Taxable Income = 250/(1-.4) =
416.6666667 ! Net income includes interest income
Taxable Income before interest income =
291.6666667
EBIT = 291.67 + 100 + 80 =
471.67
EBITDA
721.67
Non-cash Value/EBITDA = 5750/722 =
7.96 ! If numerator is non-cash, denominator cannot include interest income
Alternatively,
Firm Value = 5000 + 1500 + 1000 =
7500
EBITDA + Interest Income =
846.67
Value/EBITDA = 7500/847 =
8.854781582
Spring 2000
Problem 1
EBIT at Reliable without auto parts subsidiary = 500 - 200 =
300
EBIT at Chemical products subsidiary =
250
EBIT at Auto Parts Subsidiary =
200
Tax rate =
40%
Reinvestment Rate = (Growth/ROC) = 6%/12% =
50%
Cost of Capital =
10%
Value of Reliable (stand-alone) = 300 (1-.4) (1-.5)(1.06)/(.10-.06) =
$2,385 ! Alternatively, we could have valued Reliable on a
Value of Chemical subsidiary = 250 (1-.4)(1-.5)(1.06)/(.10-.06) =
$1,988 consolidated basis and subtracted the 50% ofthe auto
Value of Auto Parts subsidiary = 200 (1-.4)(1-.5)(1.06)/(.10-.06) =
$1,590 parts subsidiary.
Value of Reliable (with subsidiaries) = 2385 + 0.1 (1988) + 0.5 (1590) =
$3,379
Value per share =
$33.79
Problem 2
a. will become more sensitive to changes in expected growth rates. (The value of growth is a present value effec
b. Firm A will have the higher PEG ratio, because it has the lower expected growth rate.
c. Low tax rate, high return on capital, low reinvestment rate: Best possible combination
d. The price to book value ratio will drop. The simplest way to do this is to use the following equation:
PBV = (ROE - growth rate)/(Cost of equity - growth rate)
Inciientally, this is true only if the price to book value ratio is greater than 1, which it is in this case.
e. Enterprise Value = (Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt - Cash and Marketable Securities)/(EBIT +
= (150 *10 + 1000-500)/(250+100) =
5.71
Spring 2002
Problem 1
a.
Revenues
1050
EBIT
210
EBIT (1-t)
168
+ Depreciation
105
- Cap Ex
160
- Chg in WC
13 Only the change in working capital matters
FCFF
100
Reinvestment
68 ! I was pretty flexible on how this was computed….
b.
Reinvestment Rate
40.48%
Expected growth rate
5%
Return on Capital =
12.35%
c.
Reinvestment rate
0.5 ! As ROC changes, the reinvestment rate will change. You
Value =
1680 cannot use cashflows from part a.
Problem 2
MV of Equity =
2000
+ Equity Options
100
Value of Equity
2100
+ Debt
1000
- Cash
500
Value of operating asset
2600
Problem 3
a.
PE Ratio for the firm =
32
Expected growth rate =
17.30
b.
PE Ratio =
42.45 ! 12.13 + 1.56 (24) - 3.56 (2)
PEG ratio =
1.76875 ! 42.45/24
Fall 2002
Problem 1
Return on capital on existing assets =
10%
Reinvestment rate =
0.7
a. Expected growth over next 5 years = ROC on new investments * Reinvestment rate + Growth from improved efficiency
= (15%)(.70) +(1+ (.15-.10)/.10)^(1/5)-1
18.95%
b. Portion due to improved efficiency
New Investment growth = 15% *.7 =
10.50%
Growth due to improved efficiency = .1895-.105 =
8.45%
Problem 2
a. Reinvestment rate in perpetuity = g/ rOC = 4/12 =

You've reached the end of your free preview.
Want to read the whole page?
- Fall '08
- CHO
- Revenue, Earnings before interest and taxes, FCFF