Microbiology Test 5 Flashcards

Terms Definitions
synthesisendergonicendothermic(A+B+energy = A-B)
ATP
Coccidioidomycosis
Coccidioides immitis
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
PID w/PerihepatitisAscites 16-8
Papules are...?
Raised lesions
Bacteriology
study of bacteria
Gram positivecatalase positivecoagulase positive methicillin sensitive (13mm zone)
S. aureus
Cestodes
Tapeworm
Cysticercus is encysted larve of beef tapeworm
Phenotype
Expression of the genes
Ultra sound cleaning
cold boiling
What are Sulfur-oxidizing bacteria?
Thiobacillus
tx Chagas disease
antiparasitic drugs limited
pacemakers
gamma interferon
cardiac transplantation (reactivation of acute disease occurs because of post op immunosuppression)
 
 
Prokaryote
 
Small cells, lacking special structures such as nucleus and organelles. All prokaryotic cells are microorganisms.
arboviral encephalitis
arthropod-borne pathogen (mosquito vector) encephalitis commonhosts primarily humans, birds, horses, small mammalschills, fever, headache, severe (coma, death)example: St. Louis Encephalitis
ribosomes
small RNA/protein particles required for protein synthesis
Can fungi carry out photosynthesis?
No
effective antiseptic when solubilized in 70% ethyl alcoholMOA: inactivates proteins and organic moleculesuse: human skin antiseptic, treatment for cuts
Iodophors
Viruses
ultramicroscopic infectious agent that replicates itself only within cells of living hosts; many are pathogenic
van Leeuwenhoek
first to observe bacteria
Superoxide dimutase
Converts O2- to H2O2
stratum
layer of neurons within the CNS
 from livestock
(zoonotic dz)
How is Leptospirosis contracted?
Is lyme's disease bacterial or viral?
bacterial
Rickettsia rickettsii
causes rocky mountain spotted fevergram negative, intracellular aerobic bacillusvector: hard (dog) ticktransovarian transmissionmainly in SE USintracellular in the host (endothelium) AND the vector (RBCs), very lethalpathogen damages the permeability of endothelium of blood capillaries by replicating in them; abrupt onset, fever, headache, chills, macular rash, loss of plasma, shock, often fatal if misdiagnosed
Contagious
Means the disease is easily spread
Tetanospasmin
the neurotoxin produced by the vegetative spore of Clostridium tetani in anaerobic conditions, causing tetanus. It is sometimes called spasmogenic toxin, tetanus toxin or abbreviated to TeTx or TeNT.
How many Ribosomes do Bacteria have?
70S
Immunoglobins with first and second exposure to antigens.
IGM-firstIGG-second
klebsiella pneumoniae
normal inhabitant of respiratory tract, has large capsule, cause of nosocomial pneumonia, meningitis, bactermia, wound infections, and UTI
acquired resistance
resistance that develops through mutation or acquistion of new genes
Decomposers:
slime molds, water molds (protista), yeasts, molds (fungi)
inactivated
killed virus; treated so antigencity is still present (polio vaccine)
staph treatment
penicillin --> methicillin --> vancomycin --> synercid
C. trachomatis
Chlamydia (no gram stains) Non-gonococcal urethritis, trachoma, conjunctivitis, and PID
Neuropil:
: Dense network of dendrites, axons, and glial cell processes between neurons
Tularemia clinical symptoms
ulceroglandular (representing 75% of all forms)
pneumonic
blood clots
Resistance Factors
Often confer antibiotic resistance on the bacteria that contain them and code for enzymes capable of destroying or modifying antibiotics
Mycobacterium leprae
Hansen's Disease (Leprosy)
Acid-Fast Rod
 
Hansen's Disease (leprosy) -> spread through secretions of infected clients -> skin and nerve inf -> causes:
 
tuberculod (neural) form - skin loses pigmentation & sensation
lepromatous (Progressive) form - large nodules develop with gradual loss of bone tissue
Name three species with an atypical cell wall/
Mycoplasma-mycobacteria-archea
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

Pneumocystis jirovecii (previously P. carinii) was rare before AIDS epidemic and alerted health officials of a new pathogen when infections began rising suddenly
Passive Immunity
when antibodies are transferred from one person to another. Only lasts as long as the antibodies are present- in most cases, a few weeks.
Dapsone
The antimicrobial drug of choice for the treatment of leprosy
Describe Bordetella pertussis.
-gram negative coccobacilli or pleomorphic rods
-strict aerobe
-fastidious organism
-spreads by droplets
-causes whooping cough
-can be cultured on Bordet-Gengou Agar (has potatoe in it)
ammonia and nitrate are examples of ____ sources which are in inorganic form
nitrogen
during transcription ____ synthesizes ________that is complementary to the DNA template strand
RNA Polymerase; mRNA
viruses cause diseases classified as:
acute or persistent
Describe Phenolics
Act by disrupting membranes and denaturing proteins
Cresols - active ingredient in Lysol
Halogenated phenols - work even in presence of organic contaminating matter
Triclosan-broad spectrum antibacterial/antifungal agent. Blocks lipid synthesis
Hydrophillic
having a strong affinity for water; tending to dissolve in, mix with, or be wetted by water.
Ignaz Semmelwise
hand washing to prevent transmission of puerperal fever for OB patient
Rickettsia typhi
-Causes endemic typhus-vector is rat flea-Not as severe as epidemic typhus-Treat with tetracycline and chloramphenicol
What is The use of microorganisms, cells or cell components to make a product?
Biotechnology
Hepatitis C
Flavivirus(RNA, enveloped). Can be chronic.
Is there a vaccine for botulism?
No vaccine available
Name 3 mobile genetic elements that are relevant for the mobility of virulence factors.
TransposonsPlasmidsBacteriophagesSlide 2
Viral Culture
viruses can only be cultured inside living cells.
Viruses are cultured by obtaining an enriched viral preparation using filtration of actively growing host cells.
A lawn of host cells are prepared on a petri dish; enriched virus is added.
Plaques form around VFU (virus forming units). The bacteria around the plaque are subcultured and should actively produce virus.
Does one generally need to tape shut plates for bacteria?
no
the measure of the relatedness of two or more species
phylogeny
sexual reproduction
diploid spores formed by meiosis and halpoid gamete fusion
In regards to occurrance of disease, what is a pandemic disease?
worldwide epidemic
What decade did Paul Ehrlich make the development of chemotherapy using the first synthetic drug (salvarsan)?
1910
What organelle can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Ribosomes
What is H antigen?
flagella-- Klebsiella and Shigella lack H antigen
what are some characteristics for clostridium perfringens?
anaerobic
gram positive rods
spore-forming (endospore)
MOA of nalidixic acid
inhibits DNA gyrase --> death
FUSION DNA-
1. Attachment –plasma membrane of host cell.
2. Endocytosis- Vesicle attachment of spikes.
3. Penetration- vesicle.
4. Uncoating-
food poisoning
staph aureus (heat stable); can be other, nonbacterial toxins
What test Detects antibodies against relatively large cellular antigens such as those on blood cells, bacteria, and fungi?
Direct agglutination tests
Which region of the operon controls transcription and it's operator acts as an "on/off" switch?
control region
Erysipelas and cellulitis
(S. pyogenes) These are skin infections with inflammation and sometimes with a bright red, advancing erythema. Usually tender and warm to the touch. Erysipelas as a well-defined border with uninfected skin, but cellulitis does not. Cellulitis is one of
disadv. to bednets
re treatment of bednest (every 6-12 mnths)
long lasting ITN's have now been developed

uptake/use
cost
insecticide resistance
Name an important cause of superficial cellulitis.
Streptococcus spp
CC 3-4
T. cruzi
What is the causative agent of Chagas disease?
Arbovirus (arthropod borne virus)
Encephalitis
Encephalitis - Mosquito bite -> ciremia -> Flu-Like Symptoms -> Permanent Neurological Dmg/death
ischemiagangrene
if a wound causes the blood supply to be interrupted, a condition called ( ) occurs and the wound becomes anaerobic.ischemia leads to death of a tissue, also known as necrosis; this can lead to ( ).
true
True or False - E.Coli K12 has been completely sequenced
Describe selective permeability
depends on size and charge of molecule trying to pass through. small, uncharged, or polar molecules can readily pass through membrane
What is an Antibody
protien produced by B-cell that attacks a specific antigen.
What did patients who drank raw liver cocktails in Mexico get?
Campylobacter fetus
what is the normal habitat of haemophilus influenzae?
upper respiratory tract
q. more people died of what disease than died in both world wars combined?
a. Influenza
the use of microbes to produce food and chemicals
genetic engineering
What do echinocandins do?
Inhibit Cell Wall Synthesis in fungi
Process of Phagocytosis
Phagocyte will engulf the foreign body and form a phagosome inside itself. It merges with one or more lysozymes that contain disgestive enzymes. Usuable molecules and expel the wastes.
Which type of capsid structure requires that the virus have an envelope?
animal viruses with Helical symmetrical structure 11-4
Give 4 examples of latent infections that may reactivate when a host becomes immunocompromised.
Herpes simplex virus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Toxoplasma gondii
Varicella zoster virus
31-6
Minimum growth temperature
Is the lowest temperature at which the species will grow
know the sclera, cornea, iris, lens, retina, and conjunctiva.
anatomy of the eye
How many cells is the body made up of?
10 trillion
Name 3 gram positive anaerobes that can cause disease.
1. Peptostreptococci
2. Actinomyces israelii
3. Clostridium species
What is osmotic pressure?
The pressure needed to stop the movement of water across a membrane.
What is Lipid A?
a part of lipopolysaccharide (found on Gram- bacteria) consisting of a Lipid A moiety bound to a long oligosaccharide chain by a core. The oligosaccharide chain helps to exclude hydrophobic compounds, and the lipid A moiety is responsible for endotoxic manifestations
2. Copy number =
Average number of a particular plasmid per cell
- Please refer to Figure 1 (p. 245)
antagonism occurs when
effect of 2 drugs together less than the effecto of either alone
What is epidemiology?
The study of when and where diseases occur adn how they are transmitted in populations
Which medications are used for the treatment of TB? Is there a vaccine?
Rifater (isoniazid (INH), rifampin, pyrazinamide) is considered the best combination to cure the disease and prevent further resistance. Yes, but not completely effective
What are the virulence factors I associated with H. influenza?
Polsaccharid capsules (Resistant to phagocytosis, complement; promotes invasion and bacteremic disease). PRP (polyribose ribosyl phosphate) are classified as type b. Hib is most common capsular strain. 
Confused? 20-10
 
small white colonies, medium stays pink
Describe the colony morphology of Staphylococcus epidermidis on MSA:
In general, for DNA viruses:
Most DNA viruses (with exception of smallpox) replicate in the nucleus and use host enzymes to replicate viral DNA.
What does the "vegetative state" of enospores refer to?
the endospre is metabolically active.
What are the 6 Gateways to infection
Skin, Gastrointestinal tract, fecal bacteria (exit), respiratory, Urogential, Pregnancy, Nonsocomial (dr visits)
What is the murein layer?
a rigid cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
The effect of mutations on proteins depends on:
type of mutation
point of mutation
How does the alternative pathway differ from the classical pathway?
Alternative pathway does not involve antibodies
Why is the incidence of pertussis increasing?
Decreased number of people getting immunized
Give an example of pathogen that invades through the epithelium and then stops in the skin.
Human papillomavirus 1, 2, and 423-2
What do cells use nitrogen for?
N is needed to synthesize nucleotides, proteins, carbohydrates, some lipids, and cofactors.
Describe virulent and avirulent viruses and give an example of each.
Small pox is a virulent disease which is serious and can be lethal. Cow pox is the avirulent disease which a is very mild form.
How do enveloped viruses penetrate the cell?
Enveloped viruses can (1) enter after fusion of the envelope with the plasma membrane or (2) excape from the vesicle after endocytosis. Naked viruses may be taken up by endocytosis and then insert their nucleic acid into the cytoplasm through the vesicle membrane.
when animal viruses interact with their host and attachment occurs, what does that mean
fusion of viral envelope and host membrane
How do natural killer cells kill? What kind of cells are they?
Binds to target
releases vesicles containing toxic substances
Creates a channel by perforin and cell cytolysises or invokes apoptosis by using granzymes

T cells and B cells (Lymphocytes)
Of all the Plasmodiums, what is their RBC preference
P. flaciparum- young RBC's
P. vivax- reticulocytes
P. ovale- reticulocytes
P. malariae- old RBC's
Some hospital workers may be carriers. They are therefore a potential health risk to patients.
Of what significance is S. aureus being normal flora for some individuals to hospital staff & their patients?
What does the atomic charge being balance and neutral imply?
number of protons equals the number of electrons
What are some of the good host defenses against P. aeruginosa?
normal body surfaces, intact normal flora, complement-mediated lysis, neutrophils
What is the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins? (4)
Exo is gram positive; endo is gram negative
Exo is from metabolism; endo is part of LPS layer
Toxicity-Exo is high risk; endo is low risk
Fever-Exo doesnt; endo does
Describe the interaction of the glycoprotein hemagglutinin (HA) with the host epithelial cells.
HA is cleaved by proteses on the host cell into HA1 and HA2 moieties. HA2 is important for viral entry and fusion with host cells.
What is the Bergeys manual and how was it started
Created in 1925 by journal of bacteriology David Bergey died left money to fund journal. currently in 9th edition
What shape must the vector be? Why?
Circular
To protect the DNA of the vector from destruction by the recipient of the vector
Will a cell burst in a hypotonic solution? Why or why not?
It would swell but not burst (Osmotic Lysis)
What are the steps of polymerase chain reaction?
Each strand of target DNA serves as a template; four nucleotides, primers and an enzyme are added
Primers hybridize to the fragments that are wanted
Polymerase synthesizes new complementary strands
DNA is heated to convert all the new single strands which serve as a template for more DNA
IgD
Monomer-mostly bound on B Cells-Fuction-unknown but appears to signal lg production.
chronic infection
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
b. persistent
what are fungal diseases called?
mycoses
IgM
Petamer, J chain holds together. 10%of lg in blood. Large retained in vasulature. Activity: aggulutinin & activator of CCP-First lg made by B cell
non-motile spores called ascus cells
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
b. ascomycota
cestodes
vitamin B12 deficiency, macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia (pernicious anemia) neurological symptoms including numbness, loss of vibration sense, weakness and an unsteady gate.
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echino
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
virus is localized
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
What are superantigens?
Superantigens are bacterial proteins that stimulate the immune system much more extensively than do normal antigens.
Does this process also occur with other genes?
???
what stage of replication:
Phage DNA in the host cell is transcribed into mRNA which is then translated into protein
a. attachment
b. penetration
c. transcription
d. replication of phage DNA and synthesis of protein
e. assembly
f. release
c. transcription
arthropods act as vectors for some diseases what arthropod serves as a vector for fleas?
Plague
what found in mold absorbs nutrients and releases enzymes which break down material into readily absorbs smaller organic compounds
hyphae
what neurodegenerative disease are prions associated with?
transmissible spongiform encephalophaties
most primitive phylum of fungi
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
e. chytridiomycota
may lead to lasting immunity
a. acute
b. persistent
c. both
d. neither
a. acute
interactions of animal viruses with their host:
in all viruses nucleic acid separates from its protein prior to the start of replication
a. attachment
b. entry
c. targeting to the site of viral replication
d. uncoating
e. replication of nucleic acid and p
d. uncoating
cestodes
liver cysts, upper right quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, cyst rupture, anaphylaxis and death
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
name some types of round worms
enterobius vemicularis(pinworm)
trichinella spiralis
necator americanus & ancylostoma duodenale (hookworms)
stongyloides stercoralis(thread worm)
ascaris lumbricoides
wuchereria bancrofti
trichuris trichuris (whipworm)
Worldwide 1 billion people affected Most common infection from poor sanitation, fecal contamination is the epidemiology of what Roundworm?
Ascaris lumbricoides
fetal infection which targets erythrocyte precursors and can cause animia and congestive heart failure
a. rubella
b. cytomegalovirus
c. HIV
d. HSV
e. parvovirus B19
e. parvovirus B19
cestodes
Hydatid disease and Dog tapeworm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
what double stranded DNA viruses are enveloped and cause hepatitis B virus?
hepadnaviridae
viruses which cause cancer are?
epstein-Barr virus (EBR)
human papillomavirus (HPV)
hepatitis B & C
kaposi's sarcoma
human T-cell lymphocytic virus-1 (HTLV-1)
what does helminthology mean?
the science (study) of worms
respiratory tract or skin and subcutaneous tissues
a. superficial mycoses
b. intermediate mycoses
c. systemic mycoses
d. none of the above
b. intermediate mycoses
tissues deep within the body
a. superficial mycoses
b. intermediate mycoses
c. systemic mycoses
d. none of the above
c. systemic mycoses
capsid, nucleic acid, and an envelope
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
a. envelope viruses
found in Africa, Saudi Arabia, Madagascar, Brazil, Venezuela, West Indies and Puerto Rico
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
c. schistoma mansoni
from ingesting dog feces
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus granulosus
which trematodes cause fever, enlarged tender liver, eosinophilia, pain in epigastric or right upper quadrant, anorexia, jaundice, vomiting, anemia, and prostration?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepa
d. Fasciola hepatica
from eating undercooked beef
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
found in Africa, India, Southeast Asia, China, Mexico, Latin America but infrequent in the US
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
what morphological form of fungi has hypha, or hyphae(lots of hypha)
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
b. molds
virulent phage or lytic phage
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
a. productive infection
What are T-independent antigens?
A T-independednt antigen is an antigen that triggers a B cell into immunoglobulin production without T cell cooperation.
T or F genome exchange in each segment carries different genetic information
True
what is the epidemiology of the roundworm Trichuris trichuris (whipworm)?
Worldwide
distribution- poor sanitation and human feces as fertilizer

(no animal reservoir)
MACA: cestodes
nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting, obstruction of bile duct, pancreatic duct or appendix
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
most prevalent in cool lake regions where raw or pickled fish is popular and where dumping raw sewage into fresh water
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
MACA: what trematodes(flukes) have signs/symptoms of malnutrition, weakness, liver, damage, ascites, eosinophilia and abdominal pain?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
what type of fungi obtains nutrients from living and non-living organic sources?
a. saprophytes
b. parasites
c. facultative parasites
d. none of the above
c. facultative parasites
which trematode is located in the liver?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
MACA: found in the liver from ingesting vegetation with larval stages
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. schistosoma japonicum
c. schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
d. Fasciola hepatica
any bacterial gene can be transferred
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
a. generalized transduction

phage that carry out this process are called generalized transducing phages
carried out by temperate phage
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
c. both

specialized- only temperate
generalized- temperate and virulent
resistant and survive in the outside world
a. envelope viruses
b. naked viruses
c. both
d. neither
b. naked viruses
what are some characteristics of adenoviridae
adenovirus (naked)
transmitted through respiratory, close contact, and fecal-oral
5-7 days incubation
diseases - respiratory incection, pharngoconjuncival fever, conjuctivitis, gastritis
FACTS
human adenovirus (a-f) 3rd common cause of cold year round
fever, watery eyes, pharyngitis and pneumonia
bacterial gene attached to the phage DNA replicate as the phase DNA replicate
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
which forms resistant spherical spores which are genetically identical to the parent form?
a. zygomycota
b. ascomycota
c. basidiomycota
d. deuteromycota
e. chytridiomycota
a. zygomycota

(rhizopus)
also found on/in soil, decaying fruit&vegis, animal feces and old bread
what morphological form of fungi is a filamentous?
a. yeast
b. molds
c. both (dimorphic)
d. neither
b. molds
carried out by temperate phage only
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
b. specialized transduction
Can you define antigen, antigenic determinate, epitope, and hapten?
Antigen-elicits and recognized by immune responseAntigenic determinate or Epitope-like a receptor the site on the surface of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself immune response recognition siteHapten-Cannot elicit immune response by itself. Requires a carrier to elicit immune response (the epitope off of the antibody)
What are the effects of histamine, SRS-A, serotonin, and ECF-A?
vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth m. contractions, mucous secretion.
Where does the antigen-antibody complex form in Type III (Immune Complex Reaction) Hypersensitivities? and how does it cause damage?
Complex absorbs or pecipitates on cell surface. This then activates complex which causes inflamation which can cause damage to blood vessels, skin, etc.In type 3 hypersensitivity, soluble immune complexes (aggregations of antigens and IgG and IgM antibodies) form in the blood and are deposited in various tissues (typically the skin, kidney and joints) where they may trigger an immune response according to the classical pathway of complement activation (see above). The reaction takes hours to days to develop.
what phase in the replication cycle is the virus in replication form?
inside the cell
how many DNA virus families are there?
7 DNA


14 RNA
what disease/s does the genus HHV-5 produce?
(cytomegalovirus)- (close contact, body fluids, transplacental)

mononucleosis, hepatits, pnemonitis
TORCH
what disease/s does the genus HHV-6 produce?
(Roseola virus)- (respiatory) infantile exanthem subitum (6th disease)
25 meter long tape worm
a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
a. Taenia saginata

beef tapeworm
DNA from donor cell integrate into the recipient cell DNA by homologous recombination
a. generalized transduction
b. specialized transduction
c. both
d. neither
a. generalized transduction
what are some characteristics of viroids?
circular single stranded RNA molecule
no protein coat
1/10 the size of the smallest infectious viral RNA known
plant pathogens
toxin production by corynebacterium diphtheriae is mediated by a gene carried by a phage.
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
d. lysogenic

only those strain that have been converted by lysogeny are pathogenic
the thread worm causes what disease and where in humans?
disease- Stronglyoidiasis
location in humans- small intestines (adult) general tissue (larvae)
what is the epidemiology of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale? (hookworms)
worldwide
fecal contaminated soil leads to human disease
estimated 900million individuals
700k in the USA
what are some symptoms from strongyloides stercoralis spread by skin penetrating infective larvae (autoinfection)?
pruritis, diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea, malaise, weight loss, cough, eosinophilia, severe cases diarrhea and bronchopneumonia
what disease/s does the genus HHV-2 produce?
(herpes simplex)- close contact(sexually transmitted)
genital herpes
neonatal herpes TORCH
what roundworm which is found in the small intestines and spread to humans by fecal pollution of soil with eggs, skin penetration by infective larvae?
Necator americanus
Acylostoma duodenale
(hookworms)
what does the acronym TORCHES stand for in reference to characteristics of viruses?
T- toxoplamosis
O-
R- rubella
C- cytomegalovirus
H- herpes/HIV
E-
S- syphylis
How does the response to T-independent antigens differ from that to T-dependent antigens?
T-indepentant: does not need T-Cell. Epitope polymers (LPS)can cross-link IgM receptors on B-cell surface. Stimulates limited B-cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells NOT MEMORY CELLS.
What is the humoral mediator of Type II (cytotoxic)Hypersensitivities?
IgG or IgM mediated
What are the four routes of acquisition of immunity? And give an example of each.
Activethat individuals immune system confers immunity.(ex. get a disease)Passive-a different individuals immune system confers immunity.(snake bit serum made from horse)Natural-immunity arises from a natural encounter with antigen (chicken pox)Artifical-immunity arises from an artifical encounter with antigen (flu shot).
Know the fuction and derivation of the following cell types: MO, Mast, and basophil
MO-Derived from monocytes they phagocytose and destroy pathogens;some active B & T cells. Mast-Derived from the bone marrow. stimulated to degranulate by direct injury, binding of IgE to receptors, or by activated complement.VIDEO-http://www.maxanim.com/immunology/IgE%20Mediated%20(Type%20I)%20Hypersensitivity/IgE%20Mediated%20(Type%20I)%20Hypersensitivity.htmBasophils-Phagocytic leukocyte w/ granules(histamine, heparin)
What are innate immunity and acquired immunity?
Innate-normal physiological state of host. Nonspecific defensesAquired-immune response
What happens during RNA processing?
During RNA processing all introns and suplerfluous exons are removed and the strand is spliced together (V,J, and C regions are joined.
adenoviridae is a naked or enveloped virus?
naked- resistant to environmental changes
What are the symptoms of HIV infection?
some cases
fever, headache, sore throat, muscle aches, enlarged lymph nodes, and a generalized rash
PGL-persistent glandular lymphadenopathy
-can lasts from acute disease through AIDS
LAS- lymphadenopathy syndrome
-occurs at the end of the asymptomatic period

asymptomatic period follows
-usually lasts years
what is the double stranded DNA virus, Adenoviridae's major modes of tranmissions?
respiratory route
close contact
fecal oral
what symptoms might you develop from ingesting a round worm that was in you rice, beans or grains?
chronic diarrhea, lower abdominal cramps, flatulence and tenesmus (feeling like you have a full bowel after emptying it) from the round worm called Trichuris Trichuris
1.5 humans worldwide, Americans carry live cysts in musculature, and 150 to 300 thousand acquire new infections annually is the epidemiology of what roundworm?
Trichinella spiralis

which cause the disease Trichinosis from eating meat containing larvae
becomes a part of the genome of the host cell
a. productive infection
b. extrude
c. latent infection
d. lysogenic
c. latent infection
multiply inside the host cell and cause lysis phage called?
virulent phage or lytic phage
Know the basic structure of an immunoglobulin (Ig) monomer.
Four polypeptides: -2 heavy chains (H) determine class and antigen binding site-2 light chains (L) determine antigen binding siteConstant, Variable(only in specific), amd hinge region
What happens at the genetic level during B cell development to commit a cell to a particular L chain antigen binding site?
During B cell differentiation, a deletion (variable in length) occurs that joins one V gene segment wih one J segment-Combinatorial joining-when transcription occurs the C region is also transcribed.
what 2 double stranded DNA viruses have the shortest incubation period?
5-7 days adenovirus
5-8 days herpes simplex virus (HHV-1)
what disease does the round worm enterobius vermicularis cause in humans and where?
enterobiasis in human intestine spread by close contact autoinfection

PINWORM
MACA: what 2 termatodes are found in the blood vessels of the intestines?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistoma mansoni
How do CTLs recognize target cells? When they recognize them, what do they do and how do they they do it (include perforins, granzymes, and fas)?
CTLs bind to target cells by recognizing antigen in the Class I MHC. CTLs release TNF, Perforins,Granzymes (all for apoptosis). CTL CD95L bind ro target cell CD95 (fas) which induces the apoptosis.The Fas ligand or FasL is a type II transmembrane protein that belongs to the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family.Aliases include Fas ligand, FasL, apoptosis antigen ligand 1, CD95 ligand. It functions as a homotrimer.FasL trimerizes FasR which spans the membrane of the "target" cell. This trimerization usually leads to apoptosis, or cell death.
What are the two branches of the immune response?What class of cell mediates both of these types of responses
Humoral immune response and cellular immune response. Both are mediated by lymphocytes
Which particular subset of this cell type are responsible for the immunity?
Humoral immune response has B cells and Cellular immune response has T cells (direct effectors, regulators)
How do we generate such a tremendous diversity of antibody specificities?
We generate such a tremendous diversity of antibody specificites by rearrangement of antibody gene segments, somatic mutations, and generation of different codons during antibody gene splicing.
Differentiate between Class I and Class II MHC molecules; How many subunits do they have?
Class I MHC molecules are found on all nucleated cells, it consists of 2 subunits (a and B2), and it binds with antigen in the lumen of the ER and presents it on the membrane-presents a sample of what's inside the cell. Class II MHC is found on all antigen presenting cells (B, M0), consists of 2 subunits (a & B), and it complexes with Ii in the ER, transport to endosome, switches Ii for antigen, and presents atigen on membrane-presents sample of what is outside the cell.
How do the latter three provide for immune tolerance?
Bodies ability to produce antibodies against nonself antigens while not producing antibodies against (tolerating) self-antigens.
present in moldy food such as grains and peanuts
a. allergic reaction
b. fungal toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. alphatoxin
c. aflatoxin

it has been associated with liver cancer
What do we mean by "class switching"?
"Class switch" is a change in the class of antibody that is produced (IgG, IgM, IgE, IgA); this depends on the specific deletion/recombination event that takes place and the resulting C region (determined by local factors).
what symptoms would you find if you had Nector americanus or Acylostoma duodenale in your small intestines?
dermatitis at the site of larval invasion
pulmonary migration of larval: cough, asthma, blood tinge sputum
eosinophila
intestinal symptoms: anorexia, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort
Iron deficiency anemia: weakness, fatigue, physical and mental retardation in children
How is the specificity of the TCR determined?
T cell receptor is a molecule found on the surface of T lymphocytes that is responsible for recognizing antigens bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules. It is a heterodimer consisting of an alpha and beta chain.The variable domain of the TCR α-chain has three hypervariable or complimentarity determining regions (CDRs), while the variable region of the β-chain has four CDRs.Processes for TCR formation are similar to those described for B-cell antigen receptors, otherwise known as immunoglobulins. The TCR alpha chain is generated by VJ recombination while the beta chain is generated by V(D)J recombination (both involve a somewhat random joining of gene segments to generate the complete TCR chain). Similarly, generation of the TCR gamma chain involves VJ recombination while generation of the TCR delta chain occurs by V(D)J recombination.it is the unique combination of the segments at this region, along with palindromic and random nucleotide additions, which accounts for the great diversity in specificity of the T cell receptor for processed antigen
what must do to go from one host cell to another?
viral components must assemble into complete viruses (virions) to go from one host cell to another
What is the role of the CD4 and CD8 molecules on T cells in discriminating between TCR recognition of Class I and II molecules?
CD4 molecules on T cells recognize antigen presented only by the MHC class II molecule, while CD8 molecules on T cells recognize antigen presented only by MHC class I molecules.
T or F most human tumors are caused by double stranded DNA tumor viruses
False
FEW human tumors are caused by double stranded DNA tumor viruses
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