BRILLIANCE - feministic I understand it only to be...

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I would like to focus on the Epilogue of Shakespeare’s As You Like It. I understand the boyish adolescence that is made definitive and conclusive with this postlude – presented by the actor who plays Rosalind, no less – however my confusion lies in Shakespeare’s motivation. I very much understand (and even find humor in) the irony/comedy behind actor-Rosalind’s delivery of this epilogue, and do not in any way perceive it as a misogynist gesture of the playwright, though find myself at a dead end because of such contrasting interpretations. Why has Shakespeare cast the boy-actor of Rosalind for the delivery of such easy (I.E. juvenile) laughs that the Epilogue presents, while two-dimensionally depicting Rosalind’s character throughout the entire play [arguably – and sans Act 5’s disappearance of ] as cunningly dominating -- irrefutably
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Unformatted text preview: feministic? I understand it only to be meta-humor, as similarly Shakespeare’s plays have been categorized as “metatheatrics” ( Hamlet , A Midsummer Night’s Dream ). The play has itself delivered both a superficial/surface humor and understanding, grounded in Elizabethan conventions that would have been easily understood by Shakespeare’s playgoers, and a literary analysis of the play’s humor/intent, which seems to one-up itself with the conclusion of the play’s Epilogue. Works Cited Driscoll, James P. “Identity in Shakespearian Drama”. Renaissance Quarterly , Vol. 37, No. 2, 1984. Pp. 308-311. JSTOR. Shakespeare, William. As You Like It . 1954. New Haven: Yale University Press, 1919....
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