PCol Exam Flashcards

Terms Definitions
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO

2006 quiz 1 q4
c. NO
T/F: nerve action potential depolarization and repolarization are dependent upon sodium and calcium, respectively

2003 quiz 1/22 q6
Allosteric receptor modulator:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. NO

2006 quiz 1 q2
b. glycine
Which non-barbiturate sedative/hypnotic drug will interact with a tricyclic antidepressant drug to lead to a delirium-like reaction?
a. Meprobamate (Equanil and others)
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
c. Zaleplon (Sonata)
d. Paraldehyde
e. Flumazenil (Rom
b. Ethchlorvynol (Placidyl)
ACh is synthesized in the
T/F: synaptic communication is always from presynaptic to postsynaptic sites (receptor, ion channel, etc)

2003 quiz 1/22 q1
This non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic compound will interact with tricyclic antidepressants to result in a “delirium-like” reaction.
a. Paraldehyde
b. Zaleplon (Sonata)
c. Ethchorvynol (Placidyl)
d. Meprobamate (Equanil and others)
e. Secobarb
c. Ethchorvynol (Placidyl)
The presynaptic enzyme(s) responsible for degradation of norepinephrine is/are:
b. MAO
c. phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
d. a and b

2003 quiz 1/22 q10
b. MAO
T/F: neurons are dedicated meaning that they express receptors for only one transmitter

2003 quiz 1/22 q3
This relatively “older” antiepileptic drug inhibits Na+ channels, is efficacious for tonic-clonic (grand mal) and partial seizures, and undergoes autoinduction during chronic use to an active, epoxide metabolite.
a. Oxcarbazepoine (Trileptal)
b. The N
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
T/F: nicotinic receptors are found only in the peripheral nervous system while muscarinic receptors are located in the peripheral and central nervous system

2003 quiz 1/22 q12
The following are inhibitory neurotransmitters:
a. glutamate
b. glycine
c. aspartate
d. a and b
e. all of the above

2005 exam 1 q7
b. glycine
Of the nonselective beta antagonists, which can be used in glaucoma because there is no anesthetic effect?
This compound labeled for the treatment of anxiety probably acts on serotonin receptors in the brain, rather than GABAa receptors, and it may take two weeks for its efficacy to be established:
a. hydroxyzine (Atarax)
b. diazepam (Valium)
c. buspirone (Bus
c. buspirone
Non-barbiturate drug for the rapid production of a general anesthetic state; intravenous injection; Useful because patients recover and become ambulatory much sooner than with other anesthetics; Oil-based formulation because it is not very water-soluble:
d. propofol
T/F: Marijuana smoke contains more tar and carcinogenic material than cigarette smoke

2007 quiz 5 q6
An intravenous general anesthetic chemical that is used primarily in children or young adults for short procedures such as changing burn dressings, etc.; Probably a non-competitive inhibitor of the NMDA receptor
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (U
e. Ketamine (Ketalar)
The most selective (“least promiscuous”) neuronal monoamine neurotransmitter transporter is the:
a. NE transporter
b. DA transporter
c. 5HT transporter

2006 exam 1 q1
c. 5HT transporter
This general anesthetic, administered by inhalation, may cause a seizure in a person with epilepsy.
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Enflurane (Ethrane)
c. Levetiracetam (Keppra)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Halothane (Fluothane)

2005 exam 1 q13
b. Enflurane (Ethrane)
Muscarinic agonist produce _____ on intact endothelium and ______ on broken endothelium.
vasodilation; vasoconstriction
Vasodilation beucase the muscarinic receptors are on endothelium (production of NO) where as in broken vessels, agonist bind to smooth muscle (Gq effects)so there is vasoconstriction
Alpha agonist cause ____ in the eye.
Select the benzodiazepine compound that is labeled for sleep problems and is metabolized by gradual side chain breakdown to several active metabolites; Some metabolites are more active that the parent compound; The terminal metabolite of the compound is a
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
A comparatively recent volatile liquid general anesthetic with a short induction and recovery:
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal )
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q23
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
Select the volatile, liquid, general anesthetic which is relatively new (1992) and “popular”, but causes significant respiratory tract irritation:
a. Ethyl ether
b. Ketamine (Ketalar)
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Sevoflurane (Ultaine)
e. Desflurane (Supran
e. Desflurane (Suprane)
A non-barbiturate sedative-hypnotic (other than a benzodiazepine) drug that might be used for sedative or hypnotic effects in an elderly patient because it causes little respiratory depression compared to other non-barbiturate drugs.
a. chloral hydrate
e. meprobamate (Equanil and others)
The following monamines are metabolized by MAO and COMT to produce inactive metabolites:
a. Norepinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Melatonin
e. a and b

2007 quiz 1 q9
e. a and b
This short acting intravenous general anesthetic probably interacts in some way with GABA receptors in the brain (The drug may be a GABA receptor agonist).
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Sufentanil (Sufenta)
c. Propofol (Diprivan)
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthr
c. Propofol (Diprivan)
Correctly select the adverse reaction to many antiepileptic drugs (“old” and “new”) that usually appears during the long-term use of an antiepileptic drug which is a common use of most of these drugs:
a. Blood dyscrasias
b. Increased alertness or
a. Blood dyscrasias
Although this benzodiazepine drug is efficacious for a panic reaction (a severe kind of anxiety) and certain kinds
of depression, it may not be useful for a student because it might interfere with classes and examinations.
a. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
A nonbenzodiazepine drug labeled for the treatment of sleep problems:
a. halazepam (Paxipam)
b. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. zolpidem (Ambien)
d. buspirone (Buspar)
e. quazepam (Doral)

2/7/03 quiz q1
c. zolpidem (Ambien)
Newest agent for producing the general anesthetic state; volatile liquid; rapid induction and recovery; chemically unstable when exposed to CO2 absorbents;
a. halothane
b. diethylether
c. ketamine
d. isoflurane
e. sevoflurane

2003 quiz 1 q3
e. sevoflurane
cholinomimetics effect on GI
increase peristaltic (M3) and relaxation of sphincters (M2)
increased salivary and gastric secretions
The precursor of catecholamines is _____ and is transported into nerve endings by a ____ dependent carrier.
Tyrosine; sodium dependent
Beta 2 agonist cause _____ in the respiratory tract.
Which oral beta 2 agonist is more likely to have beta 1 effects?
The amino acid modulator of the NMDA receptor is:
a. glutamate
b. lysine
c. kynurenate
d. glycine
e. kainate

2006 exam 1 q6
d. glycine
There are how many subtypes of DA receptors?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 14
e. 21

2006 exam 1 q9
c. 5
Although this drug (approved in 1994) is efficacious for refractory partial seizures, it may cause a skin rash (delayed hypersensitivity reaction), especially in younger adults or children (<16 years old):
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amida
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
All of the following GPCRs are coupled to second messenger systems EXCEPT for ___ which is coupled to an ion channel:
a. B2
b. 5HT3
c. M1
d. D2
e. a and b

2006 exam 1 q3
b. 5HT3
This general anesthetic is used only for short procedures, such as obstetrical procedures, because it is metabolized by the liver to release fluoride ion (Fl-) which may be toxic to the kidneys.
a. Propofol (Diprivan)
b. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
c. Halot
d. Methoxyflurane (Penthrane)
The primary side effect limiting the effectiveness of this anti-spasticity drug is a decrease in blood pressure:
a. phenytoin (Dilantin)
b. dantrolene (Dantrium)
c. baclofen (Lioresal)
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
e. buspirone (Buspar)

2/7/03 quiz q5
d. tizanidine (Zanaflex)
This drug labeled for sleep problems is hepatically metabolized by ring opening and usually has a short half-life of elimination (<5 hours).
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Temazepam (Restoril and others)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane and
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
Produces fatal demyelination of peripheral nerves in those patients with acute intermittent porphyria:
a. Ketamine (Ketalar)
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
c. Topiramate (Topamax)
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
e. Valproic acid (Depakene)

2005 ex
d. Amobarbital (Amytal and others)
Correctly select the compound which is a GABA-b receptor agonist, and likely decreases the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord:
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexer
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
Autoinduction of metabolism may complicate the dosing of this antiepileptic drug which likely blocks sodium (Na+) channels to inhibit Na+ influx into CNS neurons during sustained, repetitive
high-frequency neuronal discharge.
a. Valproic acid (Depakene an
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol and others)
Labeled for seizures (epilepsy) and is primarily an “add-on” drug.
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal and others)
c. Triazolam (Halcion)
d. Sevoflurane (Ultane)
e. Dantrolene (Dantrium)

2005 exam 1 q24
a. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
What effects does scopolamine/atropine (muscarinic antagonist) have on the GIT? (in regards to motility, gastric emptying time, salivation, gastric secretions)
dec. motility
incr. gastric emptying time,
dec. salivation,
dec. gastric secretions
This alpha 2 agonist is similar to Clonidine but has longer half life.
Guanabenz (similar)
cholinomimetics effect on secretory glands
increased lacrimal, nasopharyngeal and sweat secretion
ACh is transported into storage vesicles by ______ and is blocked by ______.
vesicle associated transporter; vesamicol
Choline is transported into the cytoplasm by _____ and can be inhibited by ______.
Sodium-dependent membrane choline transporter; hemicholiniums
cholinomimetics effect on urinary tract
promotes peeing through contraction (m3) and relaxation of sphincter (m2)
When a chronic alcoholic (consuming a fifth of spirits whiskey a day for 6 months) quits abruptly the withdrawal effects:
a. Are unlikely to require medical intervention
b. Could progress to a medical emergency
c. Could require high doses of a benzodiazep
d. b and c
This drug labeled for the treatment of anxiety is especially efficacious for panic reactions.
a. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium and others)
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
c. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
d. Oxazepam (Serax and others)
e. Diazepam (valium and others
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
Because this drug is an -2 receptor agonist, its upper dose when it is used to treat skeletal muscle spastcity is often limited by the development of hypotension
a. Baclofen (Lioresal)
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
d. Cyclobenzaprin
b. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
This drug may be more selective for the alpha1 subunit of the GABA-a receptor complex in the brain compared to other subunits of the GABA-a receptor complex.
a. Dantrolene (Dantrium)
b. Etomidate (Amidate)
c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
d. Phenytoin (Dilan
e. Zaleplon (Sonata)
Binds to a receptor on the GABA-a receptor complex; increases the frequency of chloride channel opening so that more chloride can enter the cell to intensify inhibition; definite 'ceiling' to this effect; metabolized by progressive removal of an aliphatic
b. flurazepam (Dalmane)
This is a prodrug labeled for the treatment of acute and chronic anxiety reactions; converted to diazepam with the subsequent production of the active, long elimination half-life metabolite; N-DMDZ or nordiazepam; decarboxylated by stomach acid:
a. alpraz
d. clorazepate (Tranxene)
Select the correct drug labeled for the treatment of anxiety reactions; May be “safer” in people with depressed liver function since it is metabolized by conjugation because of its C-3 hydroxyl..
a. Halazepam (Paxipam)
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; gener
c. Oxazepam (Serax; generics)
For the following conditions, what is an anti-ChE drug that can be used?
GI/urinary tract
supraventricular tachycardia
Myasthenia gravis
glaucoma - physostigimine
GI/urinary tract - neostigmine
supraventricular tachycardia - edrophonium
Myasthenia gravis- AChE inhib + immunosupressive therapy
Alzheimer's - tacrine, donzipil, galantamine, rivastigmine
Terazosin, doxazosin, and prazosin are all _____________ (class) and are all indicated for ___-__ and _____.
alpha 1 antagonists; HTN, BPH
This compound may result in acute dose-related side effects such as drowsiness, concentration-dependent side effects such as lateral nystagmus, and long-term or chronic side effects (used for two or three months or longer) such as gum hyperplasia and vita
b. Phenytoin (Dilantin and others)
The mechanism of action of depressant general anesthetics (gases or volatile liquids) is likely related to:
a. an increase in GABA-induced inhibition in the brain because of a positive modulation of GABAA receptors.
b. increased norepinephrine (NE) in the
c. lipid solubility (oil:water partition) in nerve cell membranes.
This drug would not be expected to lead to rebound insomnia when it is discontinued after chronic use (two or three weeks of nightly use) to treat a sleep problem because of the slow “wash-out” of an active long elimination half-life metabolite which
b. Flurazepam (Dalmane; generics)
A partial agonist at 5-HT1A receptors in the brain:
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
b. Baclofen (Lioresal)
c. Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan and others)
e. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

2005 exam 1 q31
a. Buspirone (BuSpar and others)
How do short-acting anti-AChE interact with AChE and give examples of drugs?
Bind to the anionic site glutamate
Of the direct acting cholinomimetics, which contain a methyl group and which contain carbamoyl group. What is the benefit of these additions?
methyl groups - methacholine and bethanechol
carbamoyl groups - carbachol and bethanechol
Methyl groups are selective for muscarinic receptors; carbamoyl groups can't be metabolized by AChE
Which of the following are among the factors driving the current problem of opioid dependence?
a. Increased experimentation by youth, especially of prescription opioids
b. High purity heroin
c. Plentiful, cheap supply of heroin
d. All of the above
e. a a
d. All of the above
All of the following are requirements for the state of general anesthesia EXCEPT:
a. analgesia due to depression of spinothalamic nerve tracts
b. anterograde amnesia due to hippocampal or cortical depression
c. a lack of response to simple commands
d. red
e. brain stem depression which involves depression of cardiovascular and respiratory control
This process is likely responsible for the duration of the CNS effects of very lipid soluble drugs like thiopental (Sodium pentothal).
a. Hepatic metabolism
b. Redistribution out of the CNS
c. Urinary excretion of unmetabolized drug
d. Binding to lean
b. Redistribution out of the CNS
The daily efficacious dose of phenytoin is complicated in different patients because phenytoin:
a. promotes the inactivated state of Na+ channels in the brain.
b. is metabolized by the liver to two (2) active metabolites.
c. of hepatic metabolism that bec
c. of hepatic metabolism that becomes saturated leading to non-linear elimination.
What are signs of toxicity due to direct acting cholinomimetics? What is the antidoe?
N/V, diarrhea, urinary urgency, salivation, sweating, bronchoconstriction, cutaneous vasodilation, acute HTN/arrhythmias
Treatment: atropine
This drug will result in little or no REM rebound insomnia when discontinued after its use for eleven (11)
consecutive nights because an active, long half-life terminal metabolite is “washed” out of the body slowly.
a. Triazolam (Halcion)
b. Temaze
d. Flurazepam (Dalmane and others)
The mechanism of action of ethyl alcohol which underlies its ability to cause CNS depression in large ingested amounts may be:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition
c. a non-selective effect to decrease
e. Both b and c are correct
The major adverse reaction to the long-term chronic use of a benzodiazepine chemical used to treat a sleep problem or an anxiety reaction is:
a. CNS excitation
b. a seizure and the possible diagnosis of epilepsy
c. skeletal muscle spasticity
d. the possib
d. the possibility of sedation and drowsiness
The mechanism of action of barbiturate chemicals which underlies general CNS depression with no ceiling is:
a. competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor
b. an increase in GABA-mediated inhibition
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of
c. a non-selective effect to decrease the excitability of neurons (release of excitatory chemicals)
How do sympathomimetic drugs work on blood pressure?
alpha agonist increase PVR which leads to rise in BP; beta agonists increase CO and vasodilation in certain vascular beds
Which muscarinic subtypes work by Gi mechanism (cAMP inhibitory and increase K channels)? Where are these receptors commonly found?
M2, M4
M2 - heart, nerves, smooth muscles
M4 - CNS
Which of the following is not a requirement for the state of general anesthesia?
a. Analgesia due to depression of spinothalamic nerve tracts
b. Anterograde amnesia due to hippocampal depression
c. Complete coma and loss of consciousness because of brain
c. Complete coma and loss of consciousness because of brain stem depression
NE is a ______ and ______ agonist and is primarily used in ________ to preserve cerebral and coronary blood flow.
alpha and beta 1 agonist
hypotensive emergency
What are the general CV effects of cholinomimetics (ie ACh)?
slow the heart - decrease SA node rate, decrease contractility/conduction velocity; increase ventricular contraction
Select the drug that may lead to physical or psychological dependence during its long-term, continued, chronic use.
a. Secobarbital (Seconal; generics)
b. Quazepam (Doral)
c. Zolpidem (Ambien)
d. Oxazepam (Serax)
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct sel
e. All of the above (a-d) are correct selections
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