Anatomy Test 10 Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Cl
Chlorine
micro-
small
sub-
under,beneath
manus
hand
-(r)raphy
to suture
con-
with, together
Face
das Gesicht
receptors
receive insulin
append-
to hang something
dis-
reversal, apart from
Lumbar,sacral,and coccygeal leave_____corresponding bones
Below
thoracic
pertaining to the chest
Pectoralis Major : Innervation
C5-T1
rough endoplasmic reticulum
protein synthesis.
in right atrium
fossa ovalis
epiphseal
epiphysis separtes from the diaphysis
region that includes the chest
thoracic
What is bradycardia?
Slow heart rate
NAMErefers to moles per liter
molarity
Jobs of Cerebellum:
important for:
-monitoring posture/balance-alcohol affects cerebellum-ppl lose balance
-monitor intentions of movement
-monitor actual movement
-compares intentions/actual movements
-sends corrective signals to UMN
thoracic cavity
cavity above the diaphram
hypothalamus
regulation of visceral activities; control of autonomic function, coordinate nervous and endocrine activities; production of emotions and behavioral drives; coordination b/w voluntary and autonomic functions; regulation of body temp; regulation of water and electrolyte balance; control of circadian rhythms
Atrium
 
Ventricle
1 recieve blood
 
2. pump blood out


 
is a carbohydrate an inorganic compound or an organic compound?


organic
baroreceptors
blood pressure is monitored by ________ in the walls of the aortic arch and the carotid arteries.
What is atrophy?
Wasting away of muscles
Functions of Liver:
-Bile production
-Detoxification of Blood
-Metabolic regulation
-production of plasma proteins 
White Matter contents
Ascending and descending pathways
epineurium
connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve
Palmar and Doral Interossei
3 PAD (unipennate)
Opponens Digiti Minimi
Location: Hypothenar GroupAction: Oppositon of finger 5
Latissimus Dorsi
O: T7-L5, sacrum
I: intertubercular groove of humerus
A: pulls arm back, medially rotates humerus
What is they etym of transverse?
across
merkel cells
located at the epidermal dermal junction , sensory receptors for touch
clinical anatomy
focuses on anatomical features that may undergo recognizable pathological changes during illness
cell
the basic biological unit of living organisms, containing a nucleus and a variety of organelles enclosed by a limiting membrane
Which cartilages do not articulate with any other parts of the laryngeal skeleton (cartilage or bone)?
cuneiform cartilages
interproximal surface
adjacent surfaces of two adjacent teeth
hyaline cartilage
function: support and framework (few fibers)
smooth muscles, actin and myosin filaments are arranged in
diaganol sheets
What is attached to the inferior portion of the cecum?
appendix
SMOOTH MUSCLE
generally found in the walls ofviscera. classified as nonstraited and involuntary. aids in organ function
Fecal
All ____ material is consumed by another species
conjunctiva
mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the sclera (white portion of the eye)
Merocrine glands
Exocrine glands that secrete without losing cellular material
Tencephalon: Cerebrum
inner brain nuclei (grey matter), white matter,
epiphyseal separation
The loosening or separation, either partial or complete, of an epiphysis from the shaft of a bone.
What organ stores and digests though chemicals or mechanics?
Stomach
free radical
an electrically charged atom or group of atoms with an unparied electron in its outer most shell
large intestine
Part of the digestive system. removes water from fecal matter; stores wastes
adherens junctions
Type of cell junctions that help epithelial surfaces to resist separation. They are made of plaque. Transmembrane glycoproteins anchored in this plaque cross the space between membranes from this cell to connect with the adjacent cell glycoproteins.
Which ligaments prevents hyperextension of hip joint? Which one restricts abduction? Which one is the strongest ligament in the body?
1.) Iliofemoral and ischiofemoral restrict hyperextension. 2.) Pubofemoral restricts abduction. 3.) Iliofemoral is strongest ligament in body
Innervation
the supply of motor and sensory nerve function to a specific organ or region of the body
Middle Concha? (4 in 1)
Middle Meatus-Anterior Ethmoid sinus-Middle Ethmoid sinus-Maxillary sinus-Frontal sinus
Iliocostalis Thoracis
Origin: Superior borders of ribs 6-12 medial to the angles. Insertion: Superior ribs and transverse processes of last cervical vertebrae. Action: Stabilizes thoracic vertebrae in extension. Innervation: Thoracic Spinal nerves.
2 organs that contribute venouse blood to the portal hepatic system
1. Spleen2. Pancreas
A reduction in the quantity of bone or atrophy of skeletal tissue.
Osteoperosis
Smooth Muscle tone
A state of continued partial contraction.
what are cont. endothelium in nearly all parts of the brain BBB very limited permeability
cerbral capillaries
Receptive field
The entire area through which the sensitive ends of a receptor cell are distributed
cervical
of or pertaining to the cervix or neck.
artery
a blood vessel that conveys blood from the heart to any part of the body
mesenteric branches
The branches of the aorta that supply blood to the intestines are the...
What nerves innervate cochlea & vestibule?
CN 8 vestibulocochear nerve
complement system
a group of about 20 normally inactive proteins in the blood and on cell membranes that enhance phagocytosis and inflammation is called the ___________
Where in the body is the thymus?
Between the lungs
What deep back muscle is this?
 
What are its characteristics?
 
Multifidus
 
-Big in lumbar region
-Span 2-4 vertebrae
At the uncovertebral joint, the edge is lined by what?
Hyaline cartilage only.
Connective Tissue Root Sheath
derived from the dermis, surrounds epithelial sheath and is somewhat denser than the adjacent dermal connective tissue
The lumbar lordosis
does not typically start to develop until age 2 and may not fullydevelop until age 6 or 7.
Pott's Fracture
fracture of the lower part of the fibula, with serious injury of the lower tibial articulation, usually a chipping off of a portion of the medial malleolus, or rupture of the medial ligament.
base
the part of an organ nearest its point of attachment.
CT, CAT (computerized axial tomography)
an imaging technique that reconstructs the three dimensional structure of the body
Which bursae of the knee communicate directly with the synovial joint?
suprapatellar, popliteus, anserine, and gastrocnemius
What helps water leave the NPE to form AH?
Sodium cations
In the body, current is due to _________ of ______.
movement of ions.
which one of the following is not a function of bone
heat production
What is the Pelvic Girdle comprised of?
AND
To where does it attach?
*illium
*Sacrum
*Pubic Bone (pubic symphysis)
*Ischium
*sacroilliac joints

Attaches at lower vertebral column
Bone marking: linear elevation. ex?
line - soleal line of the tibia
How many bones are in the Ear Ossicles?
6 (3 in each)
What is syntesis reaction?
is when atoms or molecules combine to form a more complex molecule
Name all the major endocrine organs of the body.
Pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, thymus glands, pancreas, ovaries, and testis.
What are the five primary taste sensations?
Salty, Sweet, sour, bitter and Umami
dorsum of hand (cutaneous nerve supply)
- dorsal cutaneous branch of ulnar supplies medial dorsal aspect of the hand and dorsum of medial one and one half digits
 
- superficial radial supplies lateral dorsal aspect fo the hand and dorsum of three adn one half digits except for their distal parts, which are supplied by the median nerve
how many bones are in the foot
26 bones and usually 2 sesamoids
Complete v. incomplete spinal cord injury
Complete = complete loss of motor AND sensory function below the level of the traumatic lesion.
Incomplete = variable neurological finding with partial loss of sensory and/or motor function below the lesion
What is the function of the mid brain?
to connnect diacephelon to spinal cord
What are the two types of cells found in the Islands of Langerhans and what do they secrete?


alpha cells: Glucagon (raises blood sugar)
beta cells: insulin (lowers blood sugar)
which event happens first in the entire process of muscular contraction?
a neural impulse travels down an axon and releases acetylcholine at the motor endplate
post
posterior
acr/o
extremeties
megaly
enlargement
larynx
laryng/o
-mnesia
memory
umbilical
navel
peri-
around.
onc/o
tumor
SUB
UNDER,SLIGHTLY
Milli
1/1000
myring
eardrum
tarso
ankle
fibr/o
fiber
metatarsal
10
crit
to separate
bleeder's disease
black/blue
Ventral
belly side
C-section
cesarean section
BP
blood pressure
displaced bones
dislocation
-a-,
an-, without, not
hyper-
abnormally high, excessive
Between two structures?
intermediate
-malacia
means abnormal softening
medull/o
soft, inner part
Bursitis
inflammation of bursa
chronic
constant; habitual; inveterate:
origin of Temporalis
Temporal bone
Occipital ridge
Back of head
cyesis and gravid/o means
pregnancy
study of body function
physiology
cell junctions
desmosomes, tight, gap
sinus rhythm
normal heart rhythm
function of meninges
protects brain
remission
the act of remitting.
origin of Pectineus
Ramus of pubis
Type of care procedure performed
pus
cystitis (inflammation of the bladder); gonorrhea; pylonephritis
Voiding of urine; involves symoathetic, parasympathetic and somatic fibers.
micturition
pubic symphysis
amphiarthrotic articulation which limits movements between the two pubic bones
This cross-linking process involves soluble antigenic molecules, the resulting antigen-antibody comlexes are so large that they become insoluble and settle out of solution.
precipitation
fibrinogen
plasma protein, clotting factors, hemostasis, mfg in liver
Reticular Tissue
Supports; Walls of liver
secondary complication of diabetes mellitus
nephropathy
symptom
any phenomenon or circumstance accompanying something and serving as evidence of it.
C1,C2 and so on
first cervical vertebra....
Used needles should not be recapped
Thyrohyoid O.I.A.
O: thyroid cartilage
I: hyoid bone
A: depresses hyoid bone
Which WBCs are the most common?
neutrophils
Another term for redness is ________________.
erythema
Which bone contains the following stucture:chiasmatic groove?
sphenoid
Visceral Skeleton
skeletal elements derived from embryonic gill arches. They include the hyoid bone and ear ossicles.
Certain bacterial diseases may damage heart valves. Damage to the left semilunar valve interferes with blood flow into what chamber or vessel
Aorta
Solvent
fluid medium;generally water in a biological system
SECRETES RELEASING HORMONES INTO THE PORTAL CAPILLARIES, COMPOSED OF NERVOUS TISSUE, AND SYNTHESIZES ADH AND OXYTOCIN
HYPOTHALAMUS
FOUR COMPONENTS OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM
BONES,CARTILAGE,TENDONS,LIGAMENTS
The levator prostate muscle (split from puborectalis) passes between the _______ and the anus
prostate
Salivary Glands- Secretion of viscous fluid
Sympathetic
bundle of microtubules, seen paired and perpendicular to each other; give rise to the spindle fiber
centriole
diagnosis
the process of determining by examination the nature and circumstances of a diseased condition.
olig
scanty, low in number of - r
instrument for opening the vaginal orifice to permit visual examination of the vagina and beyond
vaginal speculum
Sensitization
helper T cells present the pathogen antigen to B cells, which become sensitized to the antigen
The part(s) of the respiratory system involved directly in exchange of gas from blood to air called the
alveola(e)
the inferiormost part of the sternum
xiphoid process
projections of the plasma membraneof a mucosal epithelial cell
microvilli
the term for pertaining to the cheek
buccal
the middle segment of the small intestine. An abrupt bend marks the boundary.
jejunum
Dilute saltwater solution cells are bathed in.
Interstatial Fluid
placenta previa
the abnormal implanation of the placenta in the lower portion of the uterus
intervertebral discs
between the bones of the spine
CECUM
WHERE THE SMALL AND LARGE INTESTINES MEET
Absorption can only occur once digested foods enter _____ _____ by active or passive transport.
mucosal cells
stem cells
the ability to transform themselves into any of the body's specialized cells and perform many different functions. also located in blastocyst
Calcium
The mineral salt needed for muscle contraction and strong bones.
sonography
production of images based on the echoes of sound waves against structures
canaliculi
an extremely narrow tubular passage or channel in compact
Fibrocartilage
- matrix less firm than hyaline cartilage
- thick collagen fibers predominate
- tensile strength and ability to absorb compressive shock
- located in intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, discs of knee joint
Funcion in secretion and absorbtion. Found on surface of ovaries, and kidneys.
Simple Cuboidal
abductor hallucis:origin
medial tubercle of calcaneous, flexor retinaculum and plantar aponeurosis
edema
effusion of serous fluid into the interstices of cells in tissue spaces or into body cavities.
laceration
the result of lacerating; a rough, jagged tear.
what reinforces the sacroiliac joint anteriorly?
ventral sacroiliac ligament
condition of gas trapped in GI tract or released through the anus
flatus
Tears
rid the eyes of contaminants and help to seal and lubricate the eyelids to prevent entry of organisms
_______ and _______ muscle cells are elongated and are called muscle fibers.
skeletal, smooth
bone matrix is deposited by osteoblasts in thin layers of lamellae, forming concentric patterns around capill located within tiny longitudinal tubes called central(haversian) canals. Osteoblasts in launae surrounded by matrix, they are called osteocytes.
Bone Cell formation?
Alveoli
Site of exchange of O2 and CO2. Exchange of gases occurse across respiratoy membrane. Respiratory mamembrane has 4 layers - alveolare wall (type1&2 alveolar cells), epithelial basement membrane, capillary basement membrane, capillary endothelium.
nasopharynx
is the first division; is posterior to the nasal cavity & continues downward to behind the mouth; is used only for our respiratory system; transports only air
nerve 6, name, classification, function
abducens, motor, eye movement
receives only sympathetic fibers
adrenal medulla, sweat glands, arrector pilli, kidneys, most blood vessels
The term that refers to a position closer to the midline is
medial
Angina pectoris
is severe chest pain and constriction about the heart, usually radiating to the left shoulder and down the left arm creating a feeling of pressure in the anterior chest
5 layers of skin
1.Stratum Basale 2.Startum Spinosum 3.Stratum Granulosum 4. Stratum Luciden 5. Stratum Corneum
Supressor T Cells
Lymphocyte that inhibits the activity of B and T lymphocytes.
GH princible signs and symptoms for over
retarded growth
reticular (loose CT)
fibroblasts, reticular cells, wbc. PF reticular. GS gel like. F support framework. L tonsils, spleen, thymus, lymphatic system organs, lymph nodes
each kidney is surrounded by ______ ______ which fuses posteriorly with the connective tissues around the renal vessels
renal fascia
What is the life span a platelet
10 days
which muscle is used mostly for power
gluteus maximus
What forms the floor of the femoral triangle?
pectineus
phalanx
(in ancient Greece) a group of heavily armed infantry formed in ranks and files close and deep, with shields joined and long spears overlapping.
eponym
a person, real or imaginary, from whom something, as a tribe, nation, or place, takes or is said to take its name:
prostrate
to cast (oneself) face down on the ground in humility, submission, or adoration.
Describe the parasagittal plane?
any sagittal plane except the midsagittal plane
How does a amphiarthrosis joint move?
slightly moveable (amphi=both sides)
Sagittal plane divides the body into:
right and left parts
The function of smooth muscle is:
maintain blood pressure, squeeze/propel substances through organs
The levels of insulin in the blood are maintained at constanst, stable, and homeostatic levels. true or false
false
This type of skin neoplasm if most common in people that are affected with AIDS.
Kaposi's sarcoma
function of basal ganglia
help initiate and terminate body movements
Conn's syndrome
a disorder of the adrenal glands due to excessive production of aldosterone
What covers the surface of the heart
epicardium (visceral pericardium)
At least a __% match is needed to attempt a graft
75
Lateral canthus -
Where the upper and lower eyelids meet.
tendon reconstruction
stitches the two ends of a lacerated tendon back together
what is the folia?
surface of the cerebellum, highly folded neural cortex
sharp pain; lasts for a few seconds; leaves as soon as stimulus leaves
acute pain
infection
an act or fact of infecting; state of being infected.
where does the lateral supracondylar line end?
ends at the lateral epicondyle
What is the horizontal part of the mandible?
The mandibular body
Q What carpal bones articulate with the radius?
A Scaphoid and Lunate
inhalation
is the act of taking in air as the diaphragm contracts & pulls downward. This action causes the thoracic cavity to expand. This produces a vacuum within the thoracic cavity that draws air into the lungs
There are five sets of bones which make up the pelvis. They are the pubis, _____, __________, __________, and the ischium.
sacrum, ilium, coccyx
When chyme is released into the small intestine it stimulates the mucosa cells to produce several hormones. These two hormones influence the release of pancreatic juice and bile.
secretin and cholecystokinin
Protective covering(s) of brain and spinal cord
outer-cranial bones and vertebrae, inner are the meninges
where are blood cells produced in the body
red bone marrow
what are some of the substances secreted by enteroendocrine cell
gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, somatostatin
What nerve supplies motor innervation to levator ani, coccygeus and external anal sphincter mm?
Sacral muscular branches of coccygeal plexus
What shape is the lens when you are looking at something close to you?
Round and thick
a pair of mucous glands at the base of the penis that screte a small amount of fluid to the urethra as it passes into the posterior part of the penis. (Cleans out the urethra)
Cowper's glands
Process in which nutrient-rich blood is brought from the digestive viscera to the liver, where it processes the blood.
hepatic portal circulation - named hepatic because nutrients not needed by the liver cells are released into the blood and drain from the liver in the hepatic vein where they become available to the rest of the body.
What is anatomical Position
Body is erect with face forward, arms at sides, toes and palms of hands directed forward
The tibial nerve divides into what two branches in the plantar foot?
medial and lateral plantar
Describe the path of the accessory obturator nerve?
its course parallels the obturator nerve and when present it provides muscular supply to pectineus muscle, an articular branch to the hip joint and joins the obturator nerve's cutaneous supply to the thigh
what cant pass through the cell membrane?
larger, polar or charged molecules (with the exception of water)
This occurs when complement proteins bind to certain sugars or proteins on the foreign cell's surface
complement fixation (a complement is a group of about 20 plasma proteins circulating the blood in an inactive state)
What marks the floor of the posterior triangle?
the splenius capitis, levator scapulae, scalenes
Describe the location of the saphenous nerve?
exits the deep fascia at the inferomedial aspect of the thigh near the knee.
vitamin D acts on intestine to do what?
to increase absorption of calcium, phosphate, & magnesium
Name the three pars of the pituitary gland
pars intermedia, pars distalis, pars nervosa
what muscles are in layer 3 of the foot?
flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, flexor digiti minimi brevis
What is the chorion and how is it related to the amnion?
Chorion is the trophoblast and extraemryonic mesoderm
Structure of an antibody
Y or T shape made up of 4 amino acid chains linked together by disulfide bonds. 2 of the 4 chains are identical and contain about 400 amino acids each (heavy chains). The other two (light chains) are also identical but about 1/2 as long as heavy chains.
Describe the path of the nerves to the psoas major muscle?
usually pass directly into the psoas major muscle belly, without uniting, to supply motor innervation to the muscle.  These branches don not exit the pelvis.
On One Occassion Tina Took Anna For Very Good Veggies And Hummus
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Business Makes Money
Q The teres minor is the sup border and the teres major is the inf border of the quad space. What are the lat/med borders?***
A Lat border = upper shaft of the humerus/lat head of the triceps m., and med border = long head of the triceps m.
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