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Unformatted text preview: to midnight, you put in balls 11 through 20 and again remove one ball chosen at random. Continuing in this manner, at 1 2 i minutes to midnight, you put balls 10 i + 1 through 10 i + 10 into the urn and remove one ball at random. Prove that for any given ball k , the probability ball k is in the urn at midnight is 0. 3. You are given an unfair coin. The coin comes up heads with some probability p not known to you. The ips are independent and p does not change. Describe a way to use this bad coin to simulate a fair coin. (So you should describe some experiment with the coin and some event in that experiment which occurs with probability exactly 1 2 .)...
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This note was uploaded on 03/14/2012 for the course MATH 55 taught by Professor Strain during the Summer '08 term at University of California, Berkeley.
- Summer '08