Excelsior Reproductive Health Flashcards

Sexual intercourse
Terms Definitions
A person whose inner sense of sexual identity does not match the biological body
What is true about the sexual response of the older adult?
Prolongued plateau phase
The only 100% effective method of avoiding STD's
A female sexual dysfunction most often associated with physiological factors
An appropriate question for determining sexual health of an adolescent
What questions do you have about sex and your body's development?
Which of the following methods of birth control do not require a prescription: abstinence, birth control pills, spermicides, condoms
All except birth control pills do not require a prescription
Phases of the sexual response cycle
Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
Some characteristics of positive sexual health:
Positive body image, ability to create effective relationships with both sexes, acceptance of responsibility for pleasure and reproduction
A 24 y/o male portrays himself with great masculinity. This is an example of:
gender role
Basic physiological responses during human sexual response
Myotonio and vasocongestion
To assess sexual functioning, encourage the patient to discuss:
sexual concerns
physical problems
sexual functionin
What indicates female sexual excitement
Increased vaginal lubrication
Which of the following is the least effective means of preventing pregnancy:
Coitus interruptus
Calendar method
Body temperature
Mucus method
Coitus interruptus
During the uterine secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, what happens in the absence of pregnance
Endometrium begins to degenerate
Oral stimulation of female genitals
Oral stimulation of male genitals
In which phase does the involuntary climax of sexual tension occur
Involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles when attempting sex
Most effective ways of assisting patients to deal with sexual problems
Recognize their own beliefs about sexuality
What can assist a diabetic man with erectile difficulty
Info about penile prosthesis
Treatment for impotence in a 70 y/o male with a history of unstable anginal should not include:
Viagra - prohibited with nitrate use
When wearing a condom during anal sex, the patient should:
Replace it with a new condom before vaginal sex
An accurate sexual history is most important for which of the following patients:
Bronchial pneumonia
HTN controlled with meds
HTN- meds can cause impotence
Nursing diagnosis for erectile dysfunction:
Sexual dysfunction
Complication of pelvic inflammatory disease
Possible cause of female infertility
myoma of fallopian tube
Assessment of male infertility should include:
When using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of determinging ovulation, it is important to
Take temp QD before getting up
A hystersalpingography evaluates:
tubal patency
What medication is used to treat infertility?
Important risks factors to be discussed during preconception counseling:
Secondhand smoke
Environmental hazards
Poor Nutrition
During the preconceptual female assessment, it is essential to screen for:
rubella immune status
Childbearing decisions include:
Birth plan
Care provider
Birth Setting
A reactive non-stress test means
Fetus has an intact central and autonomic nervous system unaffected by hypoxia
An objective sign of pregnancey
Hegar's sign (softening of uterine isthmus and body at 6-8 weeks)
What statement by a couple undergoing amniocentesis indicates understanding of the test?
"This test will let us know if something is wrong with our baby and we may have to consider ending the pregnancy.
What statement indicates understanding of potential problems after being exposed to a teratogen?
My baby is at risk. Exposure to a teratogen can cause abnormalitites, especially during the months when my baby is growing the fastest.
Prenatal screening test used to detect a neural tube defect such as spina bifida
AFP alpha-fetoprotein
Recommended weight gain during pregnancy:
20-30 pounds
Consequence most frequently d/t smoking during pregnancy
Low birth weight
Adolescent 30 weeks pregnant seeks health care for first time. Most important question?
How do you feel about becoming a mother at thsi time in your life?
A pregnant patient with PKU understands her diet restrictions if she:
Eats a diet low in phenylalanines
Normaly psychological changes in third trimester include:
preparation for birth by buying a layette
An elevated alpha-fetoprotein serum level at 17 weeks indicates a risk for:
A congenital nomaly requiring further testing.
Where should uterus be at 20 weeks
Amniocentesis can determine all of the following except:
chromosomal disorders
Fetal maturity
Neural tube defects
Sex determination
What beverage increases iron absorption?
OJ (d/t vitamin C)
An expected change in pregnant woman's endocrine system:
Increase in size of thyroid
Physiological risks associated with an adolescent mother who does not seek medical care?
insufficient weight gain
Iron deficiency
When giving prenatal education to adolescents, it is best to be:
Simple and direct.
A risk factor for pre-term birth:
Fetal-neonatal risk of pre-eclampsia:
small for gestational age
A priority assessment for the patient receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia?
Monitor deep tendon reflexes
A non-stress test is done to:
evaluate fetal status
Best reason for CVS (chorionic villus sampling) to check for genetic defects
Test is done earlier than others
The prenatal test, alpha-fetoprotein detects:
neural tube defects
Primary intervention for prolapsed cord
relieve pressure on the cord
which apgar is most indicative of poor neonatal status:
low-pitched cry
flecion of elbows and hips
pale blue color
heart rate less than 100
Heart rate less than 100
Which apgar indicates good neonatal status?
heart rate 140
Heart rate 140
A benefit of birthing ball during labor
widening of the pelvis
Cervical dilatation indicative of Stage 1 active phase of labor
A patient receiving Pitocin for the induction of labor develops late decelerations. A priority nursing action:
Stop the pitocin
A laboring patient develops minimal variable decelerations
Document and continue to monitor
Amnioinfusion is done to treat
Which woman would be a candidate for a vaginal birth after c-section:
one prior c-section with a vertical incision
one prior c-section and a low transverse incision
a previous 7 pound baby by c-section without difficulty
prior uterine and abdominal surger
one prior c-section and low transverse incision
Placenta accreta involves the attachment of the chorionic villi directly to the myometrium and the most common complication is:
maternal hemorrhage
Most common fetal position
occiput anterior
The nurse must asses what prior to giving systemic analgesics
cervical dilation
knowledge about fetal risks
Most common type of version
external cephalic
Fetal risk d/t forceps
Which patient should not get a rubella vaccination:
a pregnant 22 y/o w/a neg titer
a nonpregnant 30 y/o w/a negative titer
an adolescent with a neg titer
a pospartum 25 y/o w/a neg titer
pregnant 22 y/o with a negative titer
A nurse would note Ortolani's sign when assessing a newborn for:
congenital hip dysplasia
To which agency would you refer a new mother who is beginning to breastfeed and needs support?
L Leche League
Infants are at greatest risk for which deficiency during the first year?
What are the components of LATCH?
audible swallowing, type of nipple, comfort, and hold
The nurse gives and injection of vitamin K to the newborn to prevent the complication of:
hemorrhagic disease
Which group is at greatest risk for PKU?
Phenylketonuria testing is done to prevent
Mental retardation
You overhear an African American woman say that her baby is greedy. This may mean that the mother thinks the infant
is eating too much
Which data indicate that parents understand how to poison proof their home?
plants are hung from the ceiling
poisonous materials are secured
The typical postpartum oxytocin dose is:
10 units IM
A major factor associated with the development of severe hyperbilirubinemia in infants of 35 or more weeks is
jaundice within the first 24 hours
A priority of care for an infant with a myelomeningocele is the prevention of
During the postpartum period, the mother should consume how many servings of the bread, cereal, rice and past group QD?
Neonatal physical maturity considers which factor?
lanugo characteristics
Biliary atresia
obstruction of the bile duct
A child with PKY should avoid eating
animal meat
a sweat test is ordered as a diagnostic study to determine the presence of which disorder?
cystic fibrosis
To relieve chronic hypoxia, a child with Tetralogy of Fallot could be expected to assume which position?
Squatting/knee to chest
Which symptom, if noted in an infant, would suggest the presence of hirschsprung's disease?
No meconium stool within the first 48 hours of birth
Which goal would be appropriate in the plan of care for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot?
The child will be free of cyanosis during morning care.
The best time to perform postural drainage for a patient with cystic fibrosis?
At least one hour before a meal
the primary purpose of postural drainage is to:
mobilize secretions
A clinical manifestation of hydrocephalus is:
increase in head circumference
Nursing care of a baby with ICP should include:
seizure precautions
Which of the following info should be included when educating a parent about a VP shunt?
malfunctions and infection are common risks
A child with myelomeningocele should be placed in what position to prevent complications postoperatively?
In counseling prospective parents about cystic fibrosis, it is important to note that:
both parents have the gene for a child to develop the disease
When assessing a newborn, which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect Tetralogy of Fallot?
altered level of consciousness
crying, feeding increases cyanosis and respiratory distress
cyanotic in the morning
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse identify as a priority for the infant with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF?)
risk for injury related to increased potential for aspiration
When doing a physical assessment on a neonate with Hirshsprung's disease, the nurse would expect to find:
vomiting and abdominal distension
the primary treatment for an infant with Hirschsprung's disease is:
a temporary colostomy
Which of the following activities would be allowed for a 2 y/o after recent cleft palate repair?
drinking through a straw
drinking from a cup
brishing his teeth
sucking on a pacifier
drinking from a cup
Which of the following is an assessment finding indicative of hip dysplasia?
restriction of abduction on the affected side.
What would be the expected course of treatment in an infant weighing less than 1000g with the diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus?
adecquate respiratroy support
restriction of fluids
administration of prostaglanding synthetase inhibitors (Indocin)
When planning discharge teaching for the family of a child with cerebral palsy, it is important to recognize that:
cerebral palsy is not progressively degenerative
Wehn developing a plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, it is important for the nurse and family to understand that the primary goal is to:
maximize assets and minimize limitations caused by the disorder
The major difference in caring for a child with muscular dystrophy versus a child with cerebral palsy is that muscular dystrophy
Is progressive in nature.
The most common symptom of cardiomyopathy in a pediatric patient that the nurse should assess for is:
All of the following symptoms can be related to Hirschsprung's disease. Which is considered to be the classic sign of the disease?
vomitus tainted with feces
recurring abdominal distention
obstinate constipation
frequent anorexia
recurring abdominal distention
Mary M, 10 y/o, complaints to the school nurse that she has had a headache since she got up this morning and also has a stiff neck. The nurse is aware of Mary's prior diagnosis of an arteriovenous malformaton of the middle cerebral artery. Which would be
make emergency preparations to transport Mary to an acute care facility.
A mother may show the need for further teaching if she states that the cause of her child's cleft lip and palate happened because:
"I did not take my prenatal vitamins."
After D&C, the nurse assesses vaginal bleeding on a peripad, and approximates a saturated pad as about how many mls?
40-60 ml
The nurse assesses for the most common complication after D&C:
hemorrhage and perforation fo the uterus
What is the most common complaint of women seeking relief from menopausal symptoms?
hot flashes
A patient complains of a dull, aching lower back, severe abdominal pain, and fever. The nurse suspects which of the following?
toxic shock syndrome
nonspecific vaginitis
pelvic inflammatory disease
pelvic inflammatory disease
Which childhood disease is associated with orchitis?
The most common complication of orchitis is:
testicular atrophy
All of the following should be included in discharge instructions following a hydrocelectomy except:
use of prescribed pain meds
observe for purulent drainage and notify MD if necessary
keep scrotum elevated until edema is resolved
apply hot compresses to
Apply hot compresses
A male patient complaints of fewver, perineal pain, urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. The nurse suspects prostatitis if the prostate exam by the MD reveals that the prostate gland is:
tender, swollen, and warm to touch
A patient with acute prostatitis has pain and difficulty voiding. He aks the nurse to put in a catheter. The nurse knows that this may complicate the disorder by:
increasing the risk of epididymitis
A patient with prostatic hypertrophy may require a biopsy to rule out what form of cancer?
The nurse is assessing a patient with a past history of BPH for presence of current symptoms related to this disorder. She will assess for
decreased force of urinary stream
A patient with BPH is scheduled for a transrectal ultrasound and a prostate-specific antigen level. These tests are done to:
help rule out the presence of malignancy
What nursing diagnosis would apply in the immediate postop period for a patient after radical prostatectomy for cancer?
fear related to outcome of surgery
Which of the following is not part of the perineal excersis for the post-prostatectomy patient?
tighten the muscles as if trying to prevent urination
contract the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles
tighten the rectal sphincter while relaxing the abd
A post-op TURP patient c/o urinary urgency. The nurse should:
check the catheter tubing for kinks.
CBI is used in TURP patients to promote:
removal of mucous shreds and blood clots after surgery.
Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for patients with a history of:
deepvein thrombosis
The nurse would assess a patient taking HRT for:
calf tenderness or edema
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