MIMM314 victor 2

MIMM314 victor 2 - ° April 2007 C 1 Final Examination...

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Unformatted text preview: ( ; ° April 2007 C 1 Final Examination VERSION # 1 DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY FACULTY OF SCIENCE COURSE NUMBER: 715 — SECTION: 001 MIMM 314 - IMMUNOLOGY APRIL 26, 2007, 9:00 am (GYM) Examiner: Roger G. E. Palfree Assoc Examiner: Malcolm G. Baines | 1 I DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO 80 INSTRUCTIONS: o This is a CLOSED BOOK examination. a _ This is a MULTIPLE CHOICE examination. 0 The Examination Security Monitor Program detects pairs of students with unusually similar answer patterns on multiple-choice exams. Data generated by this program can be used as admissible evidence, either to initiate or corroborate an investigation or a charge of cheating under Section 16 of the Code of Student Conduct and Disciplinary Procedures. - You are permitted TRANSLATION dictionaries ONLY. \ 0 Notes (texts), calculators, electronic data or communicaiton devices, and dictionaries (except translation) ARE NOT ALLOWED. o This examination consists of 90 multiple choice questions. 0 This examination is PRINTED ON BOTH SIDES of the paper. o This examination paper MAY BE KEPT. SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS: I Mark your answers on the computer sheet using PENCIL ONLY. Do not fold or bend the sheets. I Print your NAME AND STUDENT NUMBER on the front of the Answer Sheet. I INDICATE ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET YOUR GROUP NUMBER (you will find it nearthe top of this page) I Read each question and its numbered answers. When you have decided which alternative is the BEST ANSWER, mark the whole of the corresponding oval space (bubble) on your answer sheet. Avoid making any stray marks outside the oval. I Do not answer more than one mark for any question, otherwise the computer will reject your sheet. If erasing, erase completely. I Marking will be on the basis of +1 mark for a correct answer; questions unanswered or wrongly answered will be tallied as “0" when totalling your score. Course: MIMM 314 Page 1 of 18 TYPE 1 UESTION S CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 1. Which of the following is true regarding antibodies? 1. Once B cells encounter antigen antibodies are activated 2. Antibodies kill Virally infected cells 3. Antibodies can neutralize viruses 4. Antibodies bind to 1L2 to activate T cells 5. A single antibody can bind to multiple different epitopes. Course: MIMM 314 2. Which of the following best describes immunoglobulin molecules? 1. They are made up of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains 2. All classes of immunoglobulins form multimers in serum. 3. When immunoglobulins are cleaved in serum this increases the antigen binding specificity. 4. There are 2 antigen combining sites in the Fab region 5. The F c-receptors 0n immunoglobulins are antigen specific. 3. Which of the following is true regarding T cells? 1. The T cell receptor is made up of 4 immunoglobulin-like domains. 2. The CD4 molecule on T helper cells is composed of an oz and 6 chain 3. There are 2 antigen binding sites per T cell receptor 4 T cells will express both 048 and 76 T cell receptors during activation 5 Antigen recognition by T cells involves MHC plus antigen. 4. Which of the following is not involved in generation of B cell receptor diversity? 1. VJ C recombination 2. Somatic hypermutation 3. VDJ recombination 4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase activity 5. Heavy and light chain association. 5. Which of the following molecules is a cytosolic protein that is retaining the transcription factor NF-kB in the cytoplasm? 1. Ikk 2. IkB 3. NF-AT 4 Calcineurin 5 None of the above 6. Which of the following best explains that individual B cells produce only one specificity of antibody? 1. The elimination of B cells that are specific for multiple self—antigens. 2. The follicular exclusion of B cells that express an antigen receptor (BCR) specific for a soluble self—antigen. 3. The elimination of B cells in which Ig gene rearrangements lead to the expression of a kappa light chain and a lambda light chain. 4. The inhibition of further heavy- and light-chain gene rearrangements when a pre—BCR or a BCR is expressed on the cell surface. 5. All of the above. Page 2 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 7. Which of the following would be responsible for arresting T—cell differentiation at the double positive (CD4+ CD8+) stage? 1. Non productive rearrangement of the TCR beta chain genes on both alleles. 2. Non productive rearrangement of the TCR alpha chain genes on both alleles. 3. Absence of pre-TCR expression. 4 Absence of lambda 5 expression. 5 None or all of the above. 8. A transgenic T cell receptor (TCR), which is specific for a peptide expressed only in male mice and presented by a MHC class I molecule of genotype “b”, is introduced into mice expressing MHC molecules of genotype “b” (MHCb) or genotype “a” (MHCa). You expect to find mature CD8+ thymocytes bearing the transgenic TCR in: MHCb and MHC3 female mice MHCb female mice but not in MHCa female mice MHCb female and male mice but not in MHCa female MHCb male mice but not in MHCa male mice None of the above 999’597‘ 9. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 1. B cells that encounter strongly cross-linking self-antigens in the periphery undergo apoptosis directly, unlike their counterparts in the bone marrow, which attempt first receptor editing. 2. Most self—tolerant B cells that emerge from the bone marrow into the periphery have a life-span of only few days. 3. Experiments have demonstrated that continuous expression of the BCR is required for the survival of mature B cells. 4. Survival of mature B cells may also require signals from the follicle, such as BAFF. Only anergic B cells that emerge from the bone marrow into the periphery are subject to follicular exclusion. £11 10. CCLZl (SLC or secondary lymphoid chemokine) is a chemokine involved in: l. The localization of follicular dendritic cells in the skin. 2. The localization of B lymphocytes in the follicles of the spleen. 3. The localization of T lymphocytes in the T cell zone of the lymph nodes. 4. The migration of B cells into the germinal centers. 5. None of the above. 11. Which of the following cell types can be found in the light zone of a germinal center? 1. centroblasts and T cells. 2. centrocytes and follicular dendritic cells. 3. marginal zone B cells and centrocytes. 4. plasmablasts and centroblasts. 5. None of the above. Course: MIMM 314 Page 3 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 12. Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes is found mainly in the blood, is effective in activating the classical pathway of complement and is not transported across placenta? IgM IgD IgG IgA lgE 9:595”? 13. A newly discovered bacterium called Immunologium basicus secretes a toxin that binds specifically to the surface of epithelial cells of the intestinal tract. Which of the following immunoglobulin isotypes would be the most effective in neutralizing the action of this toxin? 1. IgM 2. IgD 3. IgG 4. IgA 5. All of the above 14. Th2 effector cells can: Promote clearance of Mycobacterium—infected macrophages. Promote the secretion of IgG2a antibodies. Secrete IL-3 which in turn induces NO production in macrophages. Deliver a stimulatory signal via CD40 expressed on B cells. Typically develop under priming conditions with high antigen doses. P‘PP’NI“ 15. Which of the following is true regarding activated T cells? Activated T cells gain VLA—4 expression once they arrive in tissues. Activated T cells and naive T cells express identical isoforrns of CD45. Activated T cells gain CD62L expression allowing them to remain in lymph nodes. Activated T cells are resistant to F as mediated T cell death. Activated T cells upregulate CD4OL expression. P‘FP’NE‘ 16. Which statement is generally true about IL—2? Cyclosporin A blocks its signalling through the IL-2 Receptor. lL-2 promotes activated T cell expansion in a paracrine fashion. Production is normal in anergic T cells. It stimulates the growth of B cells. CD40-deficient DC can induce its production in T cells. .V‘PP’PE“ 17. Which of the following is true regarding effector memory T cells as compared with naive T cells? 1. Effector memory T cells and central memory cells express similar levels of CCR7. 2. They no longer express the CD45RO antigen. 3. They gain VLA-4 expression which allows them to adhere to HEV in lymph nodes. 4 They are capable of responding to SLC. 5 They retain high LFA-l expression. Course: MIMM 314 Page 4 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 18. Which statement is true about IL-12? 1. It is produced abundantly by activated Th2 cells 2. Extracellular pathogens induce IL—12 production, which consequently promotes IgGl production. 3. Can activate NK1.1 T cells to produce IL-4. 4. Its production is not affected by TLR signals. 5. It promotes IFN-gamma (IFN-y) production in NK and T cells. 19. A humoral imme response: 1. is typically mounted against intracellular pathogens. 2. produces a Vigorous IL-4 dominated Thl response 3. involves activation of B cells via a cognate T:B cell interaction 4. is independent of T cell activation. 5. involves isotype switching outside of germinal centers. 20. Efficient and productive induction of T cell effector functions: 1. Typically takes between 20 and 24 hours. 2. Requires IL—2 driven clonal expansion. 3. Can be generated by providing Signal 1 and Signal 2 from different APCs. 4. Can occur in the absence of LFA-l. ' 5. All of the above 21. Activated Th1 cells activate dendritic cells primarily by: l. Producing IL-2 x 2. Binding to peptide-MHC II complexes 3. Producing GM—CSF 4. Delivering a signal Via CD40 on the APC 5. Delivering a signal via CTLA-4 22. During the thymic education 1. Most of the hematopoietic stem cells (90-95%) entering the thymus come out of the thymus as a fillly mature T lymphocytes 2. T lymphocytes undergo receptor editing 3. T lymphocytes undergo somatic hyperrnutation 4. Auto reactive T cell clones can be generated 5. T regulatory cells are eliminated to avoid autoimmunity 23. Infectious agents can induce or precipitate autoimmunity by: IgE mediated mechanisms Infecting antigen presenting cells Inhibiting the effects of superantigens Binding penicillin molecules Mimicking auto-antibodies P‘PP’N!‘ Course: MIMM 314 Page 5 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 24. The binding of IgE molecules at the surface of the mast cell to its specific allergen will lead to PEPPER)? Immediate and very significant release of some cytokines (IL—4, IL-13 . . .) Cross-linking of the Fe 6 receptor I Activation of Neutrophils Complement activation Decreased IgE production 25. A pair of F1 mice (HZa/b) are mated and pieces of the skin of the F1 male adult (HZa/b) is grafted to her offspring when they reach maturity at 8 to 10 weeks of age. Assuming the sex ratio (male/female ratio) of the offspring is 1 and that no recombination has occurred within the MHC complex, the expected percentage of graft acceptance is approximately: 1. 0% 2. 25% 3. 50% 4. 75% 5. 100% 26. Carcinoembryonic antigen and human chorionic gonadotropin: 1. induce antibodies in the serum of cancer patients that can be detected in those with malignancies of the gastro—intestinal tract and testis respectively. ‘ 2. are tumor specific antigens that primarily stimulate specific anti-tumor cytotoxic T cells that mediate the spontaneous rejection of the cancer. 3. are tumor associated antigens that are useful in detecting recurrent disease in patients with cancers of the gastro—intestinal tract and testis respectively. 4. are ubiquitous cellular activation antigens and abnormal values are seen in about 50% of normal donors. 5. all or none of the above. ‘ 27. You suffer total renal failure and you choose your mother as the donor of your kidney graft because: 9:59.“? you have the same ABO blood type. you have the same Rh+ red blood cell antigen. you feel that she won't say no. you have inherited one MHC haplotype from her. she has alloantibodies to your MHC in her serum. 28. Phenomena characteristically associated with T cells are: l 2. 3. 4 5 Course: MIMM 314 graft—versus—host reactions. natural/spontaneous killing of cancer cells. antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity. stimulation of proliferation in a mixed lymphocyte culture reaction. all or none of the above. Page 6 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 29. Immunotherapy using Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) given to patient with a malignant melanoma is an example of: .U‘PP’N!‘ Active specific immunotherapy. Passive specific immunotherapy. Active non—specific immunotherapy. Passive non—specific immunotherapy. Passive non—specific chemotherapy. 30. Antigen specific suppressor T-reg cells: 1. are activated by NK cell factors during immune surveillance. 2. are a normal component of most immune responses. 3. are the primary mechanism of natural tolerance to autoantigens. 4. directly act on B—cells to increase the production of blocking antibody. 5. directly suppress tumor cell growth. 31. A major complication of chemotherapy used to prevent renal allograft rejection is: I. only B cells are affected by the drugs leaving residual T—cell mediated immunity that will initiate a harmful graft versus host reaction. 2. only T cells are affected by the drugs leaving residual antibody mediated immunity that will initiate a harmful host versus graft reaction. ‘ 3. chemotherapy fails to suppress the synthesis of complement components by the liver allowing unregulated complement activation to cause hemolytic anemia. 4. drug-induced unresponsiveness is antigen non—specific and may impair cancer control. 5. drug-induced unresponsiveness is antigen non-specific and may reduce autoimmunity. 32. Tumor antigens from tumors induced in mice have been shown in immunological assays to express identical cross-reactivity in cases of: :PWNF‘ tumors induced in two mice by a the same chemical carcinogen (eg. MCA). tumors induced in two mice by the same oncogenic RNA Virus (eg. HTLV). all cases of spontaneously occurring tumors in different mice. tumors and melanomas induced in two mice by irradiation with sunlight or ultraviolet light. tumors induced by the same chemical carcinogen on two separate sites on the same individual mouse. 33. An immunologist desired to induce tolerance to a transplantation antigen. She injected immunocompetent inbred A/j strain mice (MHC A/A genotype) with spleen cells from an (AxB)F1 hybrid mouse produced by mating inbred mice of the A/A genotype with inbred mice of the genetically incompatible B/B genotype. Which of the following would be the expected outcome of this procedure? WPWF’I‘ Course: MIMM 314 A host versus graft reaction resulting in the rejection of the injected cells. A graft versus host reaction resulting in the death of the recipient mouse. Tolerance of the recipient to the F 1 donor mouse MHC A/B antigens. Tolerance of the recipient to MHC B/B antigens of the B-strain mouse. Cytolytic response in the recipient to the A-strain mouse MHC A/A antigens. Page 7 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 34. The strongest evidence for the surveillance role of the immune system in preventing the establishment of tumors is 1. the hereditary or familial pattern of malignancies. 2. the observed increased incidence of malignancies in those over 40 years of age or older when vigorous antigen specific immune responses begin to decline. 3. the increased rate of mutation and transformation of normal cells to neoplastic malignancy in vivo when immunity is weakened or absent. 4. the observed increase in the incidence of malignancies in persons with congenital or. acquired immune deficiencies. 5. the observed low incidence of tumors in very young individuals with a very active immune system. 35. Under which of the following conditions do graft-versus-host (GVH) reactions occur during bone marrow transplantation to an immunologically compromised recipient? 1. When the graft is contaminated with gram negative microorganisms. 2. When tumor cells are grafted to the recipient. 3. When viable T-cells are present in the graft. 4. When the graft expresses histocompatibility antigens not found in the recipient. 5. When the graft is pretreated with anti—CD3 antiserum and complement. 36. The immune system of a patient with insulin dependent diabetes is found to be producing “ antibodies to his pancreatic islet cells. He has been found to have an increased T4:T8 ratio. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this disease state? 1. SAPP’N The patient’s immune lymphocytes have lost immunological tolerance to the islet cell antigens due to an unidentified immuno—stimulatory event. The patient has acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The patient’s cytotoxic T-lymphocytes have become activated by pancreatic enzymes. The patient’s Th—l helper cells are no longer capable of producing interleukin 2. The patient has been eating meat pies containing the pancreas of common domestic animals (pigs and cows) and the animal insulin in the tissue has induced autoimmunity. 37. An immunologically privileged site is: l. M+PN A lymphoid organ containing many T cells where immune defences are particularly strong. A site deficient in lymphatic drainage where foreign tissue grafts are usually accepted. A lymphopoietic microenvironment in the bone marrow. A site rich in antigen presenting macrophages. All or none of the above. 38. A first skin graft between human fraternal (dizygotic) twins at 10 years of age: 1 2. 3. 4 5 Course: MIMM 314 is indefinitely accepted. undergoes a chronic rejection reaction over 20 to 30 days. undergoes an acute rejection reaction within 10-12 days. undergoes a hyper-acute rejection reaction within 4-7 days. is accepted with the help of autologous naturally regulatory factors and cells. Page 8 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 39. In the human, the HLA Class II major histocompatibility antigen gene complex has the potential of expressing: 1. two different cell surface MHC-II antigen dimers. 2. four different cell surface MHC—II antigen dimers. 3. six different cell surface MHC-II antigen dimers. 4. eight different cell surface MHC-II antigen dimers. 5. more than eight different cell surface MHC—II antigen dimers. 40. Which of the following are true: 1. HIV requires a co-receptor, either CCRS or CXCR4, for entry into a CD4 cell. 2. Is it possible to treat HIV with entry inhibitors either by blocking membrane fusion or co-receptor use 3. Mutant CCRS receptors are associated with slow progression of HIV disease 4. Natural chemokines that bind to CCRS are RANTES, MIP-lOt and MIP—IB 5. All of the above 41. In x-linked agammaglobulinemia l. a Btk gene defect leads to B cell maturation arrest 2. a lack of signal transduction in pre-B cells occurs 3. the pre-B cell receptor is expressed ' 4. carrier females have the defective gene in 50% of their pre-B cells 5. All of the above 42. Which of the following statements are true of HIV as a model of human retroviruses? l. The HIV genome integrates into the human genome following reverse transcription. HIV replicates very slowly and has proof reading capabilities associated with cellular DNA polymerases. 3. HIV induces a weak adaptive immune response restricted to anti-env antibodies only and no HIV—specific cytotoxic T cells are generated. 4. Non—specific binding to the CD4 receptor prevents HIV infection of macrophages. 5. None of the above. 43. Which of the following statements are true of primary humoral immunodeficiency? l. Often seen before the first 6 months of life, primarily due to the existence of maternal IgM. 2. In over 50% of affected females NK cells are absent. 3. Common variable immunodeficiency typically occurs in the 2nd and 3rd decades of life. 4. Selective IgG deficiency occurs in approximately 1 in 800 births. 5. selective IgA deficiency probably occurs as a result of an X linked defective WASP Course: MIMM 314 gene Page 9 of 18 CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT OR APPROPRIATE ANSWER 44. Which of the following statements is true: 1. Individuals with Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome lack cell surface MHC class I or II molecules and suffer severe combined immunodeficiency. 2. Gene therapy can be used to treat severe combined immunedeficiency (SCID) however there is a high risk of developing leukemia. 3. Individuals with a defective form of the cytosolic protein kinase ZAP-7O lack CD8 cells yet have normal CD4 cell numbers. 4. Patients with DiGeorge Syndrome lack a thymus, which can easily be diagnosed by a chest x—ray. 5. All the above. 45. DiGeorge Syndrome is associated with: An increased risk of viral infections and auto-immune disorders. An absence of B cells, normal T cell function. No learning difficulties. Normal serum calcium and normal parathyroids. None of the above. P‘PP’N!‘ Course: MIMM 314 Page 10 of 18 TYPE II UESTIONS If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark UIAUJNb—t 46. Which of the following describe the contribution(s) of Robert Koch to the development of the science of microbiology and immunology? Identified several microbial pathogens. Developed haematological staining techniques Developed methods to grow single colonies of microbe on solid media. P1190570? 47. Which of the following are attributes of the Langerhans cell? A. Belongs to the skin-associated immune defense system. B. Differentiated within the myeloid lineage. C. Can be stimulated to express ligands for CD28. D. Resides in the lymph-node and traps antigen to present to centrocytes. E. Resides in the thymus and presents self antigen to thymocytes. Postulated antibody—antigen complementarity and developed the side-chain theory. Demonstrated that rigorous heat treatment killed living things and their spores. 48. “ In principle, which of the following is/are most likely to be useful in reducing the effects of a viral infection in one person, if it is transferred from another person who has recently mounted a strong adaptive immune response to the same virus? A. T helper cells of type 1. B. CD8 positive T cells. C. T helper cells of type 2. x D. Serum. B. Any of these, or none of these would be useful. 49. Which of the following would not be produced in the case of a C3 deficiency? A. Classical pathway C3 convertase. B. Alternative pathway C3 convertase. C. C2 kinin. D. C5b. E. None of the above would be produced without C3. 50. Interleukin 6 stimulates the liver to synthesize which of the following? A. MEL B. SP-A C. CRP D. insulin B. All of the above Course: MIMM 314 Page 11 of 18 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. Course: MIMM 314 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark WAUJNt—t P-selectin P150533? Binds to a particular carbohydrate side-chain on some cell surface molecules. Is involverd in lymphocyte traffiking into lymph nodes. Is in granules within unstimulated endothelial cells. Is on post-capillary venule endothelial cells. There is no such member of the selectin family. Which of the following statements about complement receptor CR2 is/are correct? mcow> It is on red blood cells and is involved in the clearance of immune complexes. It is one of the receptors on follicular dendritic cells involved in antigen capture. It is an integrin. It is a component of the B cell coreceptor. All of the above are correct, or none of the above is correct. Which of the following is are true? muow> IL—l-beta acts on the hypothalamus and induces fever. TNF-alpha acts on the hypothalamus and induces fever. IL-6 acts on the hypothalamus and induces fever. IL-12 acts on the hypothalamus and induces fever. All of the above. Which of the following steps in complement activation pathways would produce a peptide which can stimulate cells through G-protein—coupled receptors? WUOPU? Conversion of C4 to C4b. Conversion of C3 to C3b. Conversion of C5 to C5b. Conversion of Factor B to Bb. All of the above, or none of the above. Which of the following cooperate to inhibit convertases and produce inactive forms of one or more of the convertase components? muow» DAF and Factor D. CR1 and Factor 1. CD59 and Factor D. C4BP and Factor I. MCP and Factor P. Which of the following is/are correct? WUQWP C5a activates vascular endothelium and increases blood vessel permeability. TNF-alpha activates vascular endothelium and increases blood vessel permeability. TNF-alpha causes increased platelet adhesion to blood vessel wall. CXCL8 stimulation of leukocytes causes a conformational change in LFA-l. All of the above. Page 12 of 18 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. Course: MIMM 314 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark UlebJNb—d Which of the following are correct statements? A. B. C. D. E. TLR—2 knockout mice have an impaired response to gram—positive bacterial cell wall. MyD88 is critical for the induction of iNOS in response to LPS. TLR-3 is expressed on dendritic cells, but not on neutrophils. TLR—3 recognizes unmethylated CpG DNA. The TIR domains of Toll-Like Receptors are sites where inhibitory molecules bind to prevent signalling. Which of the following is correct. rupee» LPS—binding protein protects cells by blocking the LPS signalling which would cause production of harmful cytokines. There are several endogenous (self) molecules which can stimulate cell responses through Toll-Like Receptors. Each macrophage receptor which binds foreign material has a single binding site highly specific for a particular ligand. Mouse beta-defensin 2 can activate dendritic cells via their TLR-4. All of the above Which of the following is/are true regarding immune evasion by viruses? W5 A protein produced by HSV (herpes simplex virus) binds to TAP and inhibits function Adenoviral proteins can bind MHC and inhibit transport of MHC complexes to the cell surface. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) reduces the time of antigen presentation at the cells surface by increasing MHC turnover. Orthotic viruses inhibit release of the CLIP protein Leptomenigitic virus produces a protein that degrades MHC in the endosome. Which of the following is/are true regarding the MHC $1150.03?” MHC genes are found on chromosomes 6 and 11 In humans there are 3 major MHC class 1 genes, A Band C. MHC genes are expressed in a polyphasic manner MHC genes are inherited in linkage disequilibrium Class I and 11 genes are both upregulated by ILl Which of the following is true regarding superantigens? A. FLUOW Superantigens are bacterial or viral proteins able to activate T cells without antigen processing. Superantigens bind directly into the T cell-receptor antigen binding site. Superantigens can activate multiple T cells bearing similar Vfi-regions. Superantigens have many more epitopes than normal antigens. Superantigens are essential for regulated immune responses. Page 13 of 18 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark UIAUJNH 62. Which of the following describes immunoglobulin molecules? There are five isotypes of immunoglobulin IgG can cross the placenta IgM can fix complement IgA forms pentamers lgD is the first immunoglobulin secreted muow> 63. Which of the following is/are true about MHC peptide interactions A. MHC bind conformational epitopes B. MHC class I usually binds peptides of 8-10 amino acids C. MHC class II usually binds peptides of 4-7 amino acids D. MHC class II binds peptides via the backbone and side chains. The ends are not bound. B. All of the above, or none of the above. 64. Antigen receptor signaling can be negatively modulated by other receptors that: A. lead to the activation of the protease caspase-8. ' B. lead to the activation of the small G protein called Rae. C. lead to the phosphorylation of the inhibitory tyrosine residue in the ITAM motifs of the antigen receptor. D. lead to the activation of phosphatases such as SHP—l or SHIP. E None of the above. \ 65. Which of the following pairs of proteins are structurally and functionally homologous? A. Syk and ZAP—7O B. ZAP-70 and lck C. Vav and SOS D. SOS and Ras E. CD45 and CD19 66. Which of the following statements about B cell development is/are correct? A. Heavy chain VH—DH rearrangement begins at the pre-B cell stage. B. The surrogate light chain is expressed by large pre-B cells. C. At the immature stage, B cells express IgM and IgD. D. Light chain VL-JL rearrangement begins at the small pre-B cell stage. E. Isotype switching begins at the immature B cell stage. 67. Which of the following molecules are expressed by immature B cells? A. Lambda 5 B. lg mu heavy chain C. the receptor Kit D. Ig alpha B. All of the above Course: MIMM 314 Page 14 of 18 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. Course: MIMM 314 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark Ul-lkaNb—l Which of the following statements is (are) correct? P .0057“ F1 Thymocytes with non-productive alpha—chain VDJ rearrangements can be rescued by subsequent rearrangements. The same TCR beta chain can be expressed by multiple single positive thymocytes. In a strict sense, TCR alpha-chain genes are not subject to allelic exclusion. Mature T cells may have productive rearrangements at the alpha chain locus on both alleles. All of the above. Which of the following statements about B-l cells is/are correct? 5.0.00? F11 B-l cells originate exclusively from a stem cell that is active during the prenatal period. B-l cells are especially abundant in the peritoneal and pleural cavities. B-l cells are crucial for the adaptive response to protein antigens. B-l cells have restricted antigen specificities, biased for recognition of common bacterial antigens. All of the above ' Which of the following interactions are required for a naive B lymphocyte to differentiate into a plasma cell? FUDGE“? Antigen binding to the B—cell receptor (BCR) MHC class II interaction with a T—cell receptor (TCR) CD40 interaction with CD40 ligand IL-4 receptor interaction with IL-4 All of the above \. Which of the following processes can occur during a germinal center reaction? wcowe Affinity maturation Isotype switching Somatic hypermutation Isotype exclusion All of the above Which of the following statements about isotype switching is/are correct? A. B. FUD The enzyme AID (activation—induced cytidine deaminase) is involved in the DNA recombination required for isotype switching. Isotype switching is the process that controls the expression of either a kappa or a lambda light chain by immature B cells. All isotype switch recombination events are productive because the switch sequences lie in introns and therefore cannot cause frame-shift mutations. Rag-land Rag-2 need to be expressed for isotype switching to occur. Isotype switching to IgD involves the transcription of mRNAs from the switch region that lies 5' to the delta-chain C gene. Page 15 of 18 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark UI-IKUJNr—l 73. Which of the following cell surface receptors expressed on NK cells promote antibody- dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)? A. Fc(gamma)RlI-B 1 B. F c(epsilon)RI C. CR2 (complement receptor 2) D. Fc(gamma)RIII E. None of the above 74. Following the activation and differentiation of CD4+ T cells A. Armed effector T cells migrate to tissues via blood B. Central memory T cells remain in LN until the next immune response C. Armed effector T cells can respond to antigen re-challenge in the absence of co— stimulation D. Most activated effector T cells are not long—lived B. All or none of the above 75. Which of the following is true about CTLA-4? A. CTLA—4 deficient mice die of a massive lymphoproliferative disorder. B. Its expression is CD28 dependent. C. It has a 20 time higher affinity for B7 ligands than CD28. D. Its expression is downregulated on activated T cells E. Possesses a similar affinity for B7 as CD28. ‘ 76. Protective immunity against Leishmania can be achieved by: A. Activation of infected macrophages by IFN—gamma (IFN—y). B. Induction of IL-10 production. C. Removal of CD4+ regulatory T cell activity D. Activation of antigen-specific B cells B. All of the above. 77. Extracellular pathogens like E. coli can be prevented from causing infection by : A. Complement B. Macrophage-mediated phagocytosis C. Antibody-mediated opsonization D. T cells B. All of the above. 78. Activated Th1 cells can facilitate the elimination of intracellular pathogens using which of the following? A. CD40L-mediated activation of infected macrophages. B. By secreting IL-lO C. TNF-alpha (TNF-oc) activation of vascular endothelium D. By downregulation of Fas-L B. All or none of the above. Course: MIMM 314 Page 16 of 18 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. Course: MIMM 314 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark LII-RMNb—i Which of the following are true regarding naturally-occurring regulatory CD4+ T cells subsets: Require the thymus to acquire their suppressive functions Suppress in a cytokine independent fashion in Vitro Can suppress several autoimmune diseases and promote pathogen persistence in the same animal Foxp3 is essential in their development. All of the above Which of these molecules is/are intimately involved in an autoimmune reaction wuow> Complements Granzymes Auto-antibodies IL-4 CD 34 T regulatory cells WUOW? Are only CD4 positive lymphocytes Can mediate their action through secretion of IL—4 and IL-13 Can not recognize self antigens Play a role in the prevention of allergic diseases Are only present during the first few months of life (“critical window period”) \. Regarding a type III mediated hypersensitivity, in the classification of Gell and Coombs: FUDGE???” There are antibodies blocking cell surface receptors There are antibodies stimulating cell surface receptors Opsonization and phagocytosis play an important role in this type of reaction Membrane attack complex (MAC) lysis can cause inflammation in this type of reaction CD8 + lymphocytes play an important role in this type of reaction Autoimmune reactions due to the activation of auto-antibody production may occur: wuow» as a consequence of formation of antigen-antibody complexes in the kidney. as a result of antibody blocking or activating a cell receptor. as a result of antibody—induced phagocytosis by macrophages. as a result of antibody-induced complement mediated lysis. as a result of all or none of the above. In antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity against a tumor target cell: A. B. C. D E The natural killer cell must produce specific antibody to the target cell antigens before it can bind to and kill the tumor cell. The natural killer lymphocyte binds to target cell major histocompatibility antigens. Antibody mediated activation of natural killer cells is required before complement mediated inflammation and activation of target cell lysis can occur. Natural killer cell Fc receptors bind to antibodies on the tumor target cell. The natural killer cell must be activated by interferon gamma produced by activated B-cells. Page 17 of 18 If A and C are correct mark If B and D are correct mark If A, B, C are correct mark If D is correct mark If E is correct mark mAmmi—x 85. Which of the following statements is/are false: A. Primary immune deficiency is the result of abnormalities of the immune system that result in an increased incidence of infection. B. Most infections that occur in those with common variable immunodeficiency are with opportunistic organisms that normally are of very high pathogenicity. C. Over 80% of patients with primary immune deficiency are males. D. Chronic granulomatous disease is very common it affects l in 500 individuals. B. All of the above 86. HIV associated immune deficiency is a result of: A. The destruction of the CD4 memory cell pool of the gut during primary infection B. CD4 cell apoptosis C. Thymic involution and fibrosis D. Hypogammaglobulinemia E. All of the above 87. In X—linked hyper IgM syndrome A. IgG and IgA levels in the blood are low while IgM levels are high B cell activation and isotype switching take place normally Lymphoid tissues lack germinal centers B. C. D. T cells can engage CD40 on B cells B. All of the above 88. Severe combined immunodeficiencies may result from the following: X-linked genetic defects adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency mutations in the y chain of several cytokine receptors glucose-6-phosphate deficiency none of the above WUOW? 89. AIDS is a manifestation of HIV—induced severe immunodeficiency and is characterized by all of the following opportunistic infections and tumors, except for: A. Pneumocystis carnini pneumonia. B. Cryptococcal infection of the brain. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. Cancer of the anus. E. Thymoma 90. Common variable immunedeficiency: A. Is the most common clinically relevant adult immune deficiency. B. Diagnosed by a lack of thymus on chest x-ray C. Often associated with autoimmunity and a large spleen D. Patients usually have a normal B cell memory phenotype E. None of the above. Course: MIMM 314 Page 18 of 18 ...
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This note was uploaded on 04/02/2012 for the course EPSC 200 taught by Professor Jensen during the Winter '08 term at McGill.

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MIMM314 victor 2 - ° April 2007 C 1 Final Examination...

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