EMT-B final Flashcards

c.      c. carina
Terms Definitions
 
Quiz 1
 
 
Quiz 2
31.    What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis?
a.       a. Acetabulum
b.       b. Ischium
c.       c. Pubis
d.       d. Ilium
 

32.    What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs?
a.       a. Smooth muscles
b.       b. Skeletal muscles
c.       c. Striated muscles
d.       d. Voluntary muscles
 

 
47.    Which of the following describes the midline of the body?
a.       a. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion
b.       b. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves
c.    
48.    Which of the following describes Fowler's position?
a.       a. Lying on the side
b.       b. Sitting upright with the legs straight
c.       c. Lying flat on the back
d.       d. Lying on the stomach
39.   What is the general treatment for a patient complaining of abdominal distress?
40.   What actions does epinephrine have on the blood vessels and bronchioles?
41. Describe the form, indications, and actions of activated charcoal.
 
***
Activated charcoal is a powder prepared from charred wood, usually premixed with water to form a slurry for use in the field. It is used to treat a poisoning or overdose whe
42. Describe the various names a medication may have.
 
***
Every drug or medication is listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia (USP), which is a comprehensive government publication. Each drug has at least three names: the chemical name, which describes the chemical makeup of the medication; the generic name, which any manufacturer may use to describe the medication; and one or more trade (brand) names, which are used by a specific manufacturer to identify and market the medication.
27.   With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true?
a.       a. The mouth is proximal to the nose.
b.       b. The foot is distal to the knee.
c.       c. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of
28.   Which of the following best describes the location of the mid-axillary line?
a.       a. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body
b.       b. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone
c.       c. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel
d.       d. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest
41.    Which of the following is the best way to assess a patient's skin temperature?
a.       a. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen.
b.       b. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead.
c.       c. P
42.     Which of the following best describes the normal size of the pupils under normal lighting conditions?
a.       a. Dilated
b.       b. Constricted
c.       c. Midpoint
d.       d. Pinpoint
43.  After assisting Mrs. Peterson take two of her nitroglycerin tablets, she states her chest pain is completely gone. She has just informed you that she does not wish to be transported to the hospital. Which of the following should you do next?
a. Att
44.   For a patient without a previous history of chest pain, which of the following questions would be most useful in obtaining the history of a patient with a complaint of chest pain?
a.       a. Does this pain make you think you're having a heart attack?
b.       b. Would you say the pain is crushing and heavy?
c.       c. How would you describe the way the pain feels?
d.       d. Has anyone in your family had pain like this?
25.  What is sharing a patient's medical history with a person not involved in his care without written legal authorization by the patient?
a.       a. Negligence
b.       b. Libel
c.       c. Breach of confidentiality
d.     
26.  A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?
a.       a. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma
b.       b. Two fractures in the same femur
c.       c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh
d.       d. Fractures of both femurs
47.  For which of the following patients would a focused physical exam be appropriate?
a.       a. A 28-year-old man complaining of a rash on his legs
b.       b. An 80-year-old woman who could not be awakened from her nap
c.       c
48.  In the assessment of a responsive medical patient, which of the following will provide you with the most important information?
a.       a. Focused physical exam
b.       b. Detailed physical exam
c.       c. Baseline vital signs
d.       d. The patient's medical history
19.      Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at h
20.  Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up?
a.       a. Potential hazards to the EMS crew
b.       b. Mechanism of injury
c.       c. The need for additional resources
d.       d. Chief complaint
19.   Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for weeks and thus should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?
a.       a. Hepatitis A
b.       b. Tuberculosis
c.       c. H
20.   Of the following, which is the lowest priority of the EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
a.       a. Safety of others
b.       b. Personal safety
c.       c. Recognizing potential problems
d.       d. Assessment and treatment of the ill and injured
15.  Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true?

A.  It shows you are interested in the patient

B.  It shows you are attentive.

C.  Eye contact is always appropriate.

D.  It shows you are confident
16.  Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the U.S. DOT for purposes of data collection in conducting research?

A.Patient's name

B.Patient's insurance coverage

C.Amount charged for ambulance services

D.Time of arrival at the patient
9.   Which of the following best describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report?

A.Changes in the patient's condition can be communicated.

B.Patient treatment can be based on this information

C.
10.  Your patient is a 43-year-old woman with chest pain. You have called the communications center and asked for an ALS unit to be dispatched to your location. While en route, the ALS unit calls you for a report. Which information is most important to the ALS unit at this time?

A.The patient's level of consciousness and chief complaint

B.Patient's medications

C.Patient's past medical history

D.The length of time you have been on the scene
19.
Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult?
a. 150 mg/dl
b. 180 mg/dl
c. 80 mg/dl
d. 40 mg/dl
 
20.
Which of the following best describes a seizure?
a. Muscular convulsions
b. Fainting spell
c. Sudden change in the brain's electrical activity
        d. Loss of consciousness
 
25.   Which of the following is NOT a consideration when assessing the mechanism of injury and forming an index of suspicion about particular injuries in a motor vehicle collision?
a.       a. Speed of the vehicle at the moment of impact
b.  
26.   When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important?
a.       a. The height of the fall
b.       b. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down
c.       c. The patient's weight
d.       d. The type of surface onto which the patient fell
1.   Which of the following best describes a base station?
 
A.  Two-way radio at a fixed site
 
B.  Device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances

C.  Two-way radio that can be carried on a b
2.  Which of the following best describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"?
 
                 A. General impression
              
                 B. Scene safety
       
                 C. Clinical judgement


                 D. Diagnostic ability
33.   Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?
a.       a. Expiration
b.       b. Gas exchange
c.       c. Inspiration
d.       d. Bifurcation
 
34.  Which of the following types of blood vessel allows the exchange of substances between the blood and the cells of the body?
a.       a. Arterioles
b.       b. Capillaries
c.       c. Alveoli
d.       d. Venules
 
11.  What best defines direction given to the EMT-Basic by a physician over the telephone or radio?
a.       a. Verbal medical direction
b.       b. Virtual medical direction
c.       c. Off-line medical direction
d.       d.
12.  The application of oxygen for a patient that is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following?
a.       a. On-line medical direction
b.       b. Standards of care
c.       c. Breach of duty
d.       d. Standing orders
41.  The two major portions of the skull are the:
 
A.atlas and axis.

B.manubrium and mandible.

C.frontal bone and ilium.

D.cranium and face.
42.During this call, you administered medications by both protocol and medical direction orders. Identify what each type of order is and explain the differences.
***
Administering oxygen by protocol (or standing orders) is an example of off-line medical direction. These procedures are established in advance by the EMS system medical director as a patient management plan. Most protocols identify those procedures that can be done prior to contacting medical direction and those that must have individual medical direction authorization to perform. The nitroglycerin is an example of on-line (or direct) medical direction. These are orders received directly from medical direction (via radio, phone, etc.) after you provide an appropriate radio medical report.
11.   Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway?
a.      a. Bronchi
b.      b. Pharynx
c.      c. Tonsils
d.      d. Uvula
12.  The point at which the trachea divides into the two main stem bronchi is called the:
a.      a. xiphoid process.
b.      b. hypopharynx.
c.      c. carina.
d.      d. sternal notch.
 
21.  Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction?
 a. Wheezing
 b. Fine, wet crackles or rales
c. Coarse sounding rhonchi
d. Clear, adequate air movement
 
22.  Which of the following is included in the initial assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock?
 a. Looking for hives and swelling
 b. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic
 c. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
d. Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg
 
1. At what point should the ongoing assessment be performed?
a. Upon completing patient interventions
b. Prior to the detailed assessment
c. Prior to treating life-threatening injuries
d. Upon arrival at the hospital
 
2.  Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of an unknown type of pills. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient?
a. Checking the patient's pupil size and reactivity to light
b. Maintaining an open airway
c. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status
d. Finding out exactly what she took
 
23.  To which of the following individuals can a patient care report be given without prior written authorization?

A.Anyone in the patient's family who is over the age of 18

B.The emergency department receptionist

C.Emergency department triage
24.  Your patient is a 42-year-old woman who fell a couple of feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information given?

A.Transport priority

B.General impression

C.Chief complaint

D.Airway status
11.  Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next?
12.  When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered?
 
A.24 per minute
B.12 per minute
C.15 per minute
D.20 per minute
35.  Which of the following is the preferred way to determine the mechanism of injury at the scene?
    a. Ask the first person on the scene or any bystanders how severe they think the mechanism is.
    b. Ask law enforcement for their professiona
36.  Your patient is a 35-year-old male patient involved in a high speed vehicle collision. The patient is not entrapped, but you have determined the patient is a high priority for transport due to suspected internal bleeding. The trauma center is 15 minutes away, and an ALS response unit is 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the best decision?a. Begin transport and meet the ALS unit en route to the hospital.b. Transport the patient to the hospital.                                                  c. Call for an ALS transporting unit and stabilize the patient on the scene.                                                                                                                  d. Request helicopter evacuation of the patient.
17.  What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath?

A.Dissolves mucus in the airways

B.Relaxation of the bronchioles

C.Decreased heart rate

D.Increased contra
18.  When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause?

A.There is an upper airway obstruction

B.There is mucus in the air passages.

C.The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.

D.There is fluid in the lungs.
23.  Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering?
 
A.1 spray
 
B.2 sprays

C. As needed until respiratory status improves

D. The number of sprays directed by medical
24.  Which of the following heart chambers pumps oxygenated blood to the body?
 
A.  Left ventricle
B.Right atrium
C.Left atrium
D.Right ventricle
31.  Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?
 
A.Heart failure
B.Cardiac arrest
C.Myocardial infarction
D.Angina pectoris
32.  What medications that help rid the body of excess fluid do many patients take on a daily base at home?
 
A.Nitrates
B.Fibrinolytics
C.Diuretics
D.Antiarrhythmics

29.   Which of the following best describes the Trendelenburg position?
a.       a. Lying on the side with the legs drawn up and the arms clasped around them
b.       b. Semi-sitting
c.       c. Lying on the side
d.       d
30.  What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine?
a.       a. Sacral and coccygeal
b.       b. Lumbar and sacral
c.       c. Cervical and lumbar
d.       d. Cervical and thoracic
 
29.   Within what period of time should the EMT expect most anaphylaxis patients to respond to the administration of subcutaneous epinephrine?
a. Within 20 minutes
b. Within 10 minutes
c. Within 15 to 30 seconds
d. Within 2 minutes
 
30.  Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action?
a. Immediately administer a second auto-injector.
b. Contact medical control.
c. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities.
d. Continue supportive care en route to the hospital.
 
49.   What are the small bones that make up the wrist called?
a.       a. Tarsals
b.       b. Metacarpals
c.       c. Metatarsals
d.       d. Carpals
50.   What is the ability of the heart muscle that describes its ability to generate its own electrical impulses called?
a.       a. Conductivity
b.       b. Irritability
c.       c. Automaticity
d.       d. Contractility
23.   Which of the following is NOT true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call?
a.       a. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for.
b.       b. An unusual lack of activity at the sc
24.  Your patient is a 29-year-old female who was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by a vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?
a. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.b. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.c. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield.d. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?
a.      a. It is only felt in hollow organs.
b.      b. It is caused by psychological stress.
c.      c. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.
d.   
6.Which of the following is the main focus of the EMT's assessment and history taking of the patient with abdominal pain?
  a. Determining the possible need for immediate surgery
  b. Determining the presence of shock
  c. Determining if the patient meets criteria to refuse treatment and transport
 d. Determining the cause of the pain
33.  
Which of the following is the correct position of transport for a stroke patient with left-sided paralysis and a decreased level of consciousness and who is unable to maintain his or her airway?
a. Lying on the left side
b. Supine
c. Semi-sitti
34.  
Which of the following is characteristic of the patient with hyperglycemia?
a. Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate
b. Sudden onset of altered mental status
c. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake
d. Flushed, hot, dry skin and a "fruity" odor of the breath
29.
Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke?
a. Ataxia
b. Aphasia
c. Hemiparesis
d. Ischemia
30. Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock." How is this phenomenon best described?
a. Receptive aphasia
b. Expressive aphasia
c. Unresponsive to verbal stimuli
d. Disorientation to time
1. Which of the following is the basis for applying an AED only to patients who are not breathing and who do NOT have a pulse?

A.Defibrillators recognize ventricular fibrillation, which may be accompanied by a pulse.
B.Defibrillators recognize ventri
2. Which of the following best describes a contraindication to a medication?
 
A.A reason why you should give a medication to a patient

B.A reason why you should avoid giving a medication to a patient

C.An unintended action of the drug

D.The way in which a drug causes its effects
19.   Which of the following is NOT an objective element of documented patient information?

A.Position in which patient was found

B.Patient's age

C.Patient's complaint of nausea

D.Patient's blood pressure
20.  Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information?
 
A.Symptoms

B.Signs

C.Description of the surroundings

D.Medications
39. The elbow is ________ to the wrist.
 
A.inferior

B.dorsal

C.proximal

D.medial
40. Which of the following is the purpose of the initial assessment?
 
A.To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms
B.To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition
C.To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems
D.To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew
35.   
For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members?
a. What kind of insulin do you take?
b. Do you have a family history of diabetes?
c. When was the last time you had someth
36.
Which of the following would be an acceptable substitute for the administration of commercially prepared oral glucose solution?
a. Diet soda
b. Having the patient drink a glass of milk
c. Having the patient eat something high in protein, such as a deli sandwich
d. Cake icing
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