Human Anatomy & Physiology Chapters 1-8 Marieb 8th Ed Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Definition of Physiology
The study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.
Description of Macroscopic anatomy
The study of large body structures visible to the naked eye, such as the heart, lungs, and kidneys.

Embryology is a subdivision of anatomy that deals with developmental changes that occur before birth.
True. Embryology is a subdivision of anatomy that deals with developmental changes that occur before birth.
Blood flows in one direction through the heart because the heart has valves that prevent backflow. This phenomenon exemplifies:
the principle of complementarity of structure and function.
Which of the following represents the sum total of all structural levels working together to keep us alive?
Organismal Level
The human body as a whole is enclosed and protected by the integumentary system. This is an example of a necessary life function. What's the main fx of the integumentary system?
Maintaining Boundaries

Metabolism includes breaking down substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP.
True. Metabolism includes breaking down substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP.
Which of the following processes require a receptor, a control center, and an effector?
Homeostatic Control
Which of the two following is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?
blood clotting, high blood pressure, labor contractions, sweating
blood clotting & labor contractions
Positive Feedback Systems: :The result or response enhances the original stimulus, and the response is accelerated.
It is possible for slight anatomical variations to occur in a human body; for example, a nerve or blood vessel may be somewhat out of place, or a small muscle may be missing.
What is the regional term designating the limbs?
The saggital plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
False. The coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
What is a saggital plane?
A vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.
The ventral body cavity is subdivided into which cavities?
The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the:
Femur. The femur articulates with the pelvic girdle, but the ilium, ischium, and pubis of both os coxae form the pelvic girdle.
Mary fractured her pisiform bone in a fall. What part of her body was injured?
Sinuses are found in all of the following bones, except the:

The frontal, maxillary, ethmoid, and sphenoid bones contain the paranasal sinuses. The mastoid bone contains air cells or sinuses.
The eleventh and twelfth ribs are called floating ribs because they lack...
an anterior attachment to the sternum.
The foramen magnum would be found in the ______ bone.
Occipital Bone
The olecranon process would be found on the:
What would you find located in the lacrimal fossa?
Lacrimal Sac
When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the which two foot bones?
talus and calcaneus

A person's body weight is borne primarily by the two largest, most-posterior tarsals.
Which of the following bones would most likely be involved in surgery to remove a tumor on the pituitary gland?
The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone surrounds the pituitary gland.
What is the name of the heel bone?
The crista galli is a projection from which bone?
At its distal end the femur articulates with the:____________
The distal end of the femur forms the knee joint with the tibia and patella.
A common injury in the winter is a fall in which someone hits the back of his or her head on the ice. What bone is most likely to be involved in this type of fall?
How many regions of the vertebral column are there?
Five. The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal sections make up the vertebral column.
Sutures connect all the bones of the skull, except the:
Mandible. The mandible is the only bone in the skull that is not connected to other bones by sutures and is therefore the only mobile bone in the skull.
The "calvaria" of the skull is another name for the:
The "calvaria" of the skull is another name for the cranial vault.
The frontal sinuses are located:
Lateral to the Glabella
Which cranial bones receive the condyle of the mandible?
The temporal bone contains the mandibular fossa that receives the condyle of the mandible and forms the temporomandibular joint.
Which sinuses are in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear?
The mastoid sinuses are in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear.
Which sutures are most likely to contain sutural bones?
The lambdoid suture is the most likely suture to contain suture bones.
Where would a dentist inject lidocaine to prevent pain in the lower teeth?
The mandibular foramen.
n a(n) ____________ the vertebral column is formed from 33 separate bones.
C7 is referred to as the "vertebra prominens" because:
C7 is used as a landmark to count the other vertebrae because its spinous process can be seen through the skin.
The pectoral girdle does not quite satisfy the features of a true girdle because:
posteriorly the medial ends of the scapulae do not join each other.
When a person attempts to break their fall with an outstretched hand, they often wind up with ________.
A Colles' fracture is a fracture in the distal end of the radius that often occurs when a person attempts to break his or her fall with an outstretched hand.
Which of the following is the most common congenital abnormality of the appendicular skeleton?
Dysplasia of the hip is considered the most common congenital abnormality of the appendicular skeleton.
Something with a pH of 5 would _____.
1) :have more H+ ions than OH- ions
2) have more OH- ions than H+ ions
3) have an equal number of H+ and OH- ions
Have more H+ ions than OH- ions

The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of protons in its nucleus.
True. The atomic number of any atom is equal to the number of protons in its nucleus.
Which of the following is true of an isotope?
1) Isotopes have the same number of neutrons, but differ in the number of protons they contain.

2) :Isotopes have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they contain
2. :Isotopes have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they contain
If the pH or temperature of the environment that contains a protein is altered dramatically, then the protein may:
Become Denatured
Atoms of any given element will differ from those of all other elements and provide its unique physical and chemical properties.
Electrons bear a positive charge equal in strength to the negative charge of the proton.
In biochemistry, and thus in the body, the universal solvent is:
What is a buffer?
Stabilizes pH.
True or False.
Colloids/Emulsions are heterogeneous mixtures.
In an ionic bond:
1) atoms share electrons equally.
2) there is a transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to the other.
2. there is a transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to the other.

Polar molecules are electrically balanced, due to the equal sharing of electrons between the atoms of the molecules.
Which chemical reaction involves atoms or molecules combining to form a larger, more complex molecule?

An acidic substance will have a sticky feel.

Enzymes are unchanged in a reaction; they can be reused, and are not needed in large quantities.
The major function of RNA is to carry out the genetic instructions for protein synthesis.

DNA carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by RNA.
What is the name of the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells?
A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint.
An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________.
The radius and ulna along its length
A movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned from posterior to anterior is__________.
T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood.
The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
Prevents Hyperextension of the Knee
What type of joints are cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones ?
The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity.
What type of movement do Synarthrotic joints allow?
Synarthrotic joints permit essentially no movement .
A joint that is known as a suture is found ________.
In the skull only.
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.
The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints.
A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids.
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.
Menisci refer to ________.
semilunar cartilage pads

A nonaxial movement is usually seen at a joint such as a hinge.
Does synovial fluid contain hyaluronic acid?
Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________
lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. (Common/Rare)
Rare because of the ligament reinforcement
The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability.
T/F: Synchondroses are cartilaginous joints.
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is/are damaged as a result?
medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
T/F: Moving the arm in a full circle is an example of circumduction.
T/F: Chondromalacia patellae is hardening of the articular cartilage on the posterior patella surface.
When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, it is called ________.
Are all synovial joints are freely movable?
T/F: Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion.
Which of these joint types affords uniaxial movement?
Hinge .
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the two bones of the hand that articulate to form a saddle joint.
The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb's metacarpal.
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to ________.
The Feet.
T/F: Flexion of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion.
Fibrous joints are classified as ________. (List three joint types)
sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
The following is not a structure found on the ischium:
Ischial Tuberosity
Superior Ramus
Ischial Spine
Lesser Sciatic Notch
Superior Ramus
The ischium articulates with both the ilium and the pubis.
The axial skeleton contains ________.
the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.
T/F: The layman's name for the scapula is the collarbone.
False. Shoulder blade is the layman's term for the scapula.
The bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal is the ________.
Medial Cuneiform
T/F: The foramen magnum goes through the occipital bone.
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the others in that ________.
They have facets for attachment of ribs.
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
Radius and Ulna
Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?
T/F. The dens articulates with the axis.
False. The dens articulates with the atlas. Allows you to nod your head from side to side to inicate "no".
A bone that contains diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone is the ________.
T/F: All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.
T/F: Each intervertebral disc possesses a nucleus pulposus and an annulus fibrosus.
T/F: A temporal bone protrusion riddled with sinuses is the styloid process.
A structure found on the femur is the ________.
Deltoid Tuberosity
Linea Aspera
Linea Aspera
T/F: The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck.
False. It's the surgical neck.
T/F: A Colle's fracture is a break in the distal end of the radius.
The body or centrum of the thoracic vertebrae are _______
Heart Shaped
The vertebral foramen of the lumbar vertebrae are _______
Triangular shaped (Has a large body too)
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
Appositional growth.
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
Bone formation.
T/F: Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation.
T/F: Each intervertebral disc possesses a nucleus pulposus and an annulus fibrosus.
The short bone that attaches to the third metacarpal is the ________.
Capitate. Mnemonic for all of the metacarpals...The names of the carpals are best learned by using a mnemonic device and starting with the smallest carpal that is located near the fifth metacarpal (pinky side of the hand). One mnemonic is, "Please hang Carol from the trapeze, she likes thrills" and the bold face letters are the first letters of the names of the carpals in order:
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
Appositional Growth
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
Bone formation
T/F Bone tissue in the skeleton of a human fetus is completely formed at six months' gestation.
T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone.
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone growth during infancy and childhood?
Growth Hormone
T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
Cartilage is found in strategic places in the human skeleton. What is responsible for the resilience of cartilage?
High Water Content
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________. (2 things)
blood vessels and nerve fibers
Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels?
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________.
-Osteoblasts & Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts & Osteoclasts
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
The structural unit of compact bone is _______
The Osteon
The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________.
The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________
T/F: Mesenchymal cells are one of the four cell types that populate bone tissue in adults.
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________.
Perforating (Sharpey's ) fibers
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________.
A condition that produces a reduction in bone mass sufficient to compromise normal function is:
Osteoporosis, or porous bone, occurs when the rate of bone reabsorption exceeds the rate of bone formation. The loss of bone mass makes bones so porous and weakened that they become deformed and prone to fracture.
True/False: All bone surfaces in the body are covered by periosteum.
False. Periosteum does not cover sesamoid bones or the articular surfaces of bones, and it does not extend around tendon and ligament insertions on bone.
True/False: During fetal development intramembranous ossification takes place in fibrous connective tissue membranes.
True. Intramembranous ossification begins at approximately the eighth week of development. Cells cluster within the mesenchymal membrane and become osteoblasts (bone-forming cells).
Mary is 50 years old. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals that portions of her skeleton show signs of osteoporosis. After reviewing the test results, her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone is prescribed for Mary?
The bones of the skeleton store energy reserves as lipids in areas of:
Yellow Marrow. Yellow marrow is adipose tissue where energy is stored in the fat cells.
The cells that maintain mature compact bone are:

Osteocytes are mature bone cells that are embedded in the matrix.
The lacunae of bone contain:
1) Osteblasts
2) Osteoclasts
3) Osteocytes
Lacunae are small pockets found between narrow sheets of calcified matrix, and osteocytes (bone cells) are found in lacunae.
True/False: The process of bone growth at the epiphyseal plate is similar to endochondral ossification.
True. In a long bone, bone growth and elongation occur at the epiphyseal plate where new cartilage is formed and eventually calcified by osteoblasts (the bone-forming cells. The osteoblasts later mature into osteocytes
The two types of osseous tissue are:
Compact Bone & Spongy Bone
When have long bones reeached their adult length?
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone.
T/F: Intramembranous ossification begins within a connective tissue membrane.
True. Some flat bones form from a membrane by intramembranous ossification.
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would occur in the:

The parts of a long bone include the diaphysis, or shaft, and epiphysis, or ends.
Growth of a cartilage in which the chondrocytes within the matrix become active and proliferate is known as:
Growth from inside out is interstitial growth.
Osteocytes maintain contact with the blood vessels of the central canal through:
The lacunae and central canal are continuous through the connection of canaliculi.
What type of bone (spongy/compact) contains true osteons?
Only compact bone contains osteons.
Which of the following characteristics of skeletal cartilage limits its thickness?
1) It has a girdle of perichondrium that resists outward expansion when it is compressed.
2):It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium tha
2) :
It is avascular and receives most of its nourishment from the perichondrium that surrounds it.
The menisci of the knee are made of:
___________ bones act to alter the direction of tendon pull.
Sesamoid bones act to alter the direction of tendon pull.
T/F: Vitamin D is stored in the matrix of bones.
A narrow, slit-like opening in a bone is referred to as a:
Which structure anchors the periosteum to the underlying bone?
Perforating fibers, also known as Sharpey's fibers, anchor the periosteum to the bone.
Where is bone marrow is routinely sampled in an adult?
Bone-forming cells originate from:
Osteoblasts that lay down bone tissue originate from osteoprogenitor cells
The twisting of a long bone is prevented by:
Circumferential lamella expands all around long bones and prevents the twisting of long bones. Lamella of Haversian systems are also effective in resisting twist. The alternating arrangement of collagen fibers among lamella layers of any kind resists torsion.
Hydroxyapatite in bone matrix that gives bone its hardness is primarily composed of:
Calcium phosphate is the most abundant hydroxyapatatite.
Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of:
Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of fibrous membrane and hyaline cartilage.
The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax
T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated.
T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore there are no sensory receptors in the skin.
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?
The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
T/F: Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.
accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.
by hormones, especially androgens
T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis.
T/F: The outermost sheath of a hair follicle is the connective tissue root sheath.
The dermis has how many layers?
Which of the cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?
Meissner's corpuscles
The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of __________different cell shapes found in_____ distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function.
The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of __FOUR__different cell shapes found in_FIVE____ distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function.
The most important factors influencing hair growth are ________.
nutrition & hormones
T/F: Destruction of the matrix of the hair bulb would result in its inability to produce oil.
T/F: During the resting phase of hair growth, the matrix is inactive and the follicle atrophies.
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
By using the rule of 9s.
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.
diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?
in the axillary and anogenital area
T/F A physician is often able to detect homeostatic imbalances in the body by observing changes in the skin color.
T/F Ceruminous glands are modified merocrine glands
T/F Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes.
A hypodermic needle is injected into the skin. Identify the first integumentary structure through which the needle will pass.

A hypodermic needle would first pass through the superficial layer of the skin, the epidermis, then the two layers of the dermis, the papillary layer and the reticular layer, before penetrating the hypodermis.
Sebaceous glands are located all over the body except for these two areas:
Sebaceous glands occur over the entire body, with the exception of the palms and soles of the feet.
Sebaceous glands belong to which class of glands?
Sebaceous glands are simple branched alveolar glands with several alveoli opening into a single duct.
T/F: The body hair of women and children is the fine, short, vellus variety, while the adult male's body hair is the terminal variety.
The dermis is primarily composed of which tissue type?
Dense irregular connective tissue

The deeper reticular layer, which accounts for about 80% of the thickness of the dermis, is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.
T/F: The superficial layer of the skin, the epidermis, is composed of thick keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
What is the primary function of melanin?
Melanin forms a protective layer that screens out a portion of the sun's cancer-causing UV rays.
Which is the correct sequence of epidermal layers of thick skin, deep to superficial?
In thick skin, the cell layers, ordered from deep to superficial, are: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. Mnemonic: Bill Shagging Ginnie's Love Child. Basale, Spinosum, Granulosum, Lucidum, Corneum
T/F: Dermal papillae are fingerlike projections found on the superficial surface of the epidermis.
False. Dermal papillae are fingerlike projections found on the superficial surface of the dermis.
Does the Dermis contain keratinocytes?
No. The dermis possesses all the cells that one would expect to find in connective tissue: mast cells, fibroblasts, macrophages, and scattered white blood cells.
Which epidermis components possesses a waterproofing glycolipid that functions in preventing water loss?
The lamellated granules contain a waterproofing glycolipid that is secreted into the intercellular space and is the major factor for slowing water loss across the epidermis.
Which human integumentary system glands is believed to be analogous to the sexual scent glands of an animal?
Apocrine glands start to function at puberty under the influence of androgens, their activity is increased by sexual foreplay, and they enlarge and recede with the phases of a women's menstrual cycle.
Is the hypodermis part of the integumentary system?
No. The hypodermis, deep to the skin, shares some of the skin's functions, but it is not a part of the integumentary system.
What is the most immediate threat to life from serious burns?
The immediate threat to life from serious burns is a catastrophic loss of body fluids, which, in turn, can lead to fatal circulatory shock.
Which strata is absent in thin skin?
The stratum lucidum appears in thick skin but not in thin skin.
Which structures are primarily responsible for fingerprints?
Epidermal ridges and sweat pores
Which of thethick skin strata is the thickest?
The superficial stratum corneum is many cell layers thick, much thicker than any other epidermal layer.
Is the epidermis vascular or avascular?
The epidermis is avascular and has to obtain nutrients from the underlying connective tissue in the dermis.
A possible cause of rosacea is:
the same bacterium that causes peptic ulcers
T/F: The Langerhans' cell is a fixed macrophage and part of the immune system.
What is the function of merkel cells?
Merkel cells function as sensory receptors for touch.
Keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are known as:
Keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are known as prickle cells because of their spiny appearance under the microscope from an artifact produced by staining procedures.
T/F: Fingerpints represent the sweat patterns left by dermal ridges.
Striae in the skin are caused by:
dermal tears
Overexposure of UV light will increase/depress the immune system.
Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.
T/F: Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
The primary function of adipose tissue is:
Nutrient storage.
T/F:Sweat glands are apocrine glands.
False. Sweat glands are exocrine glands.
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.
Pseudostratified columnar
What are glycosaminoglycans?
Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are combinations of proteins and sugars found in the extracellular matrix.
T/F: Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.
In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from _________.
Stem Cells
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________.
Collagen Fibers
T/F: Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations.
Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________.
Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified functionally into what three categories?
functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.
Elastic cartilage
The first step in tissue repair involves ________.
T/F Macrophages are found in areolar and lymphatic tissues.
T/F Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands.
________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells.
Goblet Cells
T/F "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.
T/F: Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.
T/F: Collagen fibers provide very little tensile strength.
False. Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.
Matrix is composed of:.
fibers and ground substance
T/F Achilles was wounded by damage to the tendon connecting his calf muscles to his heel. This and all tendons are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.
T/F: Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection.
Are blood vessels found d in the matrix of cartilage or bone?
A gene can best be defined as ________.
a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
T/F: Final preparation for cell division is made during the cell life cycle subphase called G2.
Question 3 answers
Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to _________.
Changes in the environment.
Some hormones enter cells via ________.
receptor-mediated endocytosis
T/F: Cells in humans can be as long as 3 meters.
False. Cells in humans can be as long as 1 meter.
The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is ________.
Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in a(n)______________solution.
blood cells in a hypertonic solution
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
The plasma membrane is ________.
the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
The main component of the cytosol is ________.
Extracellular matrix is ________.
the most abundant extracellular material
If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.
The functions of centrioles include what in mitosis?
organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
T/F Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly as many chromosomes as the parent cell.
T/F: The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is metaphase, prophase, anaphase, and telophase.
False. The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
T/F: The genetic information is coded in DNA by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate molecules.
T/F Telomeres are the regions of chromosomes that code for the protein ubiquitin.
In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored ________.
In the smooth ER.
T/F Mitochondria contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
T/F: Phospholipids are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
swell and burst
T/F Aquaporins are believed to be present in red blood cells and kidney tubules, but very few other cells in the body.
T/F Only one cell type in the human body has a flagellum.
T/F A gene can best be defined as a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules is a principle of the _______________model.
Fluid-Mosaic Model
T/F The spindle is formed by the migration of the chromatin.
T/F In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from -50 to about +50 millivolts.
Some hormones enter cells via ________.
receptor-mediated endocytosis
T/F Pressure caused by gravity is necessary for any filtration pressure to occur in the body.
Enzymes called _________ destroy the cell's DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death to the cell
T/F Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide, but cancer cells fail to undergo apoptosis.
If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA would be ________.
T/F DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication.
T/F Hyperplasia generally means that an organ will increase in size due to the excessive formation of extracellular fluids.
Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in an __________solution.
T/F Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis.
T/F The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.
T/F When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential.
T/F Alpha particles, although relatively weak energy particles, are second only to smoking as a cause of lung cancer.
________ is fat-soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
Vitamin D
A chain of 25 amino acids would be called a ________.
Is water an electrolyte?
T/F No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.
T/F Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic mass.
T/F: A solution contains solvent in small amounts and solute in larger quantities.
False. A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
A long chain of simple sugars would be a ________.
T/F Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
False. Enzymes lower the activation energy.
T/F Emulsions and colloids are the same thing.
T/F Lipids are a poor source of stored energy.
Fibrous proteins are very stable/unstable and soluble/insoluble in water. ________.
Fibrous proteins are very stable and insoluble in water.
The chemical symbol O=O means ________.
The atoms are double bonded.
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with the (absorption/release) of energy.
Release of energy
T/F DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
T/F Hydrogen bonds are comparatively strong bonds.
In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. This liquid must be a ________.
T/F Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide.
T/F The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief difference between mixtures and compounds.
T/F Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.
The genetic information is coded in DNA by ________.
the sequence of the nucleotides.
An atom with a valance of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.
13 electrons
T/F Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons.
T/F A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis.
T/F Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds.
No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.
Many plasma proteins may function as _________.
A coenzyme is....
A substance that enhances the action of an enzyme. (An enzyme is a protein that functions as a catalyst to mediate and speed a chemical reaction).
T/F Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.
T/F The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.
T/F Subdivisions of anatomy include gross, regional, systemic, and surface.
________ cavities are spaces within joints.
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:

1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ
Joints are accordingly classified into two main categories:
1) fibrous and cartilaginous joints where two bones are separated by a deformable intermediate and....
2. synovial joints where one surface slides freely over another.
Which joint is a "cartilage sandwich"?
SynChondrosis: (think s=sandwich...chondrosis=cartilage.)

We have already mentioned the joint between the bony shaft and cartilage at the ends of long bones. This is a synchondrosis, a cartilage sandwich with bone on either side: bone and cartilage fit together perfectly and the whole thing is cup shaped. If movement occurs the growing bone will be damaged (slipped epiphysis) and this is countered by putting in a long nail to fix it again.
There is only One syndesmosis joint in the body.... where?
the inferior tibio-fibular joint. In this type there is a little movement, limited by a tight ligament.
Synovial Joints
surfaces slide over each other. The sliding surfaces are covered with a thin layer of cartilage. The joint cavity is sealed by a synovial membrane which secretes synovial fluid, a lubricant and nutrient. Around this, in turn, is a tough fibrous joint capsule which keeps the ends of the bones in proper orientation. This is often locally thickened to form joint ligaments. The synovial cavity is very small between articular surfaces but larger round the edges where it may form a bursa, a sack-like extension which may be in contact with the joint cavity.
Hinge and pivot joints are types of:
Fibrous Joints
Synovial Joints
Both hinge and pivot joints are synovial joints.
Hinge ex) Elbow & Interphalaangeal joints

Pivot ex) Axis & Dens; proximal radioulnar joint
Main Function of Simple Squamous Epithelial Tissue
Diffusion and filtration.

Found in kidney glomeruli, lining of heart, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and serosae
Main Function of Simple Cuboidal Epithelial Tissue
Secretion and Absorption

Present in kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands, and ovary surfaces
Main Function of Simple Columnar Epithelial Tissue
Absorption and Secretion

Cilliated and Noncilliated

Digestive tract, gallbladder, small bronchii, uterine tubes, and some regions of uterus
Main Function of Pseudostratified Columnar
Secretion and Propulsion of Mucus

Cilliated and Noncilliated

Male sperm carrying ducts and trachea
Main Function of Stratified Squamous
Protection of areas from abrasion

Forms the external part of the skin's epidermis and lining of the esophagus, mouth, and vagina
Transitional Epithelia has several cell layers and stretches to permit the distension of the ___________
urinary bladder
A gland, one or more cells that makes and secretes an aqueous fluid, is classified by:
1) Site of product release--endocrine or exocrine

2) Relative number of cells forming the gland... unicellular or multicellular
Endocrine glands _____________(have/do not have) ducts.
Do not have ducts...ductless

Produce hormones

Secretions include amino acids, proteins, glycoproteins, and steroids
Which are there more of in the body.. exocrine or endocrine glands?
Exocrine glands
How do exocrine glands secrete their products?
Onto body surfaces or into body cavities

Such as mucus, sweat, oil, and salivary glands
These glands have their products secreted by exocytosis and include the pancreas, sweat, and salivary glands.
These glands have their products secreted by the rupture of gland cells and include sebaceous glands.
Halocrine glands (Think teenagers have halatosis...and acne (sebaceous glands)).
What is the function of loose connective tissue?
Wraps and cushions organs, important role in inflammation,

Widely distributed
What are tendons and ligaments made up of (type of connective tissue)?
Dense Regular Connective Tissue
What type of connective tissue is the dermis, submucosa of the digestive tract, and fibrous organ capsules made up of?
Dense Irregular Connective Tissue
Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary, which is/are involuntary?

Involuntary--Cardiac, Smooth
Nerve tissue arises from which of the three primary germ layers? (Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm)
Muscle, connective tissue, endothelium and mesothelium arise from which of the three primary germ layers?
Mucosa arise from which of the three primary germ layers?
Mucosa arise from the endoderm
What are Langerhans' Cells? What do they help with?
Epidermal macrophages that help activate the immune system.
Ceruminous glands are modified _________glands that secrete cerumen (ear wax).
Apocrine glands
What is the term for pale, fine body hair found in children and the adult female?
What are the three major types of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma--most common, least malignant

Squamous Cell carinoma--scalp, ears, and lower lip...grows rapidly/mestasizes

Melanoma--most dangerous...highly metastatic
Three types of skeletal cartilage are?
1) Hyaline--most abundant... articular, costal, respiratory, nasal

2) Elastic--ear and epiglottis

3) Fibrocartilage--menisci of knee and intervertebral discs
Bones of the wrist and ankle are classified as____________
Short bones
The sternum and most skull bones are classified as:
Flat bones
The vertebrae and hip bones are classified as
Irregular bones
A Ramus is a:

-sharp slender projection

- armlike bar of a bone

-small rounded projection
Armlike Bar
A trochanter is:
1) large, blunt, irregular surface
2)small rounded projection
3)any bony prominence
1) large, blunt irregular surface
Put the 4 stages of bone healing in order:

A) Hematoma formation
B) Bone remodeling
C) Fibrocartilaginous Callus
D) Bony Callus Formation
A) Hematoma
B) Fibrocartilaginous Callus
C) Bony Callus
D) Bone Remodeling
What is the most deep of the skull bones that forms the bony area between the nasal cavity and the orbis?
Ethmoid Bone
What are the names for C1 and C2??
C1 is Atlas

C2 is Axis
Does C1 or C2 have the dens?
C2 (axis) does... it's for rotation with the atlas.
/ 348

Leave a Comment ({[ getComments().length ]})

Comments ({[ getComments().length ]})


{[ comment.comment ]}

View All {[ getComments().length ]} Comments
Ask a homework question - tutors are online