Genetics Bible Flashcards

DNA
Terms Definitions
cDNA
A DNA copy of an mRNA molecule
fragment size
In DNA electrophoresis, fragment separation is based on
Shuttle Vectors
Vectors capable of entering both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are
SmaI
Which restriction enzyme leaves blunt end?
All of the Above: unique restriction sites, selectable marker, an ori sequence
A plasmid used as a cloning vector in E. Coli must have
False
In partial restriction digestion, all available cut sites will be cut
False
DNA molecules, regardless of size, have a net positive charge
True
Cloning Vectors generally possess unique restriction sites and dominant selectable markers
one parental DNA strand and one new strand
In the semiconservative model of DNA replication, progeny double helicies consist of
All of the above: DNA Pol., template DNA, Mg2+, dNTPs
Which of the following is required for the synthesis of DNA during replication
5' to 3' only
During transcription, the synth. of mRNA strand proceeds in which direction // During replication, the direction of synthesis of new DNA from the lagging/leading strand is
bidirectional and semiconservative
In prok + euk, DNA replication is
All of the Above: template DNA, DNA helicase, DNA primase
A primosome consists of
Lagging
Okazaki fragments are made from the ___ strand of the DNA double helix
DNA Polymerase I
After a region of DNA has been replicated, ___ removes the RNA primers
S Phase
Translation of histne mRNAs occurs during which phase of the euk. cell cycle? // In euk., chromosomes are duplicated during which phase?
1
The # of replicons in a typical E. Coli cell is
All of the above: 5'->3' exo., 5'->3' pol., 3'->5' exo.
Which enzyme activity is associated with DNA Pol. I?
ssBPs
As helicase unwinds the DNA molecule, what keeps the strands apart?
RTase
The enzymatic activity of a telomerase is best described as
DNA Pol III
Which enzyme elongates the new DNA strand starting at an RNA primer?
oriC
In E. coli, replication begins at which chromosome site?
True
A new nucleotide is added to a growing strand of DNA at the 3' end
False
DNA primase is an enzyme that catalyzes the rxn necessary to synthesize a molecule of DNA
False
At the growing end of a DNA chain, DNA Pol. catalyzes the formation of a disulfide bond between the 3' OH group of the deoxyribose on the last nucleotide and the 5' Phosphate of the dNTP precursor
1 million bp
One map unit on a human chromosome corresponds roughly to
genes are located on chromosomes
The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
Nondisjunction
____ results when chromatids fail to separate and move to opposite poles during Anaphase // Gametes containing an abnormal # of chromosomes may occur as a result of
SRY
In humans, the gene responsible for the development of testes is
liver cell from a woman
In which type of cell would a Barr body be observed
female
XXY fruit fly
all of the sons of a homo. mother will exhibit
For X-linked recessive genes
ribozymes
Self-cleaving RNAs that function catalytically are called
Termination requires ATP
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Rho-dependant terminator
nucleus
In euk., pre-mRNA are processed in the
undergoes coupling of transcription + translation/ must be further processed before it is transcribed
A prok. mRNA transcript
exons and introns/ promoter and terminator sequence
Which parts of a euk. gene are transcribed
+1
Prok. transcription begins when RNA pol. binds to which site of the gene region (promoter)?
All above: RNA chain is released from DNA/ RNA synth. stops/ RNA pol. is released from the DNA
Which event occurs at the termination of transcription?
False
All Genes encode proteins
RNA Pol.
Termination is carried out by ___ in a rho-independent termnator
False
RNA splicing takes place on ribosomes, which contain the pre-mRNA molecule and histones
Deletion
Which type of chromosomal mutation cannot revert to wt?
Deletion
Which of the following mutations most likely lethal?
Karyotype Analysis
What kind of analysis allows you to visualize chromosomal makeup
Duplication
...evolution of multigene families, such as the genes of hemoglobin, is a result of which type of genetic rearrangement?
3 copies of long arm of 21- one of which is attached to part of 14
In familial Down Syndrome, resulting from Robertsonian translocation
N and N-1
A monosomic cell would produce gametes with how many chromosomes?
Down Syndrome
The condition resulting from a trisomy of chromosome 21 is
True
Down syndrome (trisomy-21) is the only human autosomal trisomy in which the individuals may survive to adulthood
22 chromosome
A nullisomic human cell would contain
True
Approximately 15 percent of all human conceptions contain at least one chromosomal mutation
Euk.s
Organisms that consist of cells in which the genetic material is located within a membrane-bound nucleus are
E. Coli
Which of the following is a prok. studied extensively
traits are inherited through the physical transmission of hereditary factors
From exp. w/ peas, Mendel discerned
genotype
An organism's complete set of genes / the genetic makeup of an organism
restriction enzymes
employed to construct unusual recomb. mol.s that may consist of DNA from two diff. organisms
heterozygous
An organism that possesses two diff. alleles for a gene
All: genetic background well-known/ short life cycle/ mating produces large # offspring/ large degree of gen. variation in population
An ideal organism to study would possess which characteristics
Metaphase
A karyotype represents a complete set of ___ chromosomes
Hershey and Chase
DNA was shown to be the genetic material by// Used radioactively labeled T2 bacteriophage to confirm the identity of the transforming principle
Streptococcus pneumoniae
In his transformation exp.s, Griffiths used cultures of which bacterium
Watson and Crick
The double-helix structure of DNA was determined by
living virulent bacteria/ living, nonvirulent bacteria mixed w/ heat-killed, virulent bacteria
In Griffith's transformation exp.s, the mice died when they were injected with
adenine
Which base is a purine?
nucleotides
DNA and RNA are macromolecules composed of
Z-DNA
Which form of DNA is left-handed double-helix
RNA
NOT antiparallel, NOT helical, NOT ds
circular; DNA
The genetic material of most prok. is arranged in a ___ molecule of ___ .
DNA + protein
Chromatin contains
facultative heterochromatin
A Barr Body is an example of
unique sequence
The genome of most prok. consists of ___ DNA
semiconservative
Watson and crick proposed ___ model of DNA replication
helicase
Prevents DNA from tangling up by introducing negative supercoils as the replication fork migrates during replication//Prior to replication, the DNA double helix must be untwisted by which type of enzyme?
ori
In E. Coli, replication begins at which chromosome site?
DNA gyrase
Which enzyme prevents DNA from tangling up as the rep. fork migrates during replciation?
Euk. DNA replication
semidiscontinous, bidirectional, initiated at several sites
telomerase
In eukaryotes, which enzyme is responsible for replicating the ends of the chromosome?
yeast
An ARS is the site of orgin of replication in
lambda
The genetic material of which organism is replicated by the rolling circle mechanism?
link between genes and enzymes
Garrod's exp.s indicated
phenylalanine
warning for PKU because drink contains
Phenlyketonuria, Albinism, CF, Alkaptonuria
Which human diseases caused by autosomal recessive mutation?
one wt and one mutant allele
A person with sickle-cell trait has ___ at the beta-globin gene locus
B Only
The serum of a person with type A blood will contain antibodies against which antigen?
point mutation in the beta-globin gene
The mutation responsible for sickle-cell diseases is a(n)
pedigree analysis
Genetic counselors determine the risk of a genetic disease in a family by first performing // The inheritance of traits in humans is best studied by
after 12th wk. of pregnancy
Amniocentisis is best performed
snRNA
Which type of RNA is found only in eukaryotes?
All above: terminator/ promoter/ RNA coding sequence
For transcription to occur correctly, a prok. gene must ahve
sigma factor
The ___ of RNA pol. is essential for promoter recognition
5' cap + poly(A) tail
In euk.s, mature mRNAs typically have
spliceosomes
Introns are removed from pre-mRNAsby
Pribnow Box
Which found in prok. promoter?
Silencer Elements
inhibit translation
nontemplate
The ss of mRNA that is produced during transcription has the same polarity as the ___ strand of DNA
RNA
Ribozymes are composed of what type of chemical
tRNA molcules
75-90 nt long, cloverleaf shape, ss w/ secondary structure, synth. w/ modified bases
80s
Fully assembled euk. ribosome size
30s
Small subunit of prok. ribosome
peptide
In a polypeptide, individual AA are held together by ___ bonds
All above: Amino group/ Carboxyl group/ R group
In addition to an alpha-carbon and its associated hydrogen atom, AA have
All above: triplet, nonoverlapping, continuous
The genetic code is
prok. cells
The shine-delgarno sequence is found in
tertiary structure
Folding and twisting of the AA chain into a globular structure is a protein's
20
How many naturally occurring AA are used by ribosomes to construct proteins
61
How many sense codons are there in the genetic code
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
Which enzyme "charges" a tRNA molecule w/ the appropriate AA?
3' end of a codon
The wobble hypothesis refers to the nt located at the
Initiation, Elongation, Termination
In order, the stages of protein synth. are
All above: yeast, plant, human, bacteria
In which type of cell would you expect to find ribosomes?
bacteria
Restriction enzymes are produced by
a 5' Phosphate and a 3' Hydroxyl
When DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme, the resulting fragments have
sticky
Restriction enzymes that cut between different nt pairs on the complementary DNA strands produce fragments w/ ___ ends.
E. Coli
The restriction enzyme EcoRI is produced naturally by which bacterium
CATTAC (palandrome)
Which of the following would be the best restriction site?
4096 = .4Mb
A restriction enzyme will cut a molecule of DNA once every ___ bases w/ a 6 bp recognition sequence
bacteriophage and plasmids
Which type of cloning vector occurs in nature?
mRNA
The enzyme reverse transcriptase produces cDNA using ___ as a template.
All above: 32P, 35S, chromagenic dyes, fluorescent dyes
The chemical "label" that permits visualization of DNA fragments in the most current generation of automated sequenceing machines is
1/4
If two parents are heterozygous carriers of a mutant recessive allele, the fetus has a ___ chance of being homozygous for the mutant allel
blood
Most often, DNA molecular tests are performed on cells obtained from
Dde1
The mutation responsible for sickle-cell anemia also alters a restriction site for which enzyme?
heterozygous
To detect mutations in the HAR gene associated w/ certain types of cancers, the DNA sequence was amplified by PCR. The resulting PCR products were dotted onto membranes and probed with two ASOs-one that was specific for the wt and other for mt. A signal was observed for both ASOs. This indicates that the gene is
mutation rate
both: the rate of spontaneous mutations that are not repaired by DNA repair mechanisms // the probability of a particular mutation over time
RNA Pol.
During the initiation step of transcription, what mol. binds the promoter region of a DNA molecule
transformation
The type of genetic exchange between bacterial cells that involves the transfer of small, extrachromosomal pieces of DNA//Many bacteria are naturally capable of taking up endogenous fragments of DNA in their environment, a phenomenon termed
Franklin
Who used the X-ray crystallography technique to examine diffraction patterns of DNA
recombination within the host cell
A serious problem encountered with artificial chromosomes like YACs is
amniocentisis
Includes: parental diagnosis of genetic defects in a fetus/ tests for enzyme and protein deficienceies in a fetus/ analysis for DNA and chromosome defects in a fetus/ taking a sample of amniotic fluid with a needle
Restriction enzymes
break phosphodiester bonds
All above: ds RNA/ss DNA/ss RNA/ ds DNA
Genetic material of a virus may be
It is of uniform diameter and has a highly repetitive structure
What did the X-Ray diffraction patterns initially reveal about the DNA molecule?
neutral and nonpolar
The majority of naturally occurring AA are
the 1860s
Mendel's breeding exp.s
DNA complexed with protein
Chromosomes consist of
amino group, carboxyl group
A peptide bond forms between the ___ of one AA and the ___ of another
a single DNA point mutation leading to the substitution of one AA for another
The diff. btwn normal and sickle cell hemoglobin is based on
genetic code
the concept that a set of 3 nts specifies a particular AA provides the basis for
sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis
Which genetic disease(s) are caused by defective proteins that are not enzymes?
DNA repair mechanisms can fix the mispaired bases
What allows for the base-pairing error rate to be kept very low during replication?
DNA replication is semiconservative
What did Meselson and Stahl's exp. demonstrate?
False
Molecular screening is used to test for Down or Turner Syndrome
True
Sickle Cell disease is more common among people who are of African descent than those who are caucasian
True
The euakaryotic nuclear envelope dissolves during cell division
True
LINEs and SINEs are repetetive sequences in humans that are also retrotransposons that can insert into genes and cause disease.
False
Molecules of mRNA are translated from 3' to 5', which is the opposite direction from which they are made
All above: Physical mapping/ genetic mapping / sequencing entire genomes
A scientist in the field of structural genomics would be involved in which type of study
frequency of recombination between genes
Genetic distances shown on a genetic map are obtained by determining the
F1
In breeding exp.s, the offspring of a mating btwn members of the parental generation is called the ___ generation
dominant factors masked the expression of recessive factors in the F1 generation
Mendel observed that some traits present in the parental generation disappeared in the F1, only to reappear in the F2. He concluded that
All above: two normal Aa parents/ when both parents affected, they are aa and all their progeny will exhibit/ mating between two normal Aa's should produce ~3:1 of normal: recessive
Which of the following is a characteristic of recessive inheritance of a relatively rare trait
chromosome 2
A human autosome
heterogametic
Human males are the ___ sex.
hemizygous
In human males, genes on the X chromosome are
XYY Human
phenotypically a normal male
2
For any gene with multiple alleles, a diploid organism may have a maximum of ___ allels for that locus
Incomplete Dominance (Heterozygote Phenotype)
intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes
Both: different genes interact / a gene has more than two alleles
New phenotypes that change the expected phenotype ratios for a trait can result when
All above: age/environment/ gender/genotype
The expressivity of a gene depends on the organism's
Epistatic
A ___ gene masks the expression of a diff, nonallelic gene
incomplete penetrance
A person who is known to have a particular genotype does not show the phenotype specified by the gene.
Prophase I
crossing over occurs during which stage of meiosis?
do not assort independently during meiosis
Genes that are linked
parts of two of the four homologs
During a crossover event, which would be involved in the exchange of genetic material
linked
To construct a genetic map showing the relative positions of a gene on a chromosome, the genes under study must be
1:1:1:1
If two genes are not linked, the the expressed phenotype ratio resulting from a testcross would be
All above: distant from one another on same chromosome/ on diff. chromosomes/not linked
For a two-point testcross, if the % of recombinants is 50%, the two genes are probably
extent of chiasma interference
The coefficient of coincidence is a way to express
Griffith
Bacterial transformation first observed by (1928)
Housekeeping Genes
are life-supporting genes that are always active in growing cells
negative control
Glucose unavailable in a bacteria cell's environment, the lac operon is under what control?
CAP-cAMP
Which of the following is a positive regulator of the lac operon?
transcription
The control of gene expression in prok. occurs primarily at the level of
activation of transcription
When a promoter element is bound by a positive regulatory protein, the result is
All above: helix-turn-helix/ leucine zipper/ zinc finger
In proteins, DNA binding domain may be which of the following secondary structrues?
degradation of proteins
The protein ubiquitin is involved in
differential splicing
Sex determination in Drosophila is regulated by which cellular mechanism?
short-term gene regulation
The control of enzyme synth. by hormones is an example of
nonsense
A mutation that changes a codon from one that represents an AA to one that signals a chain termination
transversion
pur-pyr to pyr-pur mutation
Frameshift
an addition/deletion of one or two base pairs in a gene causes a ___ mutation
AAA (lys) -> AGA (arg)
Which of the following changes represents a missense mutation?
second site mutation
A suppressor mutation is a
one gene in a million will be mutant in each generation
The mutation frequency for a particular gene is 10^-6. This means that
intercalating agents
Which type of mutagen most commonly causes frameshift mutations
random
Mutagenesis of cells using radiation or a chemical intercalating agent could be use to create ___ mutations in a region of DNA
thymine dimers
UV Radiation creates ___ in DNA
chromosomes are duplicated without a corresponding nuclear division
IN some insect larvae, polytene chromosomes are produced when
pericentric
A(n) ___ inversion involves the centromere.
All above: translocations/ deletions/inversions/duplications
In humans, many types of cancers have been linked to
Fragile X Syndrome
In which condition is the X chromosome prone to breakage in particular sites
transmission genetics
Which area of genetics focuses on how genes are passed from one individual to another
deletion
Pseudodominance occures as a result of which type of mutation?
southern, northern
___ blots are used to study DNA fragments, while ___ blots are used to study RNA fragments
All above: capable of: making large #s of DNA copies very quickly/ making virtually unlimited copies of DNA for study/ making copies of DNA with very little starting material
PCR has revolutionized genetics because
methyl
Bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzyme damage by adding ___ groups to certain nts.
97%
Human genome repetitive DNA percentage?
All above: newborn screening/ carrier detection/ prenatal diagnosis
Genetic testing is generally done for
Functional genomics
The subfield of genomics that deals with gene expression and interaction is
the standardized deviation of observed data from expected data
The chi-squared statistic can best be described as
the probability of getting the observed data distribution by chance
A P value in statistics is
the product rule
Net or overall probabilities are obtained by multiplying separate independant probabilities.
the testis-determining factor gene
the key gene in mammalian sex determination
aneuploid
Turner syndrome individuals are
Both: a lethal allele / mutation in an essential gene
The death of an organism may be caused by
the H antigen
A and B antigens in human blood are produced by the conversion of ___ by the addition of a sugar group.
phenocopy
The child of a woman who was infected with rubella during pregnancy may show a disorder that mimics a genetic defect. The disorder is known as a
pleiotropic
genes that affect many phenotypes are
less likely there will be a recombination event between them
The closer two genes are together on a chromosome
1%
One genetic map unit is equal to a recombination frequency of
decreases as the chance of multiple crossovers increase/ decreases as the distance between genes increases/ is greatest when genes are at a distance of 7 mu or less
the accuracy of map distances based on recombination frequencies
hemizygosity in males allows the effects of genotype pairings to be observed
X-linked genes in humans are easier to study than autosomal genes because
recessive lethal mutations cannot be masked by dominant alleles
Most monoploid individuals do not survive because
an alternation in the linkage relationships of genes
What is the genetic consequence of a homozygous translocation
ORFs
In a sequenced genome, candidate protein-encoding genes are identified by searching for
genes on diff. chromosomes separate during the formation of gametes
In his exp.s, Mendel noted that when two traits are involved in a genetic cross, they are inherited independently of each other. The reason for this is that
alleles of some genes assort together
T.H. Morgan found that among the offspring of genetic crosses, parental phenotypic classes were the most frequent, while recombinant classes were least frequent. This observation led Morgan to conclude that
differ sufficiently btwn individuals to be detected by molecular analysis
DNA markers are DNA regions in a genome that
10 times larger than
Ti plasmids are approximately ___ the related pUC19 plasmids
cannot be rejected
If the results of a chi-square test of a given set of data show a P value greater than 0.05, then the null hypothesis
male
Phenotypically, a female (XX) mouse embryo that was transformed with a small piece of a Y chromosome bearing the SRY gene would develop as
the interaction of two genes with complete dominance, resulting in four diff. phenotypes
Comb shape in chickens is controlled by
crossing over
The reciprocal exchange of homologous regions of chromatids //A chromosome contains alleles for blue eyes and blond hair. After meois the same chromosome contains alleles for blue eyes and brown hair. This occurred because of
if there is a mutation known to be associated with a disease
Genetic tests primarily tell investigators
3.2 billion
Th human genome consists of ~ ___ bp.
True
A linear strand of DNA w/ 2 restriction enzyme cut sites will yield three fragments upon digestion
False
The gentoypic F2 ratio expected in a dyhibrid cross is 9:3:3:1
False
A woman who is heterozygous for the hemophilia allele has a 100 percent chance of having an effected son
False
Sex-limited traits are caused by genes that are on sex chromosomes
True
Both changes in chromosome # and chromosome structure are believed to have resulted in novel genomes, leading to new species
True
The first available drug manufacture with recombinant DNA technology was Insulin marked under the name Humulin
True
Two individuals can be phenotypically identical yet have diff. genotypes for a given trait
True
Y-linked traits are termed holandric
False
In a genotype w/ complete penetrance, less than 100% of individuals with a particular genotype exhibit the expected phenotype
True
Epistasis refers to the phenomenon where a given gene influences the expression of one or more other genes
True
Testcrosses may be used by geneticists to determine if two genes are linked
incomplete dominance
A true-breeding red flowered plant is fertilized by a true-breeding white flowered plant and produces all pink flowered offspring. This is a case of
lacI^s
Which of the following can be a transdominant mutation in partial diploid cells
ploidy
In the insect order Hymenoptera, which includes andt, bees, and wasps, sex determination is based on
calico coat color in cats
Example of genetic mosiac
nucleus and cytoplasm
In euk. cells, receptors for steroid hormones are found in the
they are very close together on the same chromosome
If alleles of diff. genes always maintain their parental assoc. rather than assorting independently into offspring, this is because
All above: every affected person must have at least one affected parent/ an affected Aa will transmit the allele to half of his or her offspring on avg. /the trait is observed in every generation
Which is true of inheritance of a dominant trait?
2pq
In Hardy-Weinberg model, the frequency of heterozygotes is represented as
sutton and boveri
the chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed independently by
signal transduction
the influence of cell surface-binding hormones on gene expression is mediated by a process called
operator
to inhibit transcription of operon genes, the lacI gene product binds to
sex limited
autosomal traits that appear only in one gender are
27
A mendelian cross for a three gene trait is expected to yield __ F2 genotypes
genetic marker
A DNA mutation that gives a distinguishable phenotype for a chromosome or gene is a
shorter
mRNAs synthesized in oocytes that are destined for storage and later translation have ___ poly (A) tails
18
During a hybrid cross involving two linked genes, 18 percent of the resulting gametes showed a recombinant gentoype. These two linked genes are __ map units apart.
2^3=8
How many phenotypic classes may be generated from a three-point test cross?
female
A person with XO
euploid
A human cell containing two sets of 23 chromosomes
Both: the cytogenetic observation of loops in chromosomes / by observing a decrease in the # of viable progeny following genetic crosses
A heterozygous chromosomal inversion can be detected
1/16
the probability that two parents with a family of 4 have 1 girl and 3 boys is
Variable expressivity
Individuals wiht neurofibromatosis may have a range of phenotypes from pigment spots on the skin to tumorlike growths. This is an example of
9:3:4
The agouti color in mice is the result of recessive epistasis, where the F2 phenotypic ratio is
are exceedingly rare
Unlike bacterial operons, euk. operons
True
In an ordered tetrad, if segregation of alleles occurs during meiosis II, a crossover event has occurred between allels and the chromosomal centromere
True
The map distance between two outside genes in a linkage group of three genes can be calculated by adding the map distances between the two adjacent pairs of the three genes
True
For a gene with complete dominance the recessive allele has no effect on the phenotype of a heterozygote
False
The X chromosome determines gender
True
Genes may show 50% recombination either when the genes are on diff chromosomes or when the genes are far apart on the same chromosome
False
In a genotype with complete penetrance, less than 100% of individuals w/ a particular genotype exhibit the expected phenotype
False
Transcriptionally active genes show lower levels of DNA methylaton when compared to transcriptionally inactive genes
palindromic
The recognition sequences for many restriction enzymes are
Northern
In a ___ blot, RNA fragments are separated in a gel and transferred to a support membrane
AT
travels farthest on a sequencing gel
flow cytometry
Which technique can be used to isolate individual chromosomes for the purpose of creating a chromosome library
All above: sickle-cell anemia/huntington disease/hemophilia/cystic fibrosis
Molecular tests that detect the presence of mutations associated with a disease are avaialble for
All above: gender of fetus/if fetus has specific gene mutation/ if chromosomal abnormalities exist in the fetus
Prenatal genetic tests can determine
Both: Shine-Dalgarno sequence /a bacterial promoter
To express mammalian genes in a bacterium such as E. coli, the vector must have
All above: human insulin/human growth hormone/ tissue plasminogen activator
Which of the following human drugs are produced with the help of recombinant DNA technology?
genetic map
Both: the location of genes on chromosomes / the relative distance between genes on chromosomes
on the long arm of chromosome 17
The physical location of the breast cancer gene BRCA1 in the human genome is 17q21. This means that the gene is located
500
Current technology limits the sequencing of DNA to fragments that are a maximum of ___ nt long
chromosome 22
Human chromosome first to be sequenced?
transcriptome
The complete set of mRNA transcripts in a cell is known as
9/16
What proportion of pea plants will produce smooth, yellow seeds (S_Y_) in the F2 generation when two F1 plants an both the genotype Ss Yy, are crossed?
linked genes
found on the same chromosome
Y-chromosome determination
In mammals, gender is determined by
male
XXXY would be phenotypically
one Z and one W chromosome
A female bird has
sex influenced
autosomal traits that appear in both genders but differ between males and females//Pattern baldness, a trait which is caused by an allele that acts as a dominant allele in men but as a recessive allele in women, is a ___ trait
diet
The degree to which symptoms occur in people with phenylketonuria depends mostly on the affected person's
All above: fruit shape in summer squash/ comb shape in chickens / coat color in field mice
Which of the following phenotypes results from the interaction of two or more genes
All above: incomplete dominance/incomplete penetrance/gene interaction/ epistasis
Which of the following will result in modifications to the expected Mendelian ratios
coupling
When two linked alleles on a single chromosome are either both wt or both mutant, the arrangement of the alleles on the chromosome is said to be in
centi-Morgan
a measure of recombination frequency btwn linked genes
non-Mendelian inheritance
All above: inheritance not affected by substituting a nucleus w/ a diff genotype/ in multicellular euk., the results of reciprocal crosses are not the same as reciprocal crosses involving nuclear genes/ ratios typical of Mendelian segregation are not found/ genes cannot be mapped to the chromosomes in the nucleus
inducible
Operons that are ___ are only activated in the presence of a substrate
effectors / transcription regulators
In euk., hormones act as
Eukaryotic gene regulation
Controlled through: All above: mRNA transport/ RNA processing/ mRNA translation/ mRNA degradation
under coordinate control
Eukaryotic genes are often
genotype and phenotype
A mutation in a gene may alter a cell's
Ionizing radiation
creates mutations by causing Both: chromosomal rearrangement / chromosomal breakage
visible mutation
All above: small colony size in yeast/ cloudy plaque morphology in a T-even bacteriophage/ white coat and eye color in rodents / white eye color in Drosophila
transposon
movement of a ___ in a genome may result in All above: frameshift/ deletion/ insertion mutation
Chromosomal mutations
___ can be induced by All above: chemicals/radiation/ normal cellular biochemistry
p
The short arm of a chromosome is called the ___ arm.
chromosomal banding pattern
Which method can be used to create a physical map of a genome
dihybrid cross
A genetic cross in which the inheritance of two traits is observed is called a
27
In the F2 generation, how many phenotypic classes are possible from a trihybrid cross of heterozygotes in which the genes involved show complete dominance (3^n = 3^3), 2^n for phenotypic
have an extra X chromosom
Individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome are aneuploid because they
phenocopy
The sedative thalidomide induces a condition that resembles the genetic disorder phocomelia. This induced condition is a ___ of the genetic disease.
hypostatic
In an interacting gene pair, the gene whose expression is masked by another gene is the ___ gene
eight haploid
During sexual reproduction in Neurospora crassa, fusion of the haploid nuclei of cells with different mating types results in ___ ascospores in an ascus
conjugation
Which type of genetic exchange in bacteria requires cell-to-cell contact?
Both: transformation and conjugation
Which type of genetic exchange in bacteria involves a plasmid?
All: positive/negative/inducible
Under normal conditions in wt E. Coli, the lac operon is under ___ control
5'-lacZ-lacY-LacA-3'
The order of the structural genes in the lac operon is
insertion sequence elements
Composite transposons terminate with
transposition of Ds out of the mutant c gene
In corn, white kernals w/ purple spots form as a result of
conservative transposition
In corn, the mobile controlling element Ac exhibits
yeast
Ty is a transposable element found in the genome of which organism?
inverted repeats
The terminal regions found at either end of an insertion sequence in E. Coli are
nonreciprocal translocation
In a ___, a segment of a chromosome is transferred to a different chromosome w/o a reciprocal exchange of genetic material
euploid
A human cell containing 2 sets of 23 chromosomes
copies of each chromosome
A cell that is tetraploid contains four
autopolyploid
A polyploid cell in which all of the sets of chromosomes come from parents that are of the same species is a(n)
has widespread consequences in the affected person
A mutation that has pleiotropic consequences
Both: may be characterized by mental retardation/ has dark skin due to an accumulation of the skin pigment melanin
A person with PKU
CFTR protein
Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes which enzyme?
Lesch-Nyhan
Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder
nucleosome
DNA-histone complexes
polypeptide, rRNA, tRNA
what does a gene actually code for?
kozak
in euk, the AUG is located in what sequence
transactivators, coactivators, GTFs
the protein classes invovled in the activation of transcription
telophase
During cell division, cytokinesis is completed by the end of
Jacob and Monod
The operon model of gene regulation in prokaryotes was proposed by
at one end
The centromere is located ___ of a teleocentric chromosome
one-gene one-enzyme hypothesis
Significance of Beadle and Tatum's exps?
TATA box
In euk, the initiation complex binds DNA at the
specific recognition of promoter elements
Sigma factor of RNA pol is necessary for
prok is circular, while euk is linear
Chromosome of most prok differ from euk how
ribosome
to hold mRNA and tRNA in the correct positions to enable translation
polypeptides
structural genes code for
translation initiation complex
small ribosomal subunit, an mRNA molecule, and an initiator tRNA molecule
tRNA
role in translation: binds to an mRNA codon and carries the correspoinding AA
degenerate
In genetic code, AAU and AAC code for same AA, code is ___
proteins secondary structure
the order of amino acids is a
diploid
mitosis results in 2 daughter cells with a ___ # of chrosmosomes
Haploid
meiosis results in 4 daughter cells with a ___ # of chros
diplotene
oocytes remain at this stage until ovulation
Prophase II
after telo I, cells pass into
2n
ploidy # of prophase cell
2n (1 chromatid)
What is the ploidy/ how many chromatids in G1 mitosis
2n (2 chromatids)
What is the ploidy/ how many chromatids in S phase
2n (2 chromatids)
What is the ploidy/ how many chromatids in G2
1n (2 chromatids)
What is the ploidy/ how many chromatids in meiosis 1
1n (1 chromatid)
What is the ploidy/ how many chromatids in meiosis 2
Lepotene, Zygotene, Pachene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
Meiotic Prophase I substages
Zygotene
what phase do you see synaptonemal complex//maternal and paternal homology pair together to form bivalents
Pachytene
chromosomes thicken, crossing over occurs
Diplotene
homologs separate but are held together by chiasmata, crossovers can be counted and positions recorded
Diakinesis
when can you see the chromosomes in mitotic prophase 1 best//bivalents more contracted ( 2 biv. produced from 2 chrom pairs)
euchromatin
Which is synthesized first euch. or heterochro.
constiutive
a lacI mutation is
45 chromosomes
a monosomic human cell would contain
47
a trisomic human cell would contain how many chromosomes?
deletion
Cri-du-Chat caused by
Patau
Trisomy 13
euchromatin
most of the genome of an active cell consists of
inheriting one mutant allele of a cancer-causing gene
The hereditary predisposition to cancer is related to
tumor supressor gene
Which type of gene is often mutated in cancer
oncogene
a mutant protooncogene is a
Rous sarcoma/AIDS/ feline leukemia
Retroviruses are responsible for
Regulate cell growth
In Normal cells tumor supressor genes
myc, fos, jun
which of the following is a protooncogene that fxns as a nuclear transcription factor
recessive
mutations in tumor supressor genes are
p53
which of the following is a tumor supressor gene linked to many diff. types of human cancer
transcription factor
IN normal cells, p53 protein acts as a
tumor supressor
the BRCA1 gene is a
cell cycle control/DNA repair/ transcription/ apoptosis
In normal cells, p53 is involved in
mismatch repair
A mutator gene is involved in which
/ 378
Term:
Definition:
Definition:

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