Microbio 6 Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Taxonomic Hierarchy
DomainKingdomePhylumClassOrderFamilyGenus Species
Reduced inorganic molecules
strict isolation, DTaP
filamentous temperature sensitive septation
Define DIC
=disseminated intravascular coagulation
-activation of coag sequence: thrombi throughout microcirculation
-consumption of plts and coag factors to subhemostatic levels
-activation of fibrinolysis
-tissue hypoxia: microinfarcts
-hemorrhage from trauma due to consumption of clotting factors and fibrinolysis destroying clots
-can be seen in septic shock
Whooping Cough
(causative agent)
bordetella pertussis
UV light
induces thymine dimers
Use CO2 as sole carbon
NAMEsymptoms include local inflammation, fever, usallytonsillitis, and lymph node enlargement in the neck
strep throat
What are exotoxins?
secretes toxic proteins
Define Leptospirosis
-infection caused by Leptospira
-incubation 2 days-4 weeks
-variable presentation and can be asymptomatic
-Biphasic disease
1. Headache, muscle aches, vomiting, diarrhea, then recovery
2. (if it occurs) kidney or liver failure, meningitis
-dx by serology
-self-limited (3 weeks or longer) disease; NO antiobiotics needed
chemically altered phenol, injure lipid containing plasma membrane causing leakageused for disinfecting pus, saliva, feces
What drugs block DNA topoisomerases?
An epitope is...
an antigenic determinant.
sites of protein synthesis
thousands per cell
mae of ribosomal RNA and protein
30s subunit and 50s subunit forms 70s
eukaryotic ribosomes are different
Central dogma of molecular biology
other proteins binding including IciA, IHF, FIS, and ROB
How is SARS spread?
person to person
NAMEis caused by Streptococcus Pneumonia
Pneymoccoaial Pneumonia
the characteristic lesion caused by staph is . . .
Define conidia
=all asexual reproductive fungal spores
-spores are how molds reproduce
-lightweight and can be airborne
-These are the infectious elements that may be inhaled or implanted into the skin of pts
-can be subclassified
1. Sporangiospores
2. arthroconidia
3. macroconidia
True or false: Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in culture
endosymbiotic theory
Theory proposing that eukaryotes formed from the phagocytosis of small aerobic prokaryotes by larger anaerobic prokaryotes.
Chicknpox -->varicella
fever, general malaise, itching, eruptions (called "pocks") first on trunk, then rest of body, lesions crust as they heal
related form of infectious agent, small rings of naked RNA w/o capsids and only infect plants
Appropriate pH
Acidophiles-grow in acidic conditions (between 0-6 pH)
Neutrophiles-grow in neutral conditions (7) most are this
Alkalinophiles-grow in basic conditions (between 8-14)
positive or negative. positive acts like mRNA in cell by binding to ribosome. negative carry their own RNA polymerase for transcription of the mRNA
Dry heat
-incineration (600-1200 C, dehydrates cells)
-dry oven (150-180 C, coagulates proteins)
C 40 min
Initiation to Termination (of replication)
what disease does borrelia bugdorferi cause?
lyme disease
selective toxicity
Kills microbial cells without damaging host cells
Tubercylosis is the leading killer (1) and of (2) patients
(1)worldwide (2)HIV
Define: Obligate anaerobesfacultative bacteriamicroaerophilic obligate aerobescapnophilic
obligate anaerobes--no oxygen. facultative bacteria can use o2 or not, either way they'll livemicroaerophilic--needs low o2obligate aerobe must have o2 capnophilic--requires increased CO2
What bacteria have quinolone resistance plasmids? Why do we care?
1. Enterobacteriaceae
2. Pseudomonas
-dangerous b/c
1. potential to develop high resistance
2. can spread resistance of other types of bacteria
Define Coxiella brunetti
=gram negative obligate intracellular pathogen
-has hearty "spore-like" body that resists dying
-usu acquired by inhalation
-carriers =sheep and cattle
-can live and replicate w/in phagolysosome
-causes Q fever
-causes both acute and chronic infections
phospholipid bilayer
Bippolar structure of a cytoplasmic membrane.
new DNA obtained via conjugation tube (sex pilus), from another cell, often involves plasmids
What are flouroquinolones good for?
G-sPseudomonas (CF)Enterobacteriaceae (not anaerobes) E. Coli, Salmonella, Shigella, CampylobacterResistant UTIsG- intracellulars
Upper respiratory infections
pharyngitis (sore throat), laryngitis, tonsillitis, sinusitis, otitis media (mid. ear infection)
Major basic protein (MBP) that can perforate worms. The macrophages can then engulf parasitic fragments.
Requirements for Growth
1. appropriate temperature
2. oxygen concentration
3. appropriate pH
4. osmotic pressure
DNA molecule in living things that contain information of heredity
normal genes that when under control of a virus act as oncogenes causing uncontrolled cell division.
a substance that acts to induce transcription of a gene
arboviruses are?
a group of viruses that are transmitted by arthropod vectors 
Antibiotics that affect the cell wall:
Penicillins, Cephalosporins, beta-lactam antibiotics
NAMEis changes in the enveolpe and minor variations in the antigenic make up
Antigenic drift
Do bacterium grow synchonously?
No asynchronous. Each bacteria species has its own natural range of growth rates, which can be further influenced by availability of nutrients and oxygen, temperature, and other environmental factors.
pathology of coxiella burnetti
respiratory (pneumonia) with high fever, which can last a LONG TIME; hepatomagaly and splenomegaly are common
How are fungi classified?
2 different morphological groups
1. Molds
2. Yeast
Can be further classified as dimorphic or monomorphic
How does Rickettsia cause disease?
-get disseminated in bloodstream
-parasitize endothelial cells -> damaged endothelium -> vasculitis, obstruction, capillary leaks, thrombosis
-> rash, organ damage and potentially shock
Describe the group characteristics of 4th generation penicillins
=piperacillin, ticarcillin, mezlocillin, carbenicillin
1. Broad spectrum of activity against gram negative bacteria (esp Pseudomonas)
2. can still be inactivated by some beta lactamases
3. ureidopenicillins can be used against enterococci a many gram + but NOT S. aureus
4. most IV drugs except indanyl carbenicillin (orally)
Facultative Gram - rods, enterics
Escherichia, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Vibrio, Enterobacter, Yersiniasoil, plants, animals- respiratory, coliforms
Two bugs with superantigen toxins
S. Aureus, S. pyogenes
Immediate Type I hypersensitivity: First Exposure
IgE primarily.

Allergen is phagocytized by macrophage.
Mac presents to T-helper cell which activates B cells.
B cells divide and form plasma cells that make IgE.
Fc region of IgE binds to mast cells (basophil) in tissues.
Types of pathways
Linear-where one starting compound is converted into an intermediate and so on and so forth.
Branched-where one intermediate is split into two
Cyclical-starting compound reacts with an intermediate to continue on the cyclical path
sequence of DNA to which the repressor protein will bind.
Types of RNA and uses
mRNA-used to make proteins
rRNA-ribosomal synthesis
tRNA-nrings the correct AA to add to the growing peptide chain to make the correct protein.
Building Blocks of Monomers
Amino acids, lipids, sugars, and nucleotides.
Which classes of drugs affect the bacterial cell wall?
penicillins and cephalosporins
Are capsules necessary for viability?How can capsules be lost?
nocan be lost by mutation
Name a bacteria that uses a capsule as a virulence factor.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Contrast acute vs subacute endocaridits
-rampant infection caused by organisms of high virulence
-rapid destruction of heart valves
-may be lethal
-slow infection due to organisms of low virulence
Name 2 mechanisms of aminoglycoside acquired resistance
1. Chromosomal mutation
-Streptomycin ONLY
2. Plasmid encoding inactivating enzymes
-ALL aminoglycosides
-strategy to overcome is design new aminoglycoside w/fewer sites that could be targeted by inactivating enzymes
Don't forget about intrinsic resistance (no ETC or intracellular pathogen)
What are the SEs of cephalos?
Increased nephroxicity of aminoglycosidesCefamandole- blocks acetyladehyde breakdown with alcohol
peripheral membrane protein
aka extrinsic - situated entirely on the surfaces of the membrane and are ionically bonded to integral proteins or polar group of a lipid
Two major components of specific immune response
humoral response
cell mediated response
stage 2/4 of phagocytosis
attachment- phagocyte attaches to an object
Recombiant DNA Technology
Insertion or modification of genes to produce desired proteins from "foreign" sources
Acute lyme disease can be characterized by?
1. fever
2. migratory bulls-ey rash
3. muscular joint pain
4. often meningeal irritation
What are the functions of phagocytes?
Survey tissues for microbesremove damaged tissueextract antigens from foreign material
Where is Histoplasmosis the most widespread?
Ohio an the Missisipi valley
How frequent are bacterial mutations?
Mutations occur spontaneously at a frequency of about one in a million per gene, per generation.
What makes up peptidoglycan (murein)?
alternating units of AMINO SUGARS-- N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM).
Define beta lactamases
=enzymes produced by the bacteria as a resistance mechanism to beta lactam antibiotics
-hydrolyze ring of beta lactam -> inactive the antibitocs -> drug resistance
-found at site of cell wall synthesis
1. Gram += periphery of cell
2. Gram -= periplasmic space
Define dimorphic fungi
=fungi that grow as yeast in infected tissue and mold when in culture media
-many are primary pathogenic fungi
1. Coccidiodes immitis
2. Histoplasma capsulatum
3. Sporothrix schenckii
What is the role of aztreonam?
magic bullet for G- aerobesmonobactam.Only G-usually used with vancomycin or clindamycinno cross allergenicity to penicillin
Capsulated organisms work by ____
Evade phagocytes. "Some Nasties Have Kapsules" Streptococcal pneumoniae, Neisseria, Hemophilus, Klebisella
Toll-Like Receptors- What are they, where are they made?
integral membrane proteins, detect abnormal characteristics of foreign invaders, made by phagocytic cells
enveloped viruses (for comparison to non-enveloped)
-Has envelope
-Can enter by endocytosis (vesicle degradation or with membrane fusion) or membrane fusion (without endocytosis)
-Uncoat with the help of enzymes to degrade vesicle or envelope fusion to vesicle
-Released by budding only (need envelope)
what are some symptoms of endemic typhus?
1. headache
2. muscle aches
3. fever
4. maculopapular rash forms
What is the clonal selection theory and what does it result in?
It is preprogrammed lymphocyte specificity, existing in the genetic makeup before an antigen has ever entered the system Each genetically different type of lymphocyte expresses a single specificity - Undifferentiated lymphocytes undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate hundreds of millions of different cell types.
With whom are fungal disesaes in the lower repiratory system a problem for?
those that are immunosuppresed
What is found on the cell surface? What is it made of and what does it do?
Cell-surface proteins and extracellular secreted proteins are glycosylated (called glycoproteins). Aids in identification
rocky mountain spotted fever- transmitted by?
dermacentor ticks (dog or wood ticks) --> also maintained in ticks by transovarial transmission
True or false: most antibiotics target structures shared by offending organism and host
-usu target structures unique to prokaryotes
What are the SEs of Chloramphenicol?
Anemia, aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome (no UDP-glucouronyldase)
S. aureus also produces enterotoxins that cause ___ and ____.
Food poisoning and exfoliatin (scalded skin syndrome)
Why are scientists studying ways to stimulate TLRs and also ways to inhibit TLRs?
Stimulating TLRs- enhance immune response to pathogens and immunizations
inhibiting- provide ways to counter inflammatory disorders and some hyperimmune responses
What are the 3 categories of adverse host-drug reactions?
Direct toxicity to organsallergic responseschanges to the normal flora/superinfection
What are the symptoms for viral pneumonia caused by RSV? (2)
(1)coughing and wheezing lasing more than a week (2)transmission ocurs before symtopms devolop
What is the Entner-Doudoroff pathway?
thrid way to get from glucose to pyruvate in some bacteria. ONLY YIELDS 1 ATP PER GLUCOSE
Name the 2 requirements for infective endocarditis
1. Lesion on vascular endothelium susceptible to infection
2. Circulating organisms
C. diptheriae produces an ___ type of exotoxin. It works by ___. It produces ____.
C. diptheriae produces an ADP-ribosylating A-B toxin. It works by inactivating (EF-2). It causes pharyngitis and "pseudomembrane" in throat.
what are some negative side effects of interferons (typically associated w/ viral infections)?
malaise, muscle aches, chills, headache, and fever
What is clavulanic acid? What drug is it found in?
Chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes – augmentin
What does the Ap stand for in the DTaP vaccine?
aP stands for whooping cough
Are bacterial and eukaryotic ribsomes the same? What uses this to its advantage?
No, they're not the same so some antibiotics expliot this.
_______ can be used to extend the half life of penicillins
-extends half life b/c it blocks tubular secretion
-esp good for 1st gen PCNs because very SHORT t1/2
What is the mechanism of action of the fluoroquinolones?
inhibit the DNA gyrase (topo II)
What are the three types of Granulocytes (type of leukocyte)?
basophils- stain blue w/ dye methlene blue
Eosinophils- stain red/orange w/ acidic dye eosin
Neutrophils- stain lilac w/ mic of acid/basic dye- phagocytize pathogens, capable of diapedesis (movement through endothelial walls) as is eosinophil
What does the acronym STORCH stand for?
These are diseases that can infect the fetus from the mother: syphilis, Toxoplasmosis, Others (Hep B, HIV, chlamydia), Rubella. Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex virus
What does an intertion sequence look like? What do they encode for?
Has inverted repeats on each end (2 total). Encode for transposase.
V. cholerae produces an ___ type of exotoxin. It works by ____. Produces ____.
ADP-ribosylating AB toxin. It works by ADP ribosylating a G protein that stimulates adenylyl cyclase; this increases the Cl into the gut and decreases Na absorption. H20 moves into the gut and causes volumninous rice water diarrhea.
Why is the Otitis media effect most often childern?
bc the eustachian tubes are small and easily blocked
Why does PCN not work against gram negative infections?
-b/c it can't get across the outer membrane/porins to get to the site of cell wall synthesis
-but other PCN derivatives can do this
How does Rickettsia invade endothelial cells?
1. Adhere as a slime layer to XOL R on endothelial cells
2. Escape from phagolysosome via phospholipase
3. Can get around the cell on actin (like Shigella) -> get into neighboring cells
4. Or multiply and lyse the cell
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