
focus
of
study
by
demographers:

 a) population
growth
 b) environmental
degradation
 c) population
density
 d) death
rates
in
relation
to
HIV/AIDS
 e) immigration
 
 24.
All
countries
are
subject
to
the
Demographic
Transition:

 a) true
 b) false
 
 25.
In
a
negative
feedback
loop:

 a) outputs
cause
the
system
to
move
in
an
opposite
direction
 b) environmental
degradation
rarely
occurs
 c) the
response
of
a
system
is
relatively
at
equilibrium
 d) all
of
the
above
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 5
 26.
Which
of
the
following
are
associated
with
positive
feedbacks?

 a) outputs
that
cause
the
system
to
move
in
an
opposite
direction
 b) outputs
that
cause
the
system
to
continue
to
move
in
the
same
direction
 c) inputs
that
cause
the
system
to
shut
down
 d) the
evaporation
of
water
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 27.
Which
of
the
following
is
an
Earth
system
most
associated
with
the
below‐ ground
environment?

 a) hydrosphere
 b) lithosphere
 c) cryosphere
 d) anthrosphere
 e) atmosphere
 
 28.

A
closed
system
is
closed
to
matter,
but
not
energy:

 a) True
 b) False
 
 29.
Which
of
the
following
is
true?

 a) igneous
rocks
can
become
metamorphic
rocks,
but
never
sedimentary
rocks

 b) igneous
rocks
can
become
sedimentary
rocks,
but
never
metamorphic
rocks
 c) igneous
rocks
can
become
either
sedimentary
or
metamorphic
rocks
 d) igneous
rocks
can
become
neither
sedimentary
or
metamorphic
rocks
 
 30.
The
main
process
driving
the
movement
of
tectonic
plates
is:

 a) divergence
 b) convergence
 c) convection
 d) submergence
 e) subduction
 
 31.
If
two
tectonic
plates
crash
into
each
other
over
long
periods
of
time:

 (removed)
 a) the
plates
are
diverging
 b) the
land
area
at
the
interface
is
likely
to
grow
 c) one
plate
is
potentially
diverging
 d) volcanic
islands
are
potentially
formed
 e) B
and
C
 
 32.

From
the
surface
of
earth
to
its
centre,
you
move
from:

 a) Crust

outer
core

inner
core
 b) Mantle

crust

outer
core

inner
core
 c) Inner
core

outer
core

mantle

crust
 d) Crust
 
mantle
 
outer
core
 
inner
core
 e) None
of
the
above
 
 6
 33.

An
ecosystem
is
composed
of
all
living
things
within
that
system:

 a) True
 b) False
 
 34.
A
small
section
of
prairie
grasses,
over
a
year,
produces
enough
biomass
to
feed
 insects,
mice,
rabbits,
birds,
deer,
antelope,
and
a
host
of
decomposers.

The
amount
 of
food
potentially
available
to
the
herbivores
is
the
___________.

 a) net
primary
production
 b) gross
primary
production
 c) secondary
production
 d) productivity
 e) food
chain
 
 35.
The
global
phosphorus
cycles
is
dominated
by
fluxes:

 a) moving
through
the
atmosphere
 b) moving
from
the
lithosphere
 c) moving
from
the
hydrospher
into
the
atmosphere
 d) moving
from
the
atmosphere
into
the
hydrosphere
 e) moving
from
the
atmosphere
into
the
lithosphere
 
 36.
The
origin
of
nitrogen
in
biological
tissues
is
_____________.

 a) earthquake
activities
 b) atmospheric
N2
gas
 c) lightning
 d) nitrogen
weathered
from
rock
 e) volcanoes
 
 37.
Human
beings
have
dramatically
altered
the
flux
rate
of
nitrogen
from
__________.

 a) the
atmosphere
to
various
pools
on
the
earth’s
surface
 b) from
soils
to
the
atmosphere
 c) proteins
to
inorganic
ions
in
soils
 d) oceans
to
soils
 e) producers
to
consumers
through
increased
wildfires
 
 Figure
2:
 
 
 7
 
 38.
Refer
to
Figure
2.

This
graph
helps
explain
____________.
 a) why
the
open
ocean
is
so
productive
 b) why
cultivated
lands
are
a
logical
choice
to
replace
rainforests
 c) why
we
need
to
be
concerned
with
damage
to
rainforests
and
coral
 reefs
 d) why
tundra
has
such
high
net
primary
productivity
of
biomass
 e) the
importance
of
deserts
 
 39.
Refer
to
Figure
2.

Overall,
it
appears
that
biomes
with
more
available
freshwater
 __________.
 a) tend
to
have
less
productivity
than
those
without
much
freshwater

 b) tend
to
have
about
the
same
productivity
as
those
without
much
freshwater
 c) tend
to
have
more
productivity
than
those
without
much
freshwater
 d) don’t
differentiate
between
freshwater
as
rainfall
and
freshwater
as
ice
in
 glaciers
 e) no
real
conclusions
can
be
drawn
 
 40.
Which
of
the
following
ecosystem
structures
are
not
possible:

 a) producer

detritus

producer

detritus
 b) producer

primary
consumer

secondary
consumer
 c) primary
consumer
 
secondary
consumer
 
tertiary
consumer
 d) producer

primary
consumer

detritus

producer
 
 41.
If
less
nitrogen
is
exported
from
a
lake
than
is
imported
to
a
lake,
the
lake
is
a
 ___________
for
nitrogen:

 a) flux
source
 b) reservoir
 c) sink
 d) eutrophy
 e) pool
 
 42.
A
flux:

 a) is
measured
in
volume
per
time
or
mass
per
time
 b) is
the
amount
of
a
particular
substance
in
a
system
 c) is
the
rate
of
movement
of
a
substance
into
or
out
of
a
system
 d) all
of
the
above
 e) A
and
C
only
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 8
 43.
A
bucket
of
water
contains
69
litres
of
water.

Water
is
added
to
the
bucket
at
the
 same
rate
as
it
leaves
the
bucket,
which
is
1.6
litres
every
4
hours.

What
is
the
 approximate
residence
time
of
water
in
the
bucket?

 a) 4
hours
 b) 43
hours
 c) 43
days
 d) 7
days
 e) zero
units
 
 44.
Farmers
tend
to
rotate
crops
between
corn,
wheat,
and
soybeans
because:

 a) specialized
bacteria
in
corn
roots
provide
needed
phosphorus
to
the
soil
 b) legumes
harbour
nitrogen­fixing
bacteria
 c) corn
is
easier
to
grown
than
wheat
 d) soybeans
are
good
at
increasing
phosphorus
levels
in
soil
water
 e) soybeans
are
10X
better
at
conserving
water
for
photosynthesis
 
 45.
The
largest
pool
of
carbon
on
earth
is
in:

 a) the
atmosphere
 b) the
ocean
 c) sedimentary
rock
 d) fossil
fuels
 e) wetlands
 
 46.
With
respect
to
global
mercury
cycling:

 a) freshwater
fish
tend
to
have
more
mercury
content
than
marine
fish
 b) marine
fish
tend
to
have
more
mercury
content
than
freshwater
fish
 c) the
cycle
is
regional,
not
global
 d) specialized
bacteria
can
make
mercury
from
other
elements
in
the
soil
 e) the
principal
source
of
mercury
to
the
environment
is
from
dental
amalgams
 
 
 Table
1:
 
 Temp
 Incoming
 Stefan‐
 Emissivity
 Outgoing
 Shortwave
 Boltzmann
 Shortwave
 Radiation
 Constant
 Radiation
 
 ‐2 
 ‐8
Wm‐2K‐4
 29°C
 98
Wm 5.67x10 0.42
 91
Wm‐2
 
 47.
Refer
to
Table
1
above.

Given
this
data,
albedo
is:

 a) 1.077
 b) 1.1
 c) 0.39
 d) 0.93
 e) cannot
be
calculated
because
net
longwave
radiation
cannot
be
determined
 
 9
 
 48.
Refer
to
Table
1.

Given
this
data,
the
maximum
wavelength
at
which
radiation
 can
be
emitted
is:

 a) 100
μm
 b) 9.593
μm
 c) 9.6
μm
 d) 0.0096
μm
 e) cannot
be
determined
given
the
information
in
Table
1
 
 49.
Refer
to
Table
1.

Given
this
data,
the
flux
of
energy
from
this
surface
would
be
 equal
to:

 a) 0.017
W
m‐2
 b) 200
W
m­2
 c) 4.7
x
102
W
m‐2
 d) 140
W
m‐2
 e) 20
W
m‐2
 
 50.
An
area
at
68°N
would
receive
less
insolation
than
an
area
at
the
equator
during
 April
because:

 a) Earth
is
tilted
away
from
the
sun
 b) there
is
more
atmosphere
for
insolation
to
pass
through
at
68°N
 c) there
is
a
more
direct
angle
of
incoming
radiation
at
the
equator
 d) all
of
the
above
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 51.
The
largest
man‐made
change
in
the
global
nitrogen
cycle
has
been
due
to:

 a) man’s
manipulation
of
lightning
 b) cloud
seeding
 c) the
discovery
of
the
Haber­Bosch
process
 d) stimulation
of
nitrifying
microbial
activity
due
to
acid
rain
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 52.
The
difference
between
eutrophication
and
cultural
eutrophication
is
that:

 a) eutrophication
is
directly
influenced
by
man
 b) cultural
eutrophication
is
directly
influenced
by
man
 c) cultural
eutrophication
affects
nearby
cultures
due
to
environmental
 degradation
 d) eutrophication
is
not
possible
without
the
influence
of
nearby
cultures
 e) none
of
the
above
 
 53.
Which
takes
more
energy?

 a) raising
the
temperature
of
a
glass
of
water
by
1°C
 b) raising
the
temperature
of
a
glass
of
water
by
50°C
 c) changing
ice
at
0°C
into
water
at
0°C
 d) changing
water
at
100°C
into
water
vapour
at
100°C
 e) changing
ice
at
0°C
into
ice
at
‐180°C
 
 10
 
 54.
Eutrophication
of
marine
waters
is
generally
due
to
an
overabundance
of
_______
 whereas
eutrophication
in
freshwater
is
generally
due
to
an
overabundance
of
 _________.


 a) agriculture;
fishing
 b) nitrogen;
phosphorus
 c) phosphorus;
nitrogen
 d) carbon;
nitrogen
 e) nitrogen;
carbon
 
 55.
A
watershed
of
5.7
square
kilometers
receives
9
million
cubic
meters
of
rainfall.

 What
is
the
depth
of
rainfall?

(removed)
 a) 157
mm
 b) 633
cm
 c) 633
mm
 d) 0.002
cm
 e) 1.6
mm

 
 56.
The
loss
of
wetlands
in
Canada
has
been
mainly
due
to:

 a) urbanization
 b) waterfowl
damage
 c) precipitation
exceeding
evapotranspiration
 d) agriculture e) climate
change
 
 57.
If
a
substances
gains
cold
energy,:
 a) it
gets
colder
 b) it
gets
warmer
 c) it
evaporates
water
 d) C
and
D
 e) there
is
no
such
thing
as
cold
energy
 
 58.

In
relation
to
the
amount
of
insolation
entering
our
atmosphere,
the
earth’s
 surface
absorbs
approximately:

 a) 100%
 b) 50%
 c) 25%
 d) 10%
 e) none
 
 59.
The
hypolimnion
denotes:

 a) the
transition
between
salty
and
fresh
water
 b) the
transition
between
cold
and
warm
water
in
a
lake
or
pond
 c) the
shallower
warm
area
of
a
lake
or
pond
 d) the
deeper,
salty
area
of
a
lake
or
pond
 e) the
deeper,
colder
area
of
a
lake
or
pond
 
 11
 
 Figure
3:

 
 60.
Refer
to
figure
3
above.

The
portion
labeled
(a)
is
the:

 a) profundal
zone
 b) limnetic
zone
 c) littoral
zone
 d) benthic
zone
 e) riparian
zone
 
 61.
Refer
to
figure
3
above.

The
portion
labeled
(b)
is
the:

 a) profundal
zone
 b) limnetic
zone
 c) littoral
zone
 d) benthic
zone
 e) riparian
zone
 
 62.
Refer
to
figure
3
above.

The
portion
labeled
(c)
is
the:

 a) profundal
zone
 b) limnetic
zone
 c) littoral
zone
 d) benthic
zone
 e) riparian
zone
 
 63.
About
one‐fifth
of
Earth’s
total
supply
of
freshwater
is
in
_______.
 a) lakes
and
rivers
 b) the
ocean
 c) groundwater
 d) estuaries
 e) glaciers
and
ice
 
 
 
 12
 64.
The
largest
pool
of
freshwater
on
Earth
is
in
__________.

 a) lakes
and
rivers
 b) the
ocean
 c) groundwater
 d) estuaries
 e) glaciers
and
ice
 
 65.
Which
of
the
following
is
a
common
air
mass
uplift
mechanism?

 a) torographic
lifting
 b) confectionary
lifting
 c) oporophic
lifting
 d) topoliftage
 e) orographic
lifting
 
 
 Figure
4:

 
 
 
 
 
 13
 66.
Referring
to
figure
4,
the
elevation
at
point
X
is:

 a) 100
m
 b) 150
m
 c) 160
m
 d) 175
m
 e) 200
m
 
 67.

Referring
to
figure
4,
the
contour
interval
on
this
map
is:

 a) 10
m
 b) 25
m
 c) 50
m
 d) 75
m
 e) 100
m
 
 68.

Referring
to
figure
4,
the
fractional
scale
of
this
map
is:

 a) 1:9000
 b) 1:10000
 c) 1:20000
 d) 1:25000
 e) 1:100
 
 69.

Referring
to
figure
4,
the
feature
circled
by
the
dotted
line
is
a:

 a) hill
 b) depression
 c) saddle
 d) valley
 e) ridge
 
 70.

Referring
to
figure
4,
the
distance
from
point
A
to
point
B
is:

 a) 350
m
 b) 3500
m
 c) 90
m
 d) 3100
m
 e) 310
m
 
 
 END
OF
EXAM
 
 14
 ...
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This note was uploaded on 02/29/2012 for the course ENVIRONMEN eesa01 taught by Professor Mitchel during the Fall '11 term at University of Toronto.

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