EMT-B Flashcards

vocabulary
Terms Definitions
 
 
Quiz 3
 
 
QUIZ 4
 
 
 
Quiz 6 :
 
 
41.  Describe the differences between an allergic reaction and an anaphylactic reaction.
31.  After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh?
a. 1 minute
b. 30 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. It should be removed from the injection site immediately.
 
32.   A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
a. Shock
b. Mild allergy
c. Dyspnea
d. Anaphylaxis
 
17.
Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia?
a. Its onset is more gradual.
b. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
c. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or
18.
Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia?
a. Respiratory distress
b. Intoxication
c. Heart attack
d. All of these
 
45.   Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following?
a.       a. A diagnosis
b.       b. A sign
c.       c. A symptom
d.       d. A complai
46.  At what point should the vital signs and SAMPLE history be obtained?
a.       a. During the initial assessment
b.       b. During the scene size-up
c.       c. During the primary survey
d.       d. During the focused history and physical exam
37.   Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?
a.       a. Inability to secrete insulin
b.       b. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells
c.       c. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the
38.    Which of the following structures best describes the makeup of the torso?
a.       a. Thorax, abdomen, pelvis, lower extremities
b.       b. Region from the nipple-line to the navel
c.       c. Thorax and abdomen
d.       d. Head, neck, thorax, abdomen
45.  For which of the following patients is a focused physical examination appropriate?
a.       a. A 30-year-old male with a history of diabetes and who is found unresponsive by his son
b.       b. A 19-year-old female with a history of ep
46.  Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical patient, which of the following should you do next?
a.       a. Find out who the patient's doctor is.
b.       b. Obtain baseline vital signs.
c.       c. Perform a focused physical exam.
d.       d. Check the scene for medications.
13.   Which of the following descriptions best describes the term "pathogen"?
a.       a. A medication taken after exposure to an infectious disease
b.       b. An organism that causes infection and disease
c.       c. A substance t
14.   What is another term to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautions?
a.       a. Infection control
b.       b. Acquired immunity
c.       c. Personal protective equipment
d.       d. Biohazardous material protection
37. What explains the abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder?
38.  What should your physical examination of the abdomen include?
9.   The detection of a pulsating mass upon palpation of a patient's abdomen should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following?
  a. A hernia
 b. Gastroenteritis
   c. An ulcer
 d. An abdominal aortic
10.    Your patient is a 35-year-old female with abdominal pain. Which of the following findings CANNOT be attributed to the patient experiencing pain?
   a. Shallow respirations
   b. Increased heart rate
   c. Decreased level of consciousness
   d. Slight increase in blood pressure
 
5.  You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she complains of feeling faint and light-headed, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the best sequence of action
6.  While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute.

A.24

B.30

C.16

D.20
27.  Which of the following best describes blunt force trauma?
a.       a. The object is not sharp, but, it penetrates the body when enough force is used.
b.       b. The object penetrates soft tissue, but, it cannot penetrate bone.
c.  
28.   Which of the following situations requires action by the EMT during scene size-up?
a.       a. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence
b.       b. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of a vehicle collision
c.       c. A vehicle collision involving a tractor-trailer that has a placard indicating it is carrying a corrosive substance
d.       d. All of these
19.  Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients?
 
A.Rales

B.Congestive heart failure

C.Presacral swelling

D.Pedal edema
20.  Which of the following devices is used by patients with respiratory problems to assist with the delivery of medication from an inhaler to the lungs?

A.A pulmonaide

B.An oxygen-powered nebulizer

C.A small-volume nebulizer

D.An aerochamber
35.    What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?
a.       a. Right ventricle
b.       b. Right atrium
c.       c. Left atrium
d.       d. Left ventricle
36.    Which of the following best describes the medical condition of shock?
a.       a. Hypotension
b.       b. Delayed capillary refill
c.       c. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event
d.       d. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion
23. Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She has just experienced a seizure, although she has no previous history of seizures other than hypertension associated with the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most likely cause
24. Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion on your arrival. Which of the following should you do?
a. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs.
b. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.
c. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue.
        d. Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue
3.  
Your patient is a 23-year-old male with a stab wound to the abdomen. You have bandaged the wound and are transporting the patient to a trauma center. During your assessment, you note that the bandage has become soaked with blood. What should your p
4.  Which of the following is FALSE in regards to the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained?
 

a. You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the patient's condition.b. You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility.c. It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on.d. Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.
25.  Which of the following best describes the function of blood platelets?
 
A.Carry oxygen
B.Aid in blood clotting
C.Fight infection
D.Carry carbon dioxide
26.  Which of the following best describes a fluttering sensation in the chest?
 
A.Dysrhythmia
B.Pulseless electrical activity of the heart
C.Palpitations
D.Tachycardia
33.  Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
 
A.Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the

B.Slows the heart rate

C.Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure

D.Increases the strength of
34. Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations?
 
A.Pulseless bradycardia
B.Pulseless electrical activity
C.Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
D.Asystole
37.  You have received the following order from medical control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue." Which of the following is the best response?
 
A."Clear. Will advise of any changes in patient's condition."
B."Ord
38.  The patient's impression of what is wrong with him is which of the following types of information?
 
A.Subjective

B.Objective

C.Biased

D.Prejudiced
27.  Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrin
28.  Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the best course of immediate action?
 a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
 b. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.
 c. Transport immediately.
 d. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.
23.  You are managing a patient who has been stung by a bee and has had an allergic reaction to bee stings in the past. The patient has some localized redness and swelling in the area of the bee sting but is not having difficulty breathing. Of the follow
24.  Your patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following is a priority in this patient's care?
a. Administer oxygen by non-rebreathing mask.
b. Assist her with her epinephrine auto-injector.
c. Decontaminate the patient by flushing with copious amounts of water.
d. Begin rapid transport.
 
41.  Your patient is a 27-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle that then rolled over on her. She is complaining of pain in her pelvic region. Which of the following techniques should be used to assess the injury?
a.       a. Perform a re
42.  Your patient is a 22-year-old college student complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented, although somewhat uncomfortable. Which of the following should be your first action?
a.       a. Take the patient's roommate aside and ask about the patient's medical history.
b.       b. Ask the patient to describe the pain and find out if she has other complaints.
c.       c. Palpate the patient's abdomen for tenderness and guarding.
d.       d. Perform a rapid head-to-toe physical examination.
3.Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain?
    a. It arises from solid organs.
    b. It is usually intermittent in nature.
    c. It is often described as "crampy" or "colicky."
    d. It is generally localized to a partic
4.With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations.
      a. colon
     b. aorta
     c. liver
     d. ovaries
 
1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of modern emergency medical services (EMS) systems?
 a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital b. To have trained per
2.  Which of the following agencies is responsible for developing and updating the National Standard Curriculum for EMT-Basic training programs?
  a. The U.S. Department of Emergency Medical Services
 b. The U.S. Department of the Interior
 c. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security
 d. The U.S. Department of Transportation
33.  Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is true?
a.       a. There may be some patients for whom a properly sized cervical collar is not manufactured.
b.       b. A proper sizing of a cervical collar is based on th
34.  For a patient whom you have assigned a high transport priority, you should consider all of the following EXCEPT:
a.       a. not moving the patient until all extremities have been splinted.
b.       b. reassessing the patient's mental status.
c.       c. calling for advanced life support.
d.       d. transporting the patient to the nearest trauma center, even if it is not the closest hospital.
9. Your patient's initial vital signs were a pulse of 120 per minute and weak, a blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 24 per minute. After 15 minutes, you note that the patient now has a weak pulse of 100 per minute, a blood pressure of
10. During your ongoing assessment you note that oxygen is not filling the reservoir bag on the non-rebreather you have placed on the patient. Which of the following should you check?
a. The liter flow of the oxygen
b. The amount of oxygen in the tank
c. The connection between the regulator and the supply tubing
        d. All of these
27.  Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of treatment?

A.That you advised the patient to call back if he changed his mind

B.That you informed the patient of the consequences of refusing care

C.The p
28.  Which of the following are possible consequences of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report?

A.Embarrassment

B.Negative impact on patient care

C.Loss of credibility

D. All of these
27.  Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting?
 
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
28. Which breath sound is the EMT most likely to hear when caring for an adult male with a partial airway obstruction that began while eating steak?
 
A.Rales
B.Wheezes
C.Rhonchi
D.Stridor
3. Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?

A.Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient'
4. Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented?

A.The patient's response to the medication

B.The expiration date of the medication

C.The chemical name of the medication

D.All of these
43. the patient had an amputated hand. What bones of the arm would be affected?

***
Both the radius and ulna would be involved. The radius and ulna are the two bones between the elbow and the hand. The radius is the lateral bone of the forearm. It is
44.  What is the difference between respiratory failure and respiratory arrest?

***
Simply stated, respiratory failure is the reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life. When breathing stops completely, the patient is in respiratory arrest. Respiratory arrest can develop during heart attack, stroke, airway obstruction, drowning, electrocution, drug overdose, poisoning, brain injury, severe chest injury, suffocation, or prolonged respiratory failure.
49.  Your patient is a 66-year-old man complaining of a headache for the past two days. Which of the following should be done during a focused physical examination?
a. Palpating the abdomen
b. Taking the patient's blood pressure
c. Inspecting the scal
50.   You have just arrived on the scene where a 25-year-old woman is unresponsive to voice and painful stimuli. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of EMT-B actions?
a. Head-tilt, chin-lift, rapid physical exam, baseline vital signs
b. Obtain baseline vital signs, get a history from bystanders, perform a focused physical exam
c. Check for a pulse, obtain a SAMPLE history, perform a rapid physical exam
d. Place the patient in recovery position, obtain blood pressure, look for medical alert jewelry
3.  Which of the following is NOT correct body mechanics when using the power lift?
a.      a. Your back should be locked in.
b.      b. Raise your lower body prior to your upper body.
c.      c. Keep the weight primarily on the balls o
4.  How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift?
a.      a. 300
b.      b. 200
c.      c. 700
d.      d. 500
19.  Which of the following concerning severe allergic reactions is true?
a. Allergies do not develop until a person is in their late teens to early 20s.b. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction.c. A
20.  Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin?
 
a. Itching
b. Flushing
c. Cyanosis
d. Hives
 
9.  Which of the following best describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing different emergency medical situations?
a.       a. Protocols
b.       b. Standard operating procedures
c.       c. On-line
10.  Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?
a.       a. Quality improvement
b.       b. Total quality management
c.       c. Quality assurance
d.       d. System effectiveness management
17.  As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the best way to care for the patient?a. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must pro
18.  A severe allergic reaction will usually occur within what time period following exposure to the substance to which the patient is allergic?
a. 2 to 4 minutes
b. 15 to 30 minutes
c. 10 to 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes to 2 hours
 
5.
What is the purpose of reassessing and recording findings of the ongoing assessment so they can be compared to earlier findings often called?
a. Trending
b. CQI
c. Analysis
d. Averaging
6.
As you arrive at the emergency department with an unresponsive trauma patient, the nurse asks for your trending assessment. Why is this information important to the nurse?
a. So she can determine if you understand the assessment process
b. So she can evaluate the quality of care you provided
c. So she can evaluate whether or not the patient is improving
d. So she can critique your technique of taking vital signs
11.   Which of the following is NOT a cause of abdominal pain?
  a. Heart attack
 b. Stroke
 c. Food poisoning
 d. Diabetes
 
12.  Your patient is a 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for two days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus, has cool, dry skin, a heart rate of 116, respirations of 24, and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the best position for transporting this patient?
 a. Supine with the knees bent
  b. Sitting up at a 45 degree angle
  c. Sitting up at a 90 degree angle
  d. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent
 
7.  During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury?
a.      a. Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders.
b.   
8.  Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log-roll?
a.      a. Keep your back straight.
b.      b. Use your shoulder muscles.
c.      c. Roll the patient away from you.
d.      d. Lean forward from the hips.
15. The point at which a patient is considered to be hypoxic is when his blood oxygen saturation level falls below

A.90%.

B.95%.

C.100%.

D.85%.
16.  Which of the following should you anticipate when giving nitroglycerin to a patient?

A.Patient complaint of headache

B.A change in the level of pain experienced by the patient

C.Drop in patient's blood pressure
D.All of these
9. Of the following, which is the preferred method for assisting a patient's ventilations?

A.One rescuer bag-valve-mask

B.Non-rebreather mask with supplemental high-flow oxygen

C.Flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device

D.Two rescuer
10.  Which of the following is an example of a medication's trade name? 

A.NitroStat

B.4 dihydroxyphenyl acetate

C.Oxygen

D.Epinephrine
7.  At which of the following stages of assessment should the EMT be alert to the possibility of shock in the patient with abdominal pain?
   a. SAMPLE history
   b. Scene size-up
   c. Initial assessment
   d. All of these
 
8.  Which of the following is NOT true concerning abdominal pain in geriatric patients?
 a. The elderly person may not be able to give a specific description of the pain. b. The causes of abdominal pain in the elderly are rarely serious.  c. The elderly have a decreased ability to perceive pain. d. Medications may mask signs of shock associated with an abdominal complaint.
21.    At what point is the scene size-up completed?
a.       a. When the number of patients has been determined
b.       b. At the end of the call
c.       c. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized
d.       d. When init
22.   Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone?
a.       a. Wind direction
b.       b. Fire
c.       c. The amount of equipment needed
d.       d. Presence of hazardous materials
15.  Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway?
a.      a. It can only be placed in the right nostril.
b.      b. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal air
16.  Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient?
a.      a. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults.
b.      b. Gastric distention is unlikely.
c.      c. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult.
d.      d. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.
39. Which of the following best describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT?
 
A.Shock, shock, shock, shock
B.Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again
C.Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check
D.S
40. Which of the following is NOT a medication that an EMT can administer or assist with?
 
A.Oxygen
B.Albuterol
C.Nitroglycerin spray
D.Insulin
21.   
Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults?
a. Head trauma
b. Fever
c. Withdrawal from alcohol
d. Failure to take prescribed medication
 
22.
In children, what is the most common cause of a seizure?
a. Fever
b. Congenital brain abnormalities
c. Poisoning
        d. Trauma
21.   What is the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected of and limitations placed on the EMT?
a.       a. Licensing requirements
b.       b. Professional responsibility
c.       c. Scope of practice
d.    
22.   Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult?
a.       a. Expressed consent
b.       b. Unconditional consent
c.       c. Implied consent
d.       d. Conscious consent
31.  Which of the following is the most common situation in which an EMT may be liable?
 
A.Failure to document all of a patient's medications on the patient care report

B.Inaccurate recording of times and

C.Failing to get the receiving physic
32.  An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria EXCEPT which one?
 
A.Observable

B.Can be verified

C.Biased

D.Measurable
31.  You are dispatched on a call for chest pain. On your arrival, a neighbor of the patient tells you, "I saw Mr. Fields fall down his porch steps. He hit his head and he's bleeding." You enter the residence and find Mr. Fields lying on the floor. He sa
32.   When a patient describes what or how he feels, he is telling you which of the following?
a.       a. His diagnosis
b.       b. His syndrome
c.       c. His symptoms
d.       d. His signs
35.  You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
a. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
b. Administer the epinephrine; better

36.  If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would be most likely to occur?
a. The medication is harmless if administered inadvertently.
b. Bradycardia
c. Make the heart beat stronger and faster
d. Relief of shortness of breath
 

 
11.  You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the followin
12.  After you give your radio report to the hospital, your patient loses consciousness. Which of the following should you do next?

A.Notify dispatch of a change to emergent transport mode

B.Reassess the patient.

C.Immediately notify the hospital of a change in patient priority.

D.None of these
29. Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries?
 
A.Atherosclerosis
B.Aneurysm
C.Arteriosclerosis
D.Coronary thrombosis
30.  A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called:
 
A.angioplasty
B.angina
C.aneurysm.
D.asystole.
bi-
two
epistaxis
Nosebleed
athlero-
hardening
cerebro-
head
-ostomy
opening into
Inferior
Situated below.
Larynx
Voice box
dobutamine
-Dobutrex (tm)-sympathomimetic-IV infuse at 2-20 mcg/kg/min to desired pt effect
Caudad
Toward the tail.
superior
toward the head
dilated
expanded, made large.


Common Prescribed Medications
Respiratory Medications
To Improve airflow in & out of the lungs, or decrease secretions in the respiratory tract
(Some used to control allergy symptoms)


albuterol
cetirizine (Zyrtec)
fexofenadine (Allegra)
montelukast (Singulair)
salmetrol/fluticasone (Advair Diskus)
fluticasone (Flonase)
mometasone (Nasonex)
fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine (Allegra D)
fluticasone propionate (Flovent)
ipratrpium/albuterol (Combivent)
 
Epi-Pen Side Effects
 
Tachycardia
increase anxiety
increase BP
Pallor
Dizzy
Chest Pain
Headache
Nausea / Vomit
Inhalation 
Another term for inspiration 
French catheter
see soft catheter
TWO TYPES OF Agranulocytes
Monocytes
Lymphocytes


 





Allergic Reaction
Insect Bites & Stings
Focused Physical Exam





 


Prolonged respiratory difficulty can cause:
Rapid heart beat
Shock
Death
Stridor - inspiratory sounds - swelling in upper airway - being closed off (total obstruction)
Psychosis
unusual or bizarre behaviors indicating a lack of touch with reality
HEPA
A high-efficiency particulate air respirator or mask designed to reduce the spread of TB
cilia
hair-like microtubule projections on the surface of a cell that can move materials over the cell surface
Proximal
Near the point of reference
Transport to Specialty Centers
 
Trauma Centers
Burn Centers
Poison Centers
Psychiatric Centers
Nursing Homes/ Rehab Centers
Children's Hospitals
 


 



Assess Airways
Unresponsive Patients



 


Immediately assess airway (esp. their tongue)
Signs of obstruction:
Obvious Trauma, blood, or obstruction
Noisy Breathing, such as snoring, bubbling, gurgling, crowing, or abnormal sounds
Extremely shallow or absent breathing
Shock
Hypoperfusion, not able to circulate blood
Two types of stroke
hemorrhagic and ischemic
Hemorrhagic shock
Shock resulting from blood loss.
Acromion Process
Highest portion of the shoulder 
pulse locations
carotid, femoral, radial, brachial, popliteal, posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis
hyperglycemic nonketotic
deficiency, resulting in marked hyperglycemia but in the absence of ketones and acidosis
anterior
toward the front. Opposite of posterior.
refers to the paramedic’s obligation to treat all patients fairly.
Justice
smooth muscle
nonstriated, involuntary muscle; it constitutes the bulk of the gastrointestinal tract & is presently in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity
Turnout Gear


Clothing designed for use in structural fire fighting environments
Provides protection:
from heat or fire
reduces trauma from impact or cuts
keeps water away from the body

 
Indications for Nasopharyngeal Airway


Semiconscious or unconscious patients with an intact gag reflex
Patients who otherwise cannot tolerate an oropharyngeal airway


 




Allergic Reaction
Insect Bites & Stings
Focused History & Physical Exam




 


If Unresponsive - Rapid Physical Exam
Responsive - SAMPLE
What interventions have been completed
Any prescribed, preloaded, medications
Perform focused exam looking for stingers or contact with chemicals or other indications 
Obtain a complete set of vitals
artery
a blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle that carries blood away from the heart.
Anaphylactic Shock
progression of a severe allergic reaction. May result in death
Dilution
Thinning down or weakening by mixing with something else. Ingested poison are sometimes diluted by drinking water or milk.
Ischium
The lower, posterior portions of the pelvis.
Implied Consent 
Permission to treat an unconscious patient until he or she becomes conscious
Nervous System
Body system that governs sensations, movement, and thought
rule of nines
standardized method for calculating burn percentage; arms 9%, leg 18%, head 9%, chest 9%, back 9%
electrolytes
salt or acid substances that become ionic conductors when dissolved in a solvent (e.g. water)Chemical dissolved in the blood
diaphragm
the major muscle of respiration that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity.
the nonspecific response of the body to any demand
Stress
scalp
the thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hairs
Stress
a state of physical or psychological arousal to a stimulus
Electricity Sources


Lightening - may need to delay until the storm passes
Direct hit
Stay away from projections from the ground (trees)
Drop all equipment
Avoid metal objects
Position yourself into a low crouch
Get in a vehicle
Place a nonconductive material under your feet

ground current
Stay away from drainage ditches
moist areas
small depressions
wet ropes
BVM Techniques


Work w/ a partner when possible
1 maintains a good mask seal
Other squeezes the bag
Hernia
 
A protrusion of an organ or tissue through a hole in the body wall, covering its normal site
Every organ can herniate in certain circumstances
Can occur as a result of:
A Congenital Defect (around the umbilicus)
A surgical Wound that has failed to heal properly
Natural weakness of an area, such as the groin

Do not always produce a mass or lump that the patient is aware of

 
Venous Bleeding
Bleeding from veins, dark red, steady flow, easy to control
What is anterior?
The front surface of the body.
Contusion
a bruise; in brain injuries, a bruised brain caused when the force of a blow to the head is great enough to rupture blood vessels.
CISD or CISM
Critical Incident Stress Debriefing or Critical Incident Stress Management
Medical direction
The provision for physician input and direction of patient care, training, and quality assurance of an emergency medical system or system
3 types of consent
expressed consent, implied consent, minor consent
How many people do acute poisoning affect each year?
5 million
lower airway
the portion of the respiratory system that extends from the trachea to the alveoli of the lungs.
To show – and feel – deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation for others.
Respect
lateral
Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline. Also called outer structures
Blood in the urine is known as a
hematuria
Primary Service Area (PSA)
Responsible for the provision of prehospital care and the transportation of the sick and injured to the hospital.


Early Recognition of Airway Obstruction
Severe obstruction (foreign body)

 
 
Can't breath, talk, cough
Sudden inability to speak or cough (immediately after eating)
Universal Distress Signal
Turn Cyanotic
Make frantic attempts to breath
little - no air movement
Ask conscious person if choking - perform heimlich
Any person found unconscious must be managed as if he/she has a compromised airway
 
Physiology of the Abdomen


Solid and hollow (GI, Genital, Urinary) organs
Parietal Peritoneum - lines abdominal cavity
Visceral Peritoneum - lines the organs
Small amount of Peritoneal fluid to bathe/lubricate organs
Peritonitis- Foreign material can cause irritation
Retroperitoneal - behind the peritoneal:
Kidneys, Ovaries, Pancreas
Frail Chest
Fracture of two or more adjecent ribs in two or more places that allows for free movement of the fractured segment
Hemorrhagic Stroke
-10% of ALL strokes strokes
-Result of bleeding inside the brain.
-Bloodclotting squeezed the brain tissue surrounding it. -normally occurs in patients experiencing stress or exertion
Acromioclavicular joint
The joint where the acromion and the clavicle meet.
Dermis
Inner layer of the skin in which blood vessels and nerves are located 
flail segment
Two or more adjacent ribs that are fractured in two or more places and thus move independently from the rest of the rib cage
lateral recumbent
a position in which the patient is lying on the left or right side. also called recovery position
When a dying patient mourns things not accomplished or dreams that won't come true, he is said to be in the:

depression stage.

acceptance stage.

bargaining stage.

denial stage.
depression stage.
anatomic position
the position of reference in which the PT stands facing you, arms @ the side, w/ the pals of the hands forward
Displaced fracture
any injury that makes the limb appear in an unnatural position
Mouth to Mask
With oxygen Inlet


Provides oxygen during mouth to mask ventilation to supplement the air from my lungs (16% oxygen)
Gets more oxygen enrichment
Frees both my hands - keep airway open and better seal


 

Causes of Abdominal Pain
Urinary System

 


Cystitis - Bladder Infection - more common in women
Lower abdominal pain
 
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function.
Posterior tibial pulse
pulse that may be palpated on the posterior aspect of the medial malleolus 
patent airway
an airway that is open and clear of any obstructions.
autonomic nervous system
the part of the nervous system that regulates functions, such as digestion & sweating, that are not controlled voluntarily
Scene Safety and Personal Protection
 
Protect yourself as soon as you are dispatched
Prepare yourself mentally and physically
Wear a seatbelt and shoulder harness
Make sure that proper warning devices are in place
Park the ambulance at a safe, but convenient distance
Check vehicle stability
Wear a reflective vest
Plenty of light
 
Possible causes for Rapid, Regular, Thready Pulse Quality
Shock, Later stages of blood loss
What kind of femur fracture is a sign and condition that leads to shock?
Bilateral Femur Fracture
 


Focused History & Physical Exam
Sample History 


 


The more signs and symptoms you are able to gather, the better
Attempt to record the chief complaint in a few of the patient's own words
Note if the information comes from someone other than the patient
emergency medical treatment and active labor act
a federal regulation that ensures the public's access to emergency health care regardless of ability to pay. Also known as the "anti-patient dumping statute" forbidding turning a patient away at the door or sending him to a public hospital because of in ability to pay.
What to be more concerned about in a child:Rapid pulse or low pulse
Low pulse, may indicated imminent cardiac arrest
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Term:
Definition:
Definition:

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