35 Question A 45 year old female presents to the nurse practitioner with

35 question a 45 year old female presents to the

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35.Question: A 45-year old female presents to the nurse practitioner with complaints of postcoital bleeding (greater than spotting) unrelated to the menstrual cycle. What is the most likely cause? Endometriosis IncorrectCervical cancer CorrectEarly pregnancyMenopauseExplanation: Postcoital bleeding suggests cervical polyps, cervical cancer, or in an older woman, atrophicvaginitis. Postcoital bleeding is not usually noted in patients with endometriosis, early pregnancy, or menopause.36.Question: When performing the bimanual vaginal exam, uterine enlargement is noted. This enlargement could suggest:
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a malignancy. Correctretroversion of the uterus.retroflexion of the uterus.pelvic inflammatory disease.Explanation: Uterine enlargement may suggest pregnancy, uterine myomas (fibroids), or malignancy. Retroversion or retroflexion of the uterus, and pelvic inflammatory disease are not typical findings with enlargement of the uterus.37.Question: In which of the following situations would it be difficult for the examiner to palpate anovary during the bimanual vaginal exam? A slender womanA woman who is anxious CorrectA relaxed womanA one year postmenopausal woman IncorrectExplanation: Normal ovaries are usually tender to palpation but could pose difficulty in some women. They are usually palpable in slender, relaxed women but are difficult or impossible to feel in women who are obese or anxious. Three to five years after menopause, ovaries are atrophic and usually nonpalpable.38.Question:Causes of post menopausal bleeding typically include all of the following except: endometrial cancer.hormone replacement therapy. Incorrectatrophic vaginitis.Correctuterine polyps.Explanation:Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include endometrial cancer, hormone replacement therapy, and uterine and cervical polyps. Typically, with atrophic vaginitis patients are more likely to experience postcoital bleeding as opposed to post menopausal bleeding.39.Question:A 35-year-old female presents with complaints of swelling of her right breast. Findingsreveal edema of the lower portion of her right breast. The skin appears thickened with enlarged pores. This condition is consistent with: Paget's disease.the peau d'orange sign. Correctnipple deviation.skin dimpling.Explanation: Edema of the skin is produced by lymphatic blockade. It appears as thickened skin with enlarged pores, commonly termed the peau d’orange (orange peel) sign. It is often seen first in the lowerportion of the breast or areola and is considered a visible sign of breast cancer. Paget's disease, nipple deviation, and skin dimpling are also considered visible signs of breast cancer but do not appear in this fashion.40.Question: The shiny, pink area located around the cervical os is known as: a retention cyst.the columnar epithelium.squamous epithelium. Correctthe endocervix. IncorrectExplanation:There are two types of epithelia that cover the cervix: a shiny, pink squamous epithelium, which
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