SCWS Test Bank Questions Flashcards

United States Navy
Terms Definitions
Stock Weld
is the exact placement of the cheek against the stock of the rifle. The head should be as erect as possible so Seabees look straight out the aiming eye and straight through the rear sight aperture.
Warning order
is issued to alert units that will participate in the planned moved. It states the general purpose of the convoy, the destination, the type of movement, and the approximate schedule.
Define camouflage:
Anything you use to keep yourself, your equipment, and your position from looking like what they really are. You can use natural and man-made materials for camouflage.
Heat stroke is:
This is a medical emergency and can be fatal if not treated promptly and correctly. It is caused by a failure of the body's cooling mechanisms. Inadequate sweating is a factor.
Identify the Symptoms of Heat stroke:
Check for flushed, hot and dry skin, dizziness, confusion, headaches, seizures, nausea, rapid respiration, and rapid and weak pulse.
Look for sudden unconsciousness or collapse.
The RRR DAT gathers two types of information: the locations of _______________ and __________________.
Pavement damage
Company Commanders use a level ____to track a project’s progress
Safety plans prevent:
Personal injury, material and equipment damage
What is station #2 in a personnel decontamination site?
Overboot and hood Decon
How many M43A1 detectors can be attached to one M42 alarm ?
What type of delivery system uses compressed air to disseminate chemical agents?
At what level of decontamination do you spray down equipment and perform a Personal wipe-down (without changing CPO Suits or setting up Decon Lines)
Blood agents enter the body through?
Pure Energy Radiation is:
What is the frequency range of the RT-1523?
30 - 87.975 MHz
For what purpose is the SB 22/PT used in field communications?
Interconnecting voice circuits
The COMSEC mission for monitoring communications for security purposes goes by what codename?
What is the maximum number of vehicles in a unit column?
What determines the speed a convoy travels at?
speed of the slowest vehicle
A configured standard container is________ and contains _________?
20’Lx 8’Wx 8’H
The color code for this road condition is:
Relatively safe from hostile activity
How many categories of HAZMAT are there?
What are the qualities of the modern Navy/Marine Corps team that make it so capable of implementing our nations defense policies?
Which principle of war involves concentrating combat power at a decisive time & place?
Amphibious Warfare, Expeditionary Warfare & Littoral Operations are all examples of?
Naval operations
Which area of naval doctrine is defined as “the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned forces in the accomplishment of a mission?
Naval command and control
Who has responsibility for the safety of personnel and equipment in the command ?
The term “confined space” is defined as:
a.     A space not intended for frequent entry.
b.    A space that could have limited air flow or may be oxygen deficient.
c. A space where poisonous gasses can accumulate.
Who can certify a Confined space for safe entry?
A certified Gas Free Engineer or Confined Space Program Manager
When should a person be entered into the hearing conservation program?
When they are exposed to a noise level greater than 84dbA.
The form OPNAV 5100/11 Report of Unsafe Unhealthful Working Conditions is used to:
Report of unhealthful conditions that are not being properly corrected by the chain of command.
What are the symptoms of hypothermia?
Look for shivering (the body's attempt to generate heat).
Look for faint or irregular pulse.
Look for drowsiness, mental slowness, stiffness, and uncoordinated movement with minimal function.
Look for shock, glassy eyes, slow and shallow breathing, and weak or undetectable pulse.
Check for unconsciousness.
Deep frostbite (freezing) preceded by superficial frostbite involves:
freezing of the tissue below the skin, and possibly even muscles and bone.
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Black - represents man-made features such as buildings, roads, trails, power lines, mines, and towers
TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
Common Battery Signaling (CBS) setting is used where power for signaling is provided by a switchboard.
There are two types of COMSEC keys, referred to as:
TEK's and KEK's
P PRIORITY is a precedence significant within the organization (troop movement, displacements, tactical maneuvers, position reports, ammo reports). Action is to be taken within:
three hours from the time of receipt.
(BT) is used to separate the heading of the message from the text. What does BT stand for?
Break (BT)
The 4 Classifications on a message are:
While on Patrol, report any enemy activity using a _________ report.
As the enemy approaches an LP/OP, the security post personnel give warnings and observe the enemy strength, actions, and routes of approach. They avoid _______ and ________ as the enemy closes.
Tactical wire entanglements are sited parallel to and along the friendly side of the __________. They are used to break up enemy attack formations and to hold the enemy in areas : ___________ .
final protective line
covered by the most intense defensive fire.
Protective wire is normally constructed using the _________fence or
the __________fence.
triple standard concertina
double apron
If contact is made with the enemy during a patrol, they must conduct what?
Immediate action drills
What are the four types of IDF missions?
Adjust Fire
Fire for Effect
Suppress Fire
Immediate Suppression.
DANGER CLOSE situation: Mortars within ____m, artillery within _____m, or naval guns within _____m.
What is the EAP?
Emergency Action Plan
COC personnel must do whatever is necessary to ensure that enemy does not take possession of usable COMSEC.
What frequency is the AN/PRC-150?
What is HF Data?
The PRC-150 is the recent HF radio that is used to transmit and receive data in ciphered text.
WMT (Wireless Messaging Terminal) is the program used which basically merges the HF radio with Microsoft outlook.
What is NSN?
The NSN (National Stock Number) is a 13‑digit Stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC)
What is the AEL?
Allowance Equipage List, are prepared for various categories of equipage, and operating systems. Items described in an AEL generally are operating space items, such as equipment in the shipfitter or electrical shop.
What is NIS?
Not in Stock
Items considered essential for the protection of life, requiring custodial signature, and special management control, are classified as
Controlled Equipage
What are the duties of the S-1?
Maintain custody and control of classified material, and registered publications.
Provide sample messages
Pay and Service Records
SGLI, Page 2
The ____ Officer is the communications officer.
What are the duties of Medical?
Shots / Immunizations
Medical records
Disinfect Water bulls
A major mishap involving a fatality or sexual assault/rape of a civilian by a military member would likely be reported using an______
What are the 4 elements in a MAGTF?
(1) Command Element (CE).
(2) Ground Combat Element (GCE).
(3) Aviation Combat Element (ACE).
(4) Combat Service Support Element (CSSE).
Who is responsible for ensuring all workplaces receive a general safety inspection at least annually?
Who has the responsibility for planning all work assignments with full consideration of the required protective equipment and safeguards that will be required?
Company Commander
Death from a mishap or the complication arising as a result of a mishap is the definition of a/an :
Fatal injury or occupational illness
The final responsibility for ensuring that an investigation of a mishap is completed and that a report is submitted rests with the
Parent Command
Each command must develop a written guideline covering respirator selection, care, issue and use; this guideline is called a/an :
Standard Operating Procedure
A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar equipment in a/an
Off or safe position
Giving an ________person any food or drink by mouth can cause vomiting. If the victim vomits, the vomited material may enter the lungs. This could cause the victim to choke to death
_________burns are caused by clothing fires, contact with boiling water, and contact with exposed electrical wires to name a few.
Never use any chemical antidotes such as baking soda or alcohol when treating burns of the ______, and do not try to neutralize chemical agents.
When purifying water, how many iodine tablet(s) are added to 1 quart of water?
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Ice crystals on the skin :
Becoming acclimated to the climate, by wearing warm layered clothing, and by maintaining good discipline and training will help prevent
Cold Injury
The MK19 heavy machine gun does not fire an______.
Employ _________ to slow down the enemy when reaching the FPL.
Assign a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF).
Ensure the PDF covers the most likely ___________.
avenues of approach.
________is an alert status that requires all personnel to be at 100%
BAS is:
Battalion Aid Station
If an M256 kit is available (with negative results), what are the unmasking procedures?
Disarm several Seabees
Unmask for them for 5 minutes
Remask and monitor Seabees for 10 minutes.
If no symptoms appear give the “all clear”.
Send a NBC-1 report with a _______ precedence.
What are the 3 types of Convoys?
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities:
Posting the warning flag
Trail Officer
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities:
Notifying proper authorities and post traffic control
Advance Officer
__________ is the component of COMSEC which results from all
measures designed to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation by means other than cryptographic analysis.
Transmission security
___________ is placing terrain obstacles between the radio antenna and the enemy. This reduces the risk of interception and radio direction finding operations.
Terrain masking
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Caliber: 5.56 mm
Muzzle velocity: 3,100 fps
Maximum effective rate of fire (semiautomatic): 45 rpm
When equipped with a 40-mm grenade launcher, the M16 rifle becomes the_____, and loses
its identity as the M16 rifle.
Characteristics of the M203 :
Area target range: 350 meters
Characteristics of the M9 :
Maximum Range: 1800 meters
Characteristics of the M240B :
Maximum range: 3725 meters
Maximum effective range (area target): 1800 meters
Rates Of Fire:
Rapid: 200 rpm
Characteristics of the 240B :
Rapid fire can be delivered for ___ minutes before barrel must be changed.
Characteristics of the 240B :
Cyclic fire can be delivered for _______ before barrel must be changed.
one minute
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition :
______ cartridges are used against lightly armored targets where armor piercing effects are desired.
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition :
_________ cartridges are used for desired armor piercing effects
combined with fire-producing (incendiary) effects.
Armor-piercing incendiary
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition :
___________ are used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and during training.
Tracer cartridges
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Tripod Mount (with T&E):
44 lbs.
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Sustained:
40 rpm or less
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Length: Barrel:
45 inches
CCI gear is issued to E-7 and above via a _______.
SF 153
How many M500s are in a Battalion TOA?
How many M9s are in a Battalion TOA?
How many AN/PVS-7Cs are in a Battalion TOA?
What is an HM?
What is a BM?
Boatswain's Mate
What is an MA?
What is a MR?
Machinery Repairman
What are the various containers used the the NCF?
ISO (Configured and Standard)
Flat rack
Half Height
Kit Boxes
Mount out Boxes
What is the MIP?
Maintenance Index Page
In terms of 3M, what does RAR stand for?
Recorded Accomplishment Rate
What does T&E stand for?
Traversing and Elevating
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Ammunition for the MK 19 MOD 3
HE Color:
Yellow or gold olive in color
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Dummy Round Color is:
Yellow or gold olive with an indented case
What weapon is Issued as a round of ammunition?
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The _____ practice round fuze arms between 14 to 27 meters
A ________ Fire Mission is used to engaging a point target.
Fixed Fire
In hot, humid climates inspect a machine gun frequently for signs of rust.
Keep the machine gun free of moisture and lightly oiled with_____.
Like the M2, the M3 tripod is also used for the MK-19, however, the MK-19 also uses the _____ cradle.
Once an automatic weapon position is occupied, the machine gun must be ___________ensuring that the assigned mission (PDF/FPL) is covered.
manned at all times
Every time the weapon is moved, a new ________ will be made.
range card
Always have a machine gun laid on the assigned_____, ready to fire.
sector of fire
Dig grenade sumps in fighting positions as deep as entrenching tool at about a __-degree angle.
What does ROE stand for?
Rules of Engagement
In Alfa Company, what does DTO stand for?
Direct Turnover
A SIXCON will hold ____ gallons of either ____ or ____.
________ containers have closed sides and a tail gate end. They are used for drummed oil/lubricants and steel stocks.
What does MIPR stand for?
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)
What is NORS?
What does it indicate?
Non Operational Ready Supply,
equipment is broken and parts not available for 3 days or more.
The A3 is the:
Alfa Co. Operations Chief (EOCS)
The A4 is the
Alfa Co. Maintenance Chief (CMCS)
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
unserviceable/repairable – good
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Heads from the Galley?
100 Meters
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Garbage pits from water supplies?
100 Meters
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Garbage pits from messing?
90 Feet
What are the 4 phases of ADR?
Air Field
ADR Methods:
Folded Fiberglass Matting (FFM)
AM2 Matting
Crushed Stone
The _____ Bridge is 12.5 ft wide can span up to 210 ft.
What is the length and width of a 1-man fighting position?
1 M16 long by 1 M16 wide
In ORM, RAC ___ is the most severe and RAC ____ is the least severe.
What are the 4 goals of ORM?
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
Accept no unnecessary risk
Anticipate and manage risk by planning
Make decisions at the right level
What are 6 types of eye protection?
Safety Glasses
Goggles (with holes – dust, without holds – fluids)
Permanent/temporary shields/walls
Face Shield – face protection only (use when handling acids)
Welding Shield – protect from UV rays
Over-spectacle glasses – wear over your prescription glasses
_________ is to verify equipment listed in Part 1 of the COSAL against actual equipment at the site; report discrepancies via the Allowance Change Request.
What is OPTAR 02:
Repair Parts (CESE)
_______ is a supply requisition for non-NSN materials.
NAVSUP 1250-2
______ is a Requisition form.
DD 1348
A ______ is a report of discrepancies – records packing or shipping errors, items received damaged.
SF 364
In supply, what does TAP stand for?
TAP – TOA As Packed – inventory per container
Classes of Supply:
Class 1 is:
Subsistence (food, etc)
Classes of Supply:
Class 2 is:
Individual Equipment (weapons, tents, tools)
What does FIE stand for?
Fly In Echelon
What does MB stand for?
Main Body
What does a 463L pallet weigh empty?
290 pounds
What is Sleeper shoring?
Used to prevent the vehicle from bouncing up and down
Definable Feature of Work – is a single activity (one trade) less than ___ days in duration.
How do you calculate a delay factor (DF)?
How do you calculate a Manday Equivalent?
ME = Daily Work hours / 8
What is the M17?
M17 – DECON Pressure washer
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C4?
C4: Requires additional resources and training
What does CREO 1 mean?
What does CREO 3 mean?
___________ is in charge of the serial column when it is detached from the march column.
Serial commander
____________ is in charge when detached from a serial column.
Unit commander
The _____ maintains the speed of the convoy as directed by the convoy commander, is in the lead vehicle.
Pace setter
_______ are posted at critical intersections when on non-tactical convoys.
The ______ is in charge of vehicles with troops on board.
Vehicle commander
What is the symbol for an LP/OP?
A Triangle
What is the 10 foot Vehicle mounted antenna?
Can the AN/VRC-90 and AN/VRC-92 use the OE-254 antenna in non-mobile conditions?
What does CEOI stand for?
Communication Electronics Operating Instructions
How many gallons of water does the TOA water trailer hold?
Wire Diagram: Telephones need to run from the COC to :
All Company CPs
CTR / Supply
COC Sentry
Comm Shack
Adjacent Units
CO/XO Tent
The M8A1 consists of:
M43 Detectors
M42 Alarm
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for blister agents.
The only positive readings on M9 tape are ______ in color.
Red or Pink
A ______detects nerve, blister and blood agents (liquid or vapor)
12 detectors per kit
M256A1 kit
How many stations are there in the Detailed Equipment Decon (DED)?
What does MOUT stand for?
Military Operations in Urban Terrain
_____ is fire that strikes the ground from above at a considerable level. Beaten zone is considered the danger space.
Plunging Fire
The M500 is a __ gauge shotgun.
The Mk1 is a/an _____ grenade.
The M25 A2 is a/an _____ grenade.
CS Riot
The M15WP/M34WP/M8
are _____ grenades.
When detonated, the M18A1 mine will project steel spheres over a ____ degree fan-shaped pattern approximately __ feet high and 164 feet (50 meters) wide to an optimum effective range of __.
60 degree
6 feet
50 meters
What are the camouflage colors for light skin personnel in other than snow regions.
Loam & light green
All materiel is requisitioned from the MLO office is on a______.
What are the 3 types of Medium Girder Bridges?
*Single story MGB
*Double story MGB
*Linked reinforced MGB
As a part of camp maintenance ___________ is conducted within the first 30 days of a deployment
controlled inspection
Who maintains a library of contingency plans and maps:
Intel (S2)
Who prepares supporting plans for combat support and disaster recovery?
Intel (S2)
Who is responsible for Construction quality?
Operations (S3)
Who operates the dining facility, barber shop, central store room, central tool room?
Supply (S4)
Who is responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training?
Training (S7)
Special Staff Codes (X)
Responsible for the performance of all duties relating to religious activities.
An Officer of the ________is assigned to the Battalion as a member of the staff and head of the Battalion Dental department.
Dental Corps
The ____________ is to be informed of the most current disaster control and recovery techniques
Disaster Preparedness Officer
The ____________ is responsible for maintenance, issue, and control of weapons, ammunition and infantry equipment.
Ordnance Officer
The ___________ determines the adequacy of physical security in the command.
Security Officer
The NMCB TOA is listed as the P25 and is broken down into three sub-TOA(s) to assist in quick deployment. What are the three?
Air Det
Air Echelon
Sea Echelon
Air Det (A/D): P25A or TA-41:
___ personnel,
___ pieces of CESE,
________ sh tons air cargo,
_______ million is the cost,
deployable in ____ hours.
Sea Echelon (S/E): P25D or TA-22:

___ personnel,
___ pieces of CESE,
______ sh tons air cargo,
______ million is the cost,
deployable in ____ Days.
Government credit card.
–Used for local purchase when a requisition cannot be filled through the Navy Stock System and the item cost is less than $2500
–Only trained cardholders are authorized to make purchases.
If there are any signs of chemical or biological agent poisoning, you should immediately ______ the casualty.
Leg fractures must be ________ before elevating the legs as a treatment for shock.
What type of bleeding is slow; the blood "oozes" from the (wound) cut?
Capillary bleeding
What type of bleeding shows blood bright red and “spurts” from the wound?
Arterial bleeding
The most painful type of burns because the nerve endings are still intact even though the skin is severely damaged:
2nd Degree Burns
What does ADP stand for?
Automated Data Processing (computers and equipment)
Within each unit a series of periodic formal embarkation training briefings must be held to indoctrinate all personnel for______________.
specific responsibilities
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
M2 .50 cal Machine Gun:
Provide protection for motorized movement. Destroy lightly armored vehicles. Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft.
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
MK19 40mm Machine Gun
Used to provide direct and indirect firing.
The ________ must provide support and protection for the Automatic rifleman.
__________ is used to obtain and properly spell names and street addresses of persons involved in the mishap and all witnesses to the accident.
SF 91
___________ is used to carefully note weather conditions, road conditions, position of the vehicle involved, and other details.
SF 91
______________ a personnel carrier vehicle is accomplished by covering the inside floor of the vehicle with sandbags, removing tarps and bows, and installing a garrote bar.
Combat hardening
Responsible for receiving all airlifted items, and movement from airfield to deployment site.
Arrival Airfield Control Group
Responsible for controlling the flow of personnel, cargo, and equipment from the marshalling area to the aircraft.
Departure Airfield Control Group
What are the ABCs of First Aid?
Grazing fire is how many inches off the deck?
68 inches
What type of ammunition does the M500 fire?
12ga, 2 3/4 inches 00 buck, military round
All VHF Radios are________.
line of sight
The _________ will remote the radio frequency away from COC, with a max range two miles.
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts local and remote. The local is placed at the:
Antenna Farm
How many AN/GRA 39s are needed for each radio in the Antenna Farm?
What is the VHF antenna (non-mobile) used at the Ant Farm and Alt COC?
Requisition/consumption reporting document for procuring non-NSN material.
NAVSUP 1250-2
Requisition form that can serve as a requisition follow-up, modifier, or cancellation request.
DD 1348
What does HICS stand for?
HICS: Hazardous Inventory Control System
The three parts of ABFC are:
What is used for loading Crypto fills?
What antenna is known as the bowtie?
What Seabee Phone is hand cranked?
What is a Kit 80006?
Electricians Kit
What is a kit 80019?
Carpenters Kit
What is NALO?
Naval Air Logistics Office
What is SAAM?
Special Assignment Airlift Mission – how the NCF obtains airlift
What does TEU stand for?
Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit
(3 TRICONS shipped by sea)
In the Seabee TOA, what is BM?
Basic Module (vertical construction, HQ/B/C CO, 42 pieces of CESE) – P25B
Project Supervisor/Crew Leader uses this to track Construction Activities daily.
Level 3
Level of effort in man days, what you actually did:
Mandays Expended
The M22 Automatic Chemical Agent Alarm consists of the _____ detector and _____ remote alarm unit.
The first Seabee battalions began forming and training at Camp _________, Davisville, Rhode Island.
"The Original Home of the Seabees“:
Camp Endicott, Davisville, Rhode Island
The first organized Seabee battalion deployed overseas to _____________ in the Pacific, where it began construction of a fuel tank farm.
Bora Bora
What is the optimum spacing of M88 chemical detectors?
300 meters? Use METT-T to determine optimum spacing.
Mount out procedures for CESE:
What are the three major areas?
Supply Prep
Grinder Operations
Mount out procedures for CESE:
Shop (inspections, fuel/defuel [3/4 tank for contingency], air certification letter, reduction, repairs)
Final Inspection
Mount out procedures for CESE:
Grinder Operations
Weighing and marking
HAZMAT certification
Load Planning
Joint Inspection (Regiment, embark staff, aircraft loadmaster)
In_____, in response to renewed aggression by France, Congress finally established the Department of the Navy, and authorized the Marine Corps.
Prior to 1941, the Civil Engineer Corps used ____________ to accomplish all overseas construction.
private contractors
World War II: ________ men served in the Naval Construction Force during the Second World War.
Explain the procedures for Airfield Damage Repair (ADR)
5 Steps:
•Establish Command Center
•Establish Damage assessment teams
•Establish communications network
•Survey Area
•Make Repairs
•Establish Command Center
•Establish Damage assessment teams
•Establish communications network
•Survey Area
•Make Repairs
The Gunner
The main purpose for using __________ is to continuously record data on equipment performance.
operating logs
Can OPTAR funds be used to purchase project materials?
The ______assigns each item in the TOA to a specific container and a specific location inside of that container
Master Packing Plan
What is the name of the 3 year vehicle operators license?
Regarding CBR, what is DWHA?
Downwind Hazard Area
When using the P-405, what is the equation to calculate a MD estimate with a Delay Factor?
MD = (Qty of units) x (hr/unit (from P-405)) x (1/8) x DF
What is the PPR formula?
PMS Performance Rate
What is the 3M RAR equation?
RAR = Accomplished Checks
Scheduled Checks
What is the CESE availability factor equation?
Availability = 100% - Deadline% - % in shop
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Identify Hazards
What are the hazards?
In a typical camp layout, all companies man fighting positions except :
Headquarters Company
If the project scope is to install 4000 CMU blocks, and 1000 have been installed, what is the WIP?
25% = 1000/4000
What must patrols do following the execution of a patrol?
Submit after action report to the COC (S2 board and S3 board)
For a DED decon layout, what is station #1?
Initial Wash
For a DED decon layout, what is station #3?
Contact time, Interior Decon
For a DED decon layout, what is station #4?
The DED “hotline” is located between steps __ and ___.
What does FMFM stand for?
Fleet Marine Force Manual
What does MSR stand for?
Main Supply Route
What does ASR stand for?
Alternate Supply Route
What is a RTO?
Radio Telephone Operator
What is the function of the Watch Officer in the COC?
Overall Responsible for COC operations
Runs Immediate action drills
Reports CCIRs
Assigns routing tree for incoming messages
What is the function of the Watch Chief in the COC?
Enforces good order and discipline in COC
Logs messages, ensures proper routing
Works with S1 to keep Admin board up to date
What is the function of the RTOs in the COC?
Send and receive messages.
Immediate notification if CCIR received.
What is the function of the S1 board in the COC?
Track Reports:
Personnel Status
What is the function of the S2 board in the COC?
Keep S2 board up to date with:
Chemical Downwind Message
MOPP level, CBR plots,
Enemy activity,
What is the function of the Sentry at the COC?
Provide security for the COC, ensure only personnel with proper clearance enter the COC.
What does FFIR stand for?
Friendly Forces Information Requirements
What are the standing rules of force? (memory aid is: RAMP)
Return fire with aimed fire
Anticipate attack
Measured force (equal to received)
Protect others/yourself with deadly force only when necessary
The Safety Policy Committee reviews the meeting minutes of the _______________ committee.
Safety Supervisor Policy
To qualify as a lost workday mishap, a Seabee must miss:
The entire next workday
All unintended explosions are classified as:
____ kW or more generators must be grounded.
Are Seabees authorized to make repairs to a GFCI?
If an electrical tool is tagged with a red color tag, it means:
The tool cannot be operated
If an electrical tool is tagged with a yellow color tag, it means:
Use caution while operating the tool
What does IDLH stand for?
Immediately dangerous to life and health
What are the 4 irregular firing actions that result in a weapon not functioning as expected?
Cook off
A ______ is caused by dirt, no lube, or carbon build up. Immediate action is to clean the weapon.
Heat from the barrel of a weapon will cause a round to automatically fire. This is called a :
Cook off
Any interruption to a weapons cycle of firing is called a :
What is the breach on a weapon?
The rear end of the barrel
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Orange or Red
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Armor Piercing
The fragmentation grenade model number is :
What is the model number of the incendiary grenade?
Never attempt to defuse a______.
hand grenade
What are the three things a CMS Manager is responsible for in terms of COMSEC Materials?
What type of restricted area is one in which someone could gain access to classified material?
Limited Area
In order for a Seabee to have access to classified materials, they must have:
A Security Clearance
What is the meaning of the brevity pro-word:
Minimize your traffic
What brevity pro-word is used as an alert that hostile forces are infiltrating the net?
Who can authorized a Battalion executing the Emergency Action Plan?
The Commanding Officer
What telephone encrypts the signal, and can be used to transmit over a non secure telephone line?
What are the general procedures for responding to HAZMAT spills?
Respond Immediately
Have a disposal plan
Test the soils after cleanup
Follow all disposal guidelines
When working with HAZMAT, always understand what _____ is required.
What does PPE stand for?
Personal Protective Equipment
The best policy when performing grubbing operations is to:
Save as much vegetation as possible.
The toxic chemical found in older electrical equipment, used as an insulator is:
What does PCB stand for?
Polychlorinated biphenyls
Air Echelon is capable of mounting out within _____ days.
Sea Echelon is capable of mounting out within ____ days.
In the case of _____ or ______, replacement parts are not in stock, and cannot be received within 3 days.
CNO is the advisor to ______ and _________.
President of the United States
What does POTUS stand for?
President of the United States
This command exercises ADCON and OPCON to all NCF units:
This person is the senior navy enlisted member:
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
In the NCF, CBUs have been replaced with:
What is a CAT team?
Civic Action Team
Trains locals on how to build
The NCFSU provides logistical support to NCF _________.
In the MEG, there are ____ primary engineer assets.
What does LOAC stand for?
Laws of Armed Conflict
RAC 2 =
RAC 5 =
____ is 26 Seabees deploying with heavy Alfa Co equipment.
Sea Echelon
Sea Echelon is capable of deploying within _____ days.
Sea Echelon is capable of arriving at its final destination within _____ days.
Cargo going by sea is palletized on :
A 40” x 48” wood pallet
What aircraft is used by Seabees for in theater operations only?
C-130 Hercules
Which aircraft can land on dirt runways?
C-17 Globemaster
What aircraft can be loaded from either the front or back?
C-5 Galaxy
Rules of the road:

___ MPH on the open road,
____ foot interval between vehicles
Speed determined by _________.
Tool kit boxes can carry ____ pounds per box.
Plant property is:
Non portable equipment
The three inspections a CESE operator performs on a piece of equipment are:
Pre-start (hard card) – look for damage
Shutdown procedures
What does ROPS stand for?
Roll Over Protection Structure
The United States will not use _______ weapons as a first strike.
Tear gas and vomit producing gasses are known as ________ agents.
Gas masks protect against particulates, but will not filter _____.
A ________ measures radiation exposure.
Pocket Dosimeter
The effects of a nuclear explosion are:
Nuclear Radiation
What are the three types of CBR surveys?
Point Surveillance
Route Survey (convoy/patrol)
Area Survey
Mixing mustard gas with STB produces:
A violent reaction
Leach fields use ___ to ___ inch perforated pipe.
4 to 6 inch
Camp Maintenance: the _______ receives calls, logs them, fills out ESAs.
Trouble Desk
Tracking the Bravo Company builder shop equipment is completed on a:
Daily Operators Log
In ABFC view, what lists line item requirements by NSN?
In terms of camp layout:
The Alfa Yard should be near _____.
The entrance
Never put ________ water
in a water bull.
Under Rapid Runway Repair, what does UXO stand for?
Unexploded Ordinance
A project QC plan is assembled by the __________, not the Battalion ________ department.
Crew leader
Only construction material needed within the next ___ weeks can be requisitioned from MLO.
A typical Seabee bridge job is to delaunch, palletize and move it forward for:
The Marines to reinstall.
What are the three common types of Bailey bridges?
A booby trap with a heavy weight falling from above is called a:
Dead fall
A booby trap that is a small pit with spiked boards within is called a:
Foot trap
An effective weapon to place at the ECP is the:
M2 .50 cal machine gun
Seabees don’t fire automatic weapons in this manner, it is too difficult to hit anything.
Free Gun
If there isn’t a foreseeable need for a piece of CESE within the next 30 days, the CESE goes into:
Live Storage
When applying face paint, add dark colors to ________________, and light colors around the ________________.
Forehead, nose
Fighting positions should always be inspected from the perspective of ____________.
The enemy
During hours of daylight avoid walking to and from fighting positions, if communication is necessary, use the _______.
Likely enemy avenues of approach will differ depending on if its _____ or _______.
Face shields do not provide _____ protection.
A _______ report is a hasty initial report of enemy activity at the location of a fire fight.
Once wire defenses are in place, _______ must be used to regularly inspect defensive wire.
In what format does a patrol leader issue a patrol order?
Primary and Alternate Fighting positions cover the same :
Sectors of Fire
When in a fighting position, use _________ to define a Seabee’s sector of fire.
Sand Bags
How many fire teams are in a squad?
A squad leader carries a _______(weapon), but only shoots _________.
When necessary
If the Fire Team Leader becomes a casualty, the __________ takes over as FTL.
Automatic Rifleman
This Seabee acts as a point man within a Fire team.
Rifleman #2
Don’t take an EPW’s (Enemy Prisoner of War) __________.
Personal Effects or Gas Mask
After following the 5 “S”s for Enemy prisoners of war, fill out an ______.
EPW Tag.
If caught alone behind enemy lines, remember to retain both your ______ and _______.
Military ID Card
Dog Tags
When caught alone behind enemy lines, use firearms :
Only in an emergency
If caught alone behind enemy lines, avoid _________ for as long as possible.
A challenge and password must be two words that have :
Nothing to do with each other.
When finding an injured Seabee, look around to discover how they were injured, this will make sure that :
You are not injured in the same manner.
In the event of providing first aid after a CBR attack, mask ______, then mask _______.
The Casualty
How does you administer the NAAK injections to a Seabee in full MOPP gear?
Apply treatment through MOPP gear, don’t cut the MOPP suit.
Never move an injured Seabee unless:
Absolutely necessary.
When using a sterile bandage over a wound, tie the knot over :
The wound.
Elevating a wounded area to control bleeding should be used in conjunction with:
Direct Pressure
________ is a powder that reacts with liquids in the human body to cauterize a wound. It also causes significant damage in the process.
Quick Clot
Continue tightening a Tourniquet until:
You see the bleeding stop
When taping a piece of plastic to a sucking chest wound victim, the open side should be facing:
If a Seabee with a sucking chest wound gets worse after applying a piece of plastic to the wound:
Remove the plastic sheeting
When finding a Seabee with suspected spine injury assign one person to :
Keep the head and neck aligned.
How should batteries be installed in a TA-312?
One up, One Down
What is the first thing to do before sending a radio message?
Listen to see if the net is clear
Once a NMCB has donned Gas Masks, who can give the order to remove masks?
Commanding Officer
What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
Warm Soapy Water
What is Palatable water?
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but may be unsafe to drink
What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map?
1 Km, or 1000 Meters
Name 2 ways to orientate a map.
Terrain Association
Use a Compass
What does the map reading term “intersection” mean?
Finding the location of an unknown point by sighting two or more azimuths from known points.
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
Steady Position
Proper Aim (Sight Picture)
Trigger Squeeze
What does BZO stand for?
Battlesight Zero
The M18A1 firing position should be in a ________ 16 meters behind the mine.
Fighting Position
How often is the challenge and password changed?
Every 24 hours
The ______ wave is that part of the radio wave which travels directly from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
A _______ is an electronic module used to load cryptographic keys into electronic encryption machines.
fill device
The ________ wave is that portion of the radio wave which reaches the receiving antenna after being reflected from the surface of the earth.
ground reflected
______ frequency communications are capable of traveling around the world under the right conditions.
_______propagation involves the bending of the signal by the ionosphere. Frequencies are very important, as those above a certain value will not bend back to earth but will punch through the ionosphere into outer space.
Sky wave
______is a family of lightweight combat radios that serves as the primary means of communications for command and control and fire support on the battlefield.
Vehicle mounted VHF equipment may communicate farther because of:
higher transmitter power and better antennas.
The ideal location for a radio antenna is as far away from cover as possible, such as:
a bare mountain top or in the middle of a large field.
What are the wet and dry distance limits of the TA-1
4 miles wet
7 miles dry
How many pairs of terminals connect to the J-1077?
What is the maximum distance of wire that can be placed between the local and remote units of an AN/GRA-39?
2 Miles
How many D-Cell batteries does an AN/GRA – 39 use?
What is the GPS unit used to connect to a RT 1523 or RT 1694 to set the correct sync time?
With the RT 1523, what are the four possible methods of broadcasting a radio signal?
Single Channel / Plain Text
Single Channel / Cipher Text
Freq. Hopping / Plain Text
Freq. Hopping / Cipher Text
In radio communications, what does CT stand for?
Cipher Text
The two departments under S1 are:
What are the three billets in an NMCB that are in-between the CO and XO?
Marine Advisor
Safety Officer
What are the billets/departments that work in the S3 shop?
S3E (Engineering)
What departments work directly under the S4C?
Uniform Issue
Which department works directly for the S7C?
What are the billets/departments that work under the A3?
Yard Boss
License Examiner
Collateral Equip
The B3 is responsible for:
OPTAR actually stands for?
Operating Target
The 4 Mission Areas of an NMCB are:
Perform Horizontal/Vertical Construction while defending projects
Deploy an Air Det within 48 hours
Conduct active defensive operations to protect: personnel, convoys, camp, construction sites
Perform CESE maintenance simultaneously with a construction effort
Mobilized Seabees will stay in Gulfport or Pt Hueneme until:
When forward deployed during peacetime, the active NMCBs perform :
Project construction primarily for skills training and readiness.
 Also Detachments, DFTs, and Joint Exercises
The role of Seabees in Humanitarian Assistance Operations is to:
Deliver relief material.
Provide disaster assistance and evacuation.
Clear and repair utilities.
Provide transportation for evacuees.
NMCB tactical horizontal construction includes structures such as:
Unpaved roads
Mat Runways
Helo Landing Areas
The NCR Command Element is a command and control organization that plans, monitors, directs, coordinates, and controls ___________operations for all subordinate NMCBs, NCFSUs, and other attached units.
______________ is the primary CSS function performed by engineers to include both horizontal and vertical construction. It is characterized by well-developed design and deliberate construction, and includes detailed planning and preparation.
General engineering
___________ is the reinforcement of terrain through the construction of obstacles and emplacement of minefields to disrupt, fix, turn, or block the enemy.
__________ is the degree to which a system can avoid or withstand a man-made hostile environment without losing its ability to accomplish its designated mission.
NMCBs do not deploy with Class ____ supplies.
4 (Construction Materials)
NCRs are under the ____________of 1NCD, and exercise ______________ over subordinate
NCF units.
The ____ is the advance element of an NMCB which supports the MAGTF in the MPF offload.
Within 30 days after return from deployment to their homeport, NMCBs shall be capable of redeploying as a complete battalion with full TOA within ___ days.
Prepositioned War Reserve Material Stocks
The two types of readiness most important to Seabees are:
Construction Readiness
Military Readiness (Combat Skills)
What is Part 1 of the COSAL?
List of equipment actually on site
There might be a time during embark where CESE and cargo will be loaded together. This is called_______________.
“mobile loading”
The final step in the 48hour mount-out operation is the:
Joint Inspection
What are the 11 General Orders of a Sentry?
To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert and observing everything which takes place within sight or hearing.
To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce.
To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guard house than my own.
To quit my post only when properly relieved.
To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the Commanding Officer, the Officer of the Day, and all officers and non-commissioned officers of the guard only.
To talk to no one except in the line of duty.
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
To call the Corporal of the Guard in any case not covered by instructions.
To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
To be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority proper authority.
There is no such thing as an ____________ convoy in a tactical environment!
Tactical Convoys should always have access to the common _________ picture.
The primary method of providing information to convoy leaders is :
A Strip Map
METT-T (Time)
Time in regards to mission planning is:
Complete the plan as quickly as possible to allow for subordinate preparation and implementation.
___________ provide a convoy with additional firepower to deter/destroy an enemy threat.
Gun Trucks
What does HMMWV stand for?
High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle.
A gun truck is a vehicle where the primary weapon system is ________________________________and usually hardened for protection of vehicle and crew.
a CSW with a 360 degree field of
fire capability
The overall responsibility of a Convoy to “break contact” or “remain and fight” is determined by the:
Convoy Commander
The 4 principals for mounted movement of tactical convoys are:
360 degree security
In a Convoy, the driver’s primary mission is to operate the vehicle and should only engage targets if the vehicle is halted unless:
there is no one else who can neutralize the threat from that side.
What are the three methods for a convoy to clear an overpass?
Deliberate High Clear
Deliberate Low Clear
Hasty Clearing
In a convoy, a downed driver is replaced by :
The vehicle commander
In a convoy, a ________ vehicle moves out while pulling a disabled vehicle behind it.
The order given to end a Convoy dismount and get back into the vehicles is:
When in a convoy suddenly attacked, yet the convoy is able to continue along its route, execute a :
Blow Through (Hasty attack Suppress)
In a vehicle convoy the two methods of hasty attack are:
Suppress : Shoot while continuing to move
Assault: Assault team dismounts and attacks enemy combatants
_____ is basically an e-mail system to use while in the field.
__________ : The PRC-150 is used to send in ciphered text.
How many Seabees are in a fire team?
How many Squads in a Platoon?
What is the standard Bivouac Equipment?
What are the two pins that keep the upper receiver and lower receiver of an M16 together called?
Takedown Pin
Pivot Pin
In an M16, what are all the items in the bolt carrier group?
Firing pin retaining pin
Firing Pin
Bolt Carrier
Cam Pin
The sights on the M16 are adjustable for both _________ and _______.
Windage and Elevation
Do not expose ________ to sunlight for any length of time.
________ is the curved path of a bullet in its flight through the air.
Fire on the final protective line during periods of good visibility is ________ and ________ fire.
aimed and adjusted
In the absence of instructions, the usual rate of fire for a section on a final protective line is the ______rate for the first 2 minutes, then the medium rate until ordered to cease firing.
Immediate Decon must be performed within ____ minutes.
Operational Decon must be performed within ____ hours.
Sector limits on a fire plan or range card are shown as ________ unless they are PDFs or FPLs.
Dashed lines
The three keys to automatic weapons on a Final Protective Line are:
Army Combat Heavy Battalions are capable of constructing or repairing:
Landing Strips
What does the BEEF in Prime BEEF stand for?
Base Engineer Emergency Force
A Combat Engineer Battalion belongs to what branch of the U.S. Military?
What do CEBs do for the U.S. Marine Corp?
Enhance Mobility, Countermobility, and Survivability of the Marine Division through close combat engineering support
What is an ESB?
U.S. Marine Engineer Support Battalion
What are the capabilities of an ESB?
General Engineering.
Heavy Equipment, Utilities, and Construction
What is a MWSS?
Marine Wing Support Squadron
What is a MWSS capable of constructing?
Expeditionary Airfields (EAFs)
How does the Navy support the MAGTF?
The Navy provides general engineering support to MAGTFs. This support consists of NCF units under the operational control of a MAGTF. These NCF units are necessary to reinforce and augment the MAGTF’s limited engineering capability.
Navy Civil Engineers construct _________ and perform ___________ repair to support MAGTF operations
advanced bases
battle damage
The US Ambassador is responsible to the President for directing, coordinating, and supervising all US Government (USG) elements in the host nation except those under the command of:
A combatant commander (COCOM)
Tactical control is the detailed ________ and ________ of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or tasks.
The MAGTF CE engineer support consists of:
Engineering Officer
The MAGTF GCE engineer support consists of:
Combat Engineer Battalions
The MAGTF ACE engineer support consists of:
Marine Wing Support Squadron
The MAGTF CSSE engineer support consists of:
Engineer Support Battalions
How many NMCBs support a MEF?
How many NMCBs support a MEU?
What does NSE stand for?
Naval Support Element
COCOM force sourcing determines:
Who goes where, when, and for how long…
A Unified Command is a command with:
A broad continuing mission under a single commander with two or more military departments.
The QDR does what?
Looks ahead and offers a solution on how to best position the U.S. military to meet all existing threats.
An OPLAN identifies the ______ and _______ required to execute the CINC’s Strategic Concept and a movement schedule of these resources to the theater of operations. The forces and supplies are identified in ____files.
What is the difference between doctrine and concepts?
Doctrine deals with today, concepts are potential future capabilities.
What does OMFTS stand for?
Operational Maneuvers from the Sea
What is OMFTS?
Landing Marines skip setting up on the beach, instead they go directly to the objective.
What does RFF stand for?
Request for Forces
Are the ACBs NCF units?
Marine Force Size:
MEF :_________ people
MEB:_________ people
MEU:_________ people
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 1
Magazine inserted, round in chamber, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed.
Condition 1
Round in chamber, action closed, safety on.

Place the M16A3 in condition 4.
What is a HANGFIRE?
a delay in the propellant charge igniting.
Place the M9 pistol in condition 3.

Taking the weapon from any condition to condition 4.
Estimate distance to target by eye:
1) Visualize a 100-meter distance on the ground
2) With this unit of measurement, mentally determine how many of these 100-meter units are between your position and the target.
NOTES: Mental estimates should be checked by pacing off distance. The average man takes about 130 steps per 100 meters.
cleaner, lubricant, and preservative

Condition 3
Magazine inserted, chamber empty, slide forward, and decocking/safety lever on.
Terrain and Weather - KOCOA
Key Terrain
Observation and Fields of Fire
Cover and Concealment
Avenues of Approach

Condition 4
Magazine removed, chamber empty, slide forward, and decocking/safety lever on.
Take the M9 pistol from any condition to condition 4, pausing with the slide locked to the rear to allow for a secondary inspection of the chamber.
Types of Convoys
a) Administrative Convoys
1) Contact with the enemy is remote or improbable.
2) Example of administrative convoys are troops movement, general cargo movement, POL movement and ammunition movement.
b) Tactical Convoys
The likelihood of enemy contact is the basis for tactical classification.
Movement order
is issued by a convoy commander covering the details for a move of his/her command. It includes current situation; mission of the convoy; concept of operations for the movement; administrative and logistic procedures and responsibilities; and command, control, and communications assignments and techniques.
If a HARDENED vehicle is FORCED to stop in the kill zone:
If no cover is available after dismounting:
after dismounting, an IMMEDIATE frontal assault may be executed.
weapons lubricating oil, semi fluid
Use the HIGH CRAWL when:
a) The route you have selected provides good cover and concealment.
b) Poor visibility reduces enemy observation.
c) Greater speed of movement is required.

Place the M16A3 in condition 3.
What is a MISFIRE?
a failure to fire.
Place the M9 pistol in condition 4.
How deep is a Hasty fighting Position?
18 Inches into the ground.
Condition 4
Chamber empty, action closed, safety on.
Key personnel in a convoy
Trail Maintenance Officer
1) Rides at the rear of the column with maintenance personnel and equipment.
2) In a small convoy, the trail officer and the trail maintenance officer may be the same individual.
If a HARDENED vehicle is FORCED to stop in the kill zone:
ALL available weapons are used to return fire IMMEDIATELY.
Personnel remain in the vehicle.
On first slackening of fire, personnel dismount.
Personnel deploy as directed by the vehicle commander.
Lay down base fire to cover the dismount of the four sentries.
For the Claymore mine, the M57 is:
The Firing Device
There are two types of sights on the M18A1 claymore mine:
the slit type peep sight
the knife-edge sight.
Convoy Ambush
IMMEDIATE ACTION through the kill zone:
A driver must pull his/her vehicle far enough forward, or off of the path of travel, to allow other vehicles to clear the kill zone. If a vehicle stops as soon as they are free of the kill zone, they risk "bottle necking" and forcing all vehicles behind them to stop in the kill zone and face decimation.
Corner sentries return fire IMMEDIATELY.
Vehicles halt when they clear the kill zone and personnel dismount and take IMMEDIATE action.
Troops and Fire Support Available - HAS
Issue the Order - SMEAC
Admin and Logistics
Command and Signal
Key personnel in a convoy
Vehicle Commander
Directs vehicle hardening operation and conducts immediate action drills.
The illumination radius of the M49A1 trip flare is:
300 Meters of illumination radius.
OPORDER Command and Signal elements:
Special instructions on communications, including prearranged signals, password and countersign, radio call signs and frequencies, emergency signals, radio procedures, pyrotechnics, and restrictions on the use of communications.
Locations of the platoon commander, the platoon right guide, and the squad leader.
What is NAPP?
Nerve Agent Pyridostigmine Pretreatment (NAPP), a standard issue pre-treatment used in combating nerve agent poisoning, will counteract the effects of the agent, depending on the length of exposure to and concentration of the agent.
React to aerial flares
If you are in an open area and are caught in the light of a flare:
Then crouch low or get in the prone position and remain motionless.
React to incoming rounds if in a motorized convoy.
If the vehicle is immobilized:
Then immediately disembark, move away from the vehicle, and hit the deck, taking the best cover available.
Third degree burns can be caused by :
can be caused by flame, ignited clothing, immersion in hot water, contact with hot objects, or electricity. Temperature and duration of contact are important factors in determining the extent of tissue destruction.
Warning Shots are:
Only allowed by the EOF involving vehicles.
What is CANA?
Chemical Agent Nerve Antidote
Name three Movies that the Seabees are prominently displayed:
The Fighting Seabees
The Sands of Iwo Jima
The Green Berets
Execute "Immediate Action - Firing Stoppage"
Sight and fire.
Identify first degree burns:
a) Check for redness or discoloration.
b) Check for mild swelling and pain.
c) Check for rapid healing.
MOPP Level 3:
Mask: Worn
Overgarment: Worn
Vinyl Overboot: Worn
Gloves: Available
Helmet Protective Cover: Worn
NCF Units:
Naval Construction Force Support Units (2)
Enemy - SALUTE
The M18A1 is:
A Claymore Mine
When establishing a project safety plan, project crew members reference the:
1910.29 CFR
All convoys regardless of size are composed of at least three functional parts:
a) Head
b) Main Body
c) Trail
Identify second degree burns:
a) Check for deeper tissue destruction than first-degree burn.
b) Check for red or mottled appearance of skin.
c) Check for development of blisters.
d) Check for considerable swelling over a period of several days.
e) Check for wet appearance on the surface of the skin due to the loss of body fluids through the damaged layers of the skin
React to incoming rounds if in a motorized convoy.
If the vehicle continues to move:
Then remain in the vehicle and assume the lowest possible position.
In the Advanced Base Functional Component system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in the North Temperate
What is the purpose of leach fields?
Dispose of sewage
How Deep is a one man fighting position?
Armpit deep.
When a DAT deploys, it should deploy in :
a harden vehicle and MOPP gear.
What are the symptoms of shock?
restlessness, thirstiness, skin paleness, and rapid heartbeat.
calmness and tiredness.
sweating, and cool, clammy skin.
gasping breath or shallow, rapid breathing.
staring blindly into space.
blotchiness or bluish coloring around the mouth
The low crawl and high crawl are not suitable :
Not suitable at night when you are very near the enemy. They cause a shuffling noise, which is too easily heard.
What is the United States policy on Biological Warfare?
a)      To limit its research program to defensive measures.
b) Not to use biological agents including toxins.
What type of camp maintenance includes large repetitive jobs that require over 40 man-hours?
Standing job order
What does MLC stand for?
Military Load Class
What is the text color and background color of a NATO Radiological Marker?
Black inscription on white background
Do not use a Kevlar Helmet to:
heat water
Identify third degree burns:
a) Check for deep tissue destruction.
b) Check for white or charred appearance of skin.
c) Check for complete loss of all layers of the skin
What is station #3 in a personnel decontamination site?
Over garment removal
The primary purpose of the quality control plan is to provide:
a.       Customer satisfaction
b.       Quality construction
c. Prevent Rework
To protect your night vision during from a burning flare:
To protect your night vision, close your shooting eye while the flare is burning.
MOPP Level 1:
Mask: Carried
Overgarment: Worn
Vinyl Overboot: Available
Gloves: Available
Helmet Protective Cover: Available
NCF Units:
Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 11, 14, 15, 17, 18, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 40, 74, 133)
How long is the CPO Suit good for in an uncontaminated environment when removed from its sealed bag?
45 Days
When is an operator required to inspect an assigned item of CESE?
Before, during and after operations
Define concealment:
Anything that hides you from enemy
When donning the MCU-2/P mask, how do you test to ensure that you have a proper, airtight seal?
Place hand over canister inlet and inhale deeply until the mask collapses around your face, this indicates a good seal
P-437, Volume 1,part 1 contains_________________
Component sheet site plans
An FPF (Not FPL) is:
an immediately available interlocking, prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
What does CPO (Suit) stand for?
Chemical Protective Overgarment
How long is NAVFAC 11260/2 valid for and when does it expire?
2 years, to expire on the operators birth date, consistent with year of birth.
What does the term DEADLINE mean?
When a piece of equipment cannot be returned to service to perform all functions and repair parts are not obtainable within 3 days
Which form is used to report equipment discrepancies?
NAVFAC 9-11240/13
The P-437 is divided into___________ volumes.
What is the purpose of grounding rods?
a.        Protect life
b.       Protect equipment from damage
c. Protect the distribution system
The 5 S’s for Enemy Prisoners of War are:
Key personnel in a convoy:
a) Convoy Commander
b) Vehicle Commander
c) Pacesetter
d) Trail Officer (Senior Enlisted.)
e) Trail Maintenance Officer
f) Security Team Leader
A smooth level II contains all the _________________for one project?
master activities
PKP can extinguish what types of fires?
Class A,B,C
What is station #1 in a personnel decontamination site?
Individual Gear Decon
Use the RUSH when :
when cover is limited and when speed is essential.
What are the tactical requirements for a camp layout?
Sufficient space for proper dispersal of the command
Concealment from ground and air observation
Protection against bombing of strafing attacks
What type of CESE is included in a basic allowance of equipment?
SINCGARS Stands for:
Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System
VX, Soman, Sarin are:
Nerve Agents
NCF Units:
Underwater Construction Teams (1 and 2)
What company is responsible for the operation and maintenance of automotive, construction and MHE assigned to the battalion ?
What type of delivery system employs heat to disseminate chemical agents?
The characteristics of the C-17 are:

463L Pallet positions :
Max passengers :
90,000 Lbs.
What is the order for administering the NAAK?
1. Atropine
2. 2-Pam Chloride
Name in order the Three levels of decontamination.
Deployment military training and GMT is reflected on a level_________
CHRIMP provides life cycle management of HAZMAT and reduces what?
Second-degree burns are :
those burns resulting from deepened sunburn, contact with ignited liquids, such as gasoline, kerosene, or similar products.
What are the six categories of HAZMAT (A-F)?
A. Toxic Hazardous
B. Supply Medical
C. Admin
D. Shipboard
E. Operating Forces
F. Students
Which publication provides policy and procedures in management of WHE and testing and licensing of operators?
Which decontamination kit contains a charcoal pad with a two-finger insert for pat down of contaminated body parts?
M291 Kit
What does MSDS stand for?
material safety data sheet
Which factors affect field radio communications capabilities?
a.     towers
b.    low lying areas
c. valley’s
Which area of naval doctrine results in coordination and unified efforts among different participants, and also in effective use of resources throughout and engagement?
Naval Planning
Who controls day to day use of assigned equipment?
A Bailey M2, Panel Bridge is:
A through-type metal truss bridge with heavy timber decking
Where must an Operator’s Report of a Motor Vehicle Accident form be completed?
Site before leaving the scene of the accident
Which command manages the Navy’s Hazardous Material Control and Management program?
Occupational Safety and Health Agency
Which is a configuration of the RT-1523 that Seabees can use as a VHF Base Station?
What is the official birth date of the Seabees?
March 5 1942
At what level of decontamination do you perform a detailed troop, equipment and aircraft decon to reduce the risk to a negligible level?
The first priority for a ADR organization is to ?
Establish the MOS
What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?
The Vapor contamination control line is between steps ___ and ___ .
The Globemaster III is a:
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
What is the literal translation of “Construimus Batuimus”
“We build, we fight”
The liquid contamination control line is between steps ___ and ___ .
During Claymore installation, the M57 firing device must be kept :
beside the Seabee installing the mine to prevent accidental firing by another Seabee.
What OF-13 rating is primarily responsible for the erection of pre engineered buildings (PEBs)?
Who can clear a HAZMAT Spill area to resume work?
industrial hygienist
What regulation ensures the safe and effective use of hazardous materials?
Hazardous Communication Standard
The M8A1 alarm can be used indoors when :
a special outlet filter is attached
The Starlifter is a:
When was the name Seabee officially authorized for use?
March 5 1942
The Annual Industrial Hygiene survey gives us what information about the types of hazards in a workplace?
a.     Lighting hazards
b.    Noise Hazards
c. Breathing hazards
Far Ambush Distance (Convoy)
(greater than 50 meters) - By keeping convoy moving, break contact
Attempting to rush will in result in annihilation.
The Hercules is a:
An Air Det is self sufficient for 30 days except for
a.     food
b.    ammunition
c. fuel
What is the identification marking for augment equipment CESE?
White background / Red numerals
In regards to Patrols, the APL is:
Assistant Patrol Leader
What is the purpose of training for embarkation?
a.    To accomplish smoothness & efficiency
b.    Indoctrinate personnel on specific responsibilities
c. Ensure key petty officers have the ability to transform planning into reality
A gun loop is effective because one leg can be cut:
and communications can still be effective.
What category of HAZMAT has a flash point below 200 degrees Fahrenheit?
What is an 1114 card?
Stock record card
Who should unsafe or unhealthful working conditions be reported to first?
Verbally to the immediate supervisor.
Linked reinforced MGBs:
a.        Permit longer military load class(MLC)70 bridges
b.       Are added under each girder for additional support
c. Can carry a maximum load of MLC 70 (T) up to 150’
What is the best way to protect yourself against biological warfare?
a)      Receive appropriate shots prior to deployment
b) Maintain camp and personal cleanliness
Hazardous inventory control system tracks HAZMAT from where?
cradle to grave
During the Korean Conflict, Seabees participated in an operation to build an airfield at Yo Do in the Bay of Wonson for damaged aircraft. The name of this operation was _________________.
“Operation Crippled Chick”
What are the three major types of wire entanglements?
The characteristics of the C-5 are:

Pallet positions :
Max passengers :
Max Passengers over water:
150,000 Lbs.
What is the primary antenna associated with the AN/VRC-90A?
Who is the only Seabee to earn the Medal of Honor, and what conflict did he earn it?
CM3 Marvin Shields
How many packets total are contained in the M291 personal decontamination kit?
If you feel you are faced with an unsafe situation and you or your crew may be in danger, what is your responsibility?
Stop the operation and consult your immediate supervisor.
The five steps of operational risk management in order are:
Identify hazards
assess hazards
make decisions
implement controls
Which are the four main sources of intelligence?
First-degree burns are:
those burns resulting from overexposure to the sun, light contact with hot objects, or scalding by hot water or steam. The severe sunburn should receive medical care as soon as possible.
The “blast” from a nuclear attack is characterized by which description?
A large explosion that emits Alpha and Beta particles
Which publication provides policy for the management, acquisition, and use of motor vehicles?
Should you self-administer the CANA?
Never self-administer. Use it only as a buddy aid. If you think that you need it--you don't!
What are the safe low and high percentages for oxygen levels in an atmosphere?
The characteristics of the C-141 are:

Pallet positions :
Max passengers :
Max Passengers over water:
50,000 Lbs.
After submitting a MEDEVAC request, establish Communication with the Helicopter pilot. What three things must be done before the helicopter safely lands?
Give the pilot the landing zone brief
Mark the landing zone
Guide helicopter using hand-arm signals
What is the text color and background color of a NATO Chemical Marker?
Red Inscription on Yellow Background
The site chosen for the RRP should offer what?
cover, concealment, and be out of the direct line of friendly small arms fire.
What system does Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) and his staff use to review, evaluate and assess threats and propose action?
Joint Strategic Planning System
React to aerial flares
If you are in a heavily wooded or vegetated area and are caught in the light of a flare:
Then FREEZE in place until the flare burns out.
Poisonous by-products of organisms are:
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Blue - represents hydrography or water features such as streams, rivers, ponds, lakes, swamps, and reservoirs
What type of NCF unit was established in the middle 1960s?
What chemicals can M9 Tape detect?
Nerve and Blister agents
In regards to Patrols, the IRP is:
Initial Rally Point
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Brown - represents contour lines
Who is responsible for the operation of the MOCC?
The first Seabee sighting an attacking aircraft Shout:
Lockout and Tagout procedures are used on:
a.     Electrical power sources
b.    Air lines or steam lines
c. Hydraulic Systems
Patrol members should maintain visual contact with the patrol leader when?
at all times.
In the AN/PRC-119
SC is:
Single Channel
What are the duties of Legal?
Power of Attorney
Legal Matters
What is the Master Chief Rating for either EO or CM?
What is X1?
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Fire hazard
What is the range of the AN/PRC-150 with a :
Dipole Antenna
1000+ miles
How do you purify water with calcium hypochlorite?
Fill the canteen with the cleanest water available. Leave an airspace of 1 inch or more below the neck of the canteen.
Fill a canteen cup half full of water and add the calcium hypochlorite from one ampule. Stir with a clean stick until the powder is dissolved.
Fill the cap of a plastic canteen half full of the solution in the cup.
Add it to the water in the canteen.
Place the cap on the canteen.
Shake it thoroughly.
Loosen the cap slightly and invert the canteen. Let the treated water leak onto the threads around the neck of canteen.
Tighten the cap on the canteen and wait at least 30 minutes before using the water for drinking or cooking.
What are the duties of the S-7?
Scheduling and monitoring technical and military training in the NMCB
To orient a map using the North star, rotate the map so that the ________ arrow on the declination diagram is pointing towards the North Star.
True North
What is a PMSR?
Project material status report
A geographical finger is :
a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge or hill.
What instruction manual provides policy, assign action, and provide guidance and procedures for the management of CESE assigned to NMCB?
What are the two methods to adjust IDF?
For _________, the victim will display are flushed, very dry and hot skin, constricted pupils, and a fast, strong pulse.
Heat Stroke
Partially embedded __________ particles must be continuously flushed with water while the first aid provider removes them with whatever tools are available.
White Phosphorous
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Deepest, white, or charred skin :
Third-degree burn
How many TOTAL pressure points are there on the human body?
Which command can designate material as Hazardous Waste?
Prior to first use, temporary electrical power sources are inspected, certified safe, and
What agent is also known as the “Canister Cracker”?
Blood Agent.
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Specific Hazard
To orient a map using a compass, place the compass along the _____ line.
Magnetic North Arrow on the Declination Diagram
The AN/PRC-119F uses what Transmitter Receiver?
RT- 1523
Who is responsible for the timely movement of personnel and cargo from terminal airfield to deployment site?
Arrival airfield control group
How many MOPP levels are there?
The _____ officer is responsible for procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction materials. In addition, the _____ officer disburses government funds for battalion purchases and military pay.
A person who is in shock has had a serious disruption in the
circulation of blood
List the 6 areas of Naval Doctrine:
Command and Control
 This fire is usually fixed in direction and elevation and can be fired under all conditions of visibility.
Z FLASH is a precedence of significant emergency/urgency (enemy contact, enemy movements, medevac, and artillery/air support. Action is to be taken:
As soon as possible but not to exceed 10 minutes.
The Galaxy is a:
Lines within the grid square are read:
In regards to Patrols, the POD is:
Point of Departure
The ____officer is responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training in the NMCB.
Who is responsible for storing, issuing, and accepting unused portions or empty containers?
What is the standard MPH for a convoy on hardtop road in a tactical environment?
30 MPH
The least secure communication is radio because radio is particularly susceptible to_________.
Begin Planning
Arrange for Reconnaissance
Make Reconnaissance and Coordination
Complete the Plan
Issue the Order
What are the three types of locations for Fighting Positions?
In very cold climates, Tight-fitting socks, boots, and gloves are:
especially dangerous
___________is cooling of the entire body. It can be caused by continued exposure to low or rapidly dropping temperatures, cold moisture, snow, and/or ice.
What are the 2 techniques for Thorough decon?
Detailed Troop Decon (DTD)
Detailed Equipment Decon (DED)
Ensure that the FPL obtains the maximum _______ fire.
Which of the following actions should be taken if serious equipment problems are found before an operation inspection?
Complete and return the operator’s inspection guide / trouble report to dispatch
Define cover:
Anything that gives protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects, and biological and chemical agents. Cover can also conceal you from enemy observation. Cover can be natural or man-made.
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Health Hazard
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities: Leads/enforces march order of the convoy
Convoy commander
What is on a “Page 13”?
a chronological record of Significant miscellaneous entries that are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.
When examining a person with a chest injury, in what position should the victim be kept?
What is the operator preventive maintenance acronym?
What are the 3 techniques for immediate decon?
Skin Decon
Personal Wipedown
Operators spraydown
EEFI Beadwindow Code
01 Position
FRIENDLY POSITION, MOVEMENT OR INTENTED MOVEMENT: Position,course, speed, altitude or designation of any air, sea or ground element, unit or force.
What is the range of the AN/PRC-150 with a :
300 miles
What is on a “Page 4”?
chronological history of your occupational and training related qualifications and your awards and commendations.
Naval Construction Force units are commissioned and assigned to the fleet by:
Who maintains the legal office?
What are the 5 leadership positions in a Company Formation?
1. Company Commander
2. Platoon Commander
3. Right Guide
4. Squad Leader
5. Fire Team Leader
In the AN/PRC – 119
FH is:
Frequency Hopping
Any Navy person may submit a written report of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition directly to the activity OSH office. To make a written hazard report, ___________form is used for this purpose.
OPNAV 5100/11
The battalion MLO is tasked with:
procuring, receiving, storing, issuing and inventorying project material
Naval Mobile Construction Battalions are required to conduct semi-annual and mid-deployment:
Field Exercises
What are the 3 types of COMSEC material supercession?
Regular – Perform in intervals as instructed
Irregular – Perform when directed
Emergency – Contingent Operations
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective range (Point Target):
550 meters (individual or point target)
The most secure means of transmission is_________, followed by _______.
In land navigation, a well-defined object on your line of march from which you can guide is called:
A steering mark
Which principle of war dictates that there is a clearly defined, attainable goal before the outbreak of hostilities?
BMNT is:
begin morning nautical twilight
NCF Units:
Construction Battalion Maintenance Unit (202 and 303)
What are the three types of fighting positions?
One Man
Two Man
When the order for emergency destruction is given what material and or equipment should be destroyed first?
top secret
The AN/PRC-104B has a range of _______ miles with the AT-217A 10ft whip antenna.
EEFI Beadwindow Code
02 Capabilities
FRIENDLY CAPABILITIES OR LIMITATIONS: Force composition or identity, capabilities, limitations or significant casualties to special equipment, weapons systems, sensor units or personnel. Percentages of fuel or ammunition remaining.
What are the three types of communication?
Shock creates a vicious cycle; the worse it is…_________
the worse it will become.
EEFI Beadwindow Code
06 ComSec
FRIENDLY COMSEC LOCATIONS: Linkage of codes or code words with plain language, compromise of changing frequencies or linkage with line numbers, circuits designators, linkage of changing call signs with previous call signs or units.
Use the column formation to:
(1) permit rapid, controlled movement.
(2) favor fire and maneuver to the flanks.
What form is used to change the COSAL?
If there are any discrepancies, the work center needs to fill out (OPNAV 4790/CK) and give it to supply in order to update the COSAL
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Total:
128 lbs. (approx)
What is CTR?
The Central Tool room manages that portion of the NMCB TOA which consists of items such as hand and power tools, trademan's tool kits, and other special tools.
Define COMSEC:
COMSEC is defined as that protection resulting from all measures designed to deny unauthorized persons information of value from the study of communications.
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Green - represents vegetation such as orchards, forests, and shrubs
Characteristics of the M9 :
Muzzle Velocity -
375 meter/sec or 1230.3 Feet Per Second
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
43.1 inches
The MK 19 MOD 3 is:
40-mm Grenade Machine Gun
What is the Frequency of the VRC-92?
MOPP Level 4:
Mask: Worn
Overgarment: Worn
Vinyl Overboot: Worn
Gloves: Worn
Helmet Protective Cover: Worn
The _____ is the tripod for the M2 .50 cal machine gun.
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition :
________ cartridges are used with a Blank Firing Attachment (BFA) during training when
simulated live fire is desired.
Consider mounted M2/MK 19 firing positions when:
Enough firepower can be employed from a vehicle to accomplish the mission
The section may have to displace quickly.
_________burns are usually the result of spending too much time in the sun, short contact with chemicals, or minor scalding with hot water or steam.
first- degree
How many 240Bs are in a Battalion TOA?
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Vomiting dark blood :
Skull Injury
What does EPMAC stand for?
Enlisted Personnel Management Center
Cyanogen Chloride, Arsine are:
Blood Agents
What form must be used by manufacturers of chemical products to communicate to the users the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties of their product?
What is the mission of an NMCB?
The mission of an NMCB is to provide military construction support to the Navy, Marine Corps, and other forces engaged in military operations. In addition, an NMCB constructs base facilities and conducts defensive operations as required by the circumstances of the deployment situation. When an emergency or a disaster occurs, NMCBs conduct disaster control recovery operations and emergency public works operating functions.
What publication is entitled “Management of Civil Engineering Support Equipment”?
What is CMS?
Communications Security Material System
When decontaminating the hood and mask using the M291 skin decon kit,
use decon packet ____ first, then decon packet _____.
What does EEFI stand for and what radio transmission is associated with disclosure of EEFI on an uncovered circuit?
Essential Elements of Friendly Information
What are blister agent symptoms?
Immediate and intense pain, particularly in the eyes and respiratory tract
Inflammation and blisters
Wheals or welts/small hard blisters
Coughing up blood
In WWII, Seabees were involved primarily in the war against _____________?
Unmasking procedures when the M256A1 kit is not available will take
approximately _____ minutes.
An _______ nuclear report may be prepared as the result of radiological monitoring or when survey or monitoring data has been requested by higher headquarters.
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Rapid:
60 rpm
Who counsels subordinate petty officers?
What is defined as a sharp pulse of radio frequency that is produced when an explosion occurs in an unsymmetrical environment?
What phone does a Platoon leader use to communicate with the Company CP?
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective rate of fire (automatic):
90 rpm (limited by magazine changes)
When terrain and situation permit, employ machine guns in_____.
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Sustained rate of fire:
12 to 15 Rounds Per Minute (rpm).
When is the DD 200 form used?
To document the report of survey and certify the survey process when property is gained or lost by the government.
What does NFELC stand for?
Naval Facilities Expeditionary Logistics Center
What is the M136?
(AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
_____________ results from all measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information of value that might be obtained from interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment and telecommunications systems.
Emission security
_________blood is usually brick red in color.
What are the three types of controls in risk management?
Engineering controls
Administrative controls
Personal Protective Equipment
Use the wedge formation to:
(1) permit good all around control.
(2) provide all around security (overlap sectors of observation or fire).
(3) make formations flexible.
(4) ensure that fire support is adequate in all directions.
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
40 inches
What are the duties of the S-4?
Request funding
Gear needed
Logistics Support
Credit Cards
What is a PS?
Personnel Specialist
During hours of low visibility, you may have to feel inside the M2 receiver and chamber to ensure that_______
no rounds are present.
______is the process of adjusting the point of aim to coincide with the strike of the rounds by adjusting the sights until a good sight picture is obtained on the point of impact.
In the AN/PRC-119
PT is:
Plain Text
_____ (CESE) do not go into live storage.
What is a ADR DAT?
Airfield Damage Repair Damage Assessment Team.
How many MK-19s are in a Battalion TOA?
Many chemical agents have similar symptoms at the onset; for example:
headaches, nausea, dizziness, and tightness in chest or difficulty in breathing.
What is an IT?
Information Systems Technician
Ground Fault Circuit Interruption – all temporary power must have one and be properly ground to the earth, it trips at:
0.5 mAmps
A ___________ mask protects personnel from dust and is an Air Purifier, but does not provide oxygen.
Filter Type
What is the maximum range of the TA-1/PT?
4 miles
What is ALE?
Automatic link establishment.
The use of several HF frequencies programmed into radio. The radio will automatically try to communicate on a frequency and move to the next until a good link can be established.
Except when engaging other targets, machine guns will continually be laid on their assigned___.
Military compounds are used for which of the following reasons?
a)      Training
b) Riot Control
What type of CESE is requested when an assigned project requires equipment beyond the P-25 TOA?
What are the duties of the S-3?
Write the OPORDER
Tailor the Air Det
Monitor Projects (LEVEL 1)
Assign each project to a prime contractor or project manager for execution.
Disaster Preparedness
The most important first aid treatment for venomous snakebites is:
reducing the circulation of blood through the bite area.
Pulling the retracting handle of the M2 machine gun to the rear once to ____ , and repeat again to ____.
Half Load
Fully Load
end of evening nautical twilight
How many frequencies can be preprogrammed into the RT-1523 when it is being used in SC mode?
When performing CPR, the ratio of breaths per minute to heart compressions is
12 to 90
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Rapid:
40 rpm or more
TOD of a message is:
Time of Delivery of an outgoing message
What is the frequency range of the RT-1209 (the transceiver associated with the AN/PRC-104)?
2 - 29.9999 MHz
URGENT MEDEVAC is required:
Casualty must be moved immediately to save life or limb, or to prevent complication of a serious illness
What are the 4 types of shoring?
ROUTINE is a precedence that is significant to the unit in administrative matters (resupply, weather reports, and motor transport maintenance). Action
should be taken within:
six hours from the time of receipt of the message.
What 8x8x20 cargo container has open sides and top?
What is BATLAN?
This is basically an email system while in the field.
It is laptops connected to a server running Microsoft outlook.
What is TACLAN?
A VHF system which allows the transfer of messages via data.
On a range card, MAG AZ stands for:
Magnetic Azimuth
A ____________Fire mission is used to engage oblique targets.
Searching Traverse
The A3 departments are:
1. Transportation Supervisor
2. Yard Boss
3. Dispatcher
4. Collateral Equipment
5. Road Master
6. License Examiner
What are the “Top 4” items to consider when setting up a camp defense?
Automatic Weapons
Wire Plan
Who supervises movement of battalion materials?
Supply Officer
_________– lists all repair parts and components (part II of the COSAL)
APL – Allowance Parts list
What does POE stand for?
Projected Operational Environment
Clear the LZ area of rocks, debris, stumps, and other obstacles over ______ high.
1 Foot
The symptoms of __________are excessive sweating that may result in painful cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and arms.
heat cramps
What is an SK?
Store Keeper
What are the 2 types of frostbite?
What does TOA stand for?
Table of Allowance
The TOA identifies and quantifies the basic personnel, material, and equipment for the performance of the unit's mission(s) in contingency, wartime, and disaster recovery operations.
What are the 8 Major groups of the M240B?
Barrel Assembly
Butt stock and Buffer Assembly
Driving Spring Rod Assembly
Bolt and Operating Rod Assembly
Trigger Mechanism/Housing Assembly
Cover Assembly
Feed Tray
Receiver Assembly with Handguard
An automatic weapon firing position must have:
limiting stakes
a water trench
grenade sumps
a parapet
overhead cover
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Barrel:
24 lbs. (approx)
Radio Diagram: The COC must communicate via radio to who?
Company CPs
Emergency Broadcast Station
Assign a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF) for a machine gun only when the terrain does not allow for ___________.
effective FPL fires.
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition :
________ cartridges are used during training.
In Alfa Company, the parts common kit is known as:
Modifier Code 96
Modifier Code 97
What must be considered when setting up a decontamination station?
a)      Wind direction
b)      Cover and Concealment
c) Drainage
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C5?
C5: Not prepared to undertake mission
The best method for removing ticks is to coat them with:
petroleum jelly, baking powder paste, or clear nail polish.
Which of the following is a type of RESPIRATOR most often used in the battalion?
Air Purifying
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Weight: Approx.
8.79 lb (with 30 round magazine)
What is the GPCP?
What is the maximum purchase amount?
GPCP – Government Purchase Card Program – purchases less than $2,500
Assignment of a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF).
Ensure the position covers:
Ensure the position covers likely avenues of approach.
What is OPTAR 04:
Per diem and TAD travel
Characteristics of the M203 :
Minimum safe firing range from HE:
31-meters/102 ft. (combat)
What is an ET?
Electronics Technician
What form is used to change any allowance list?
1220-2 Allowance Change Request
Who provides advice and expertise in small arms?
Military Advisor
What number on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Degree of Hazard = No Hazard
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
To prevent similar mishaps
What does EOF stand for?
Escalation of Force
Blood from _______is dark red in color
What does CREO 2 mean?
No attempt should be made to put a dislocated bone back into place, unless it is known that medical assistance cannot arrive within ___ or ___ days.
3 or 4 days
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
36 miles
Blood circulates throughout the body by means of three different kinds of blood vessels:
What is on a MSDS?
physical/chemical characteristics
health hazard data
reactivity data
What is the LOEP?
List of Effective Pages
What does PPRS stand for?
Pre-Planned Responses
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Eyes are irritated :
Flash burn
Ensure that you locate supplementary fighting positions in areas that provide protection against
surprise enemy attack
What are the 6 types of grenades?
The Battalion _________ is responsible for maintaining the health of the personnel of the command.
Medical Officer
_____ can be military police or other personnel for a non-tactical convoy, during a tactical convoy may be armed guards, armed aircraft infantry, armored units as required to protect or accompany the convoy.
When clearing fields of fire, ensure that you clear in an___________, which will not reveal the position of the machine gun.
irregular pattern
What are the camouflage colors for all personnel in snow regions?
Loam & white
Ensure that FPL dead space can be covered by:
alternate weapons (munitions, M203 grenade launchers, mortars, claymore mines).
UHF: Ultra High Frequency is ____ to ____MHz
300 to 3,000
How many empty 463L pallets can be safely stacked up?
Classes of Supply:
Class 3 is:
Petroleum Oil and Lubricants (POL)
What is an RFI?
Request for information – questions on design/plans
What is the Navy Occupational
Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program Manual.
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The multipurpose round (buckshot)________, contains no mechanical type fuze.
What does ROC stand for?
Required Operational Capabilities
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum range:
6800 meters (approx)
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Automatic Rifleman:
M16 rifle, backbone of the defense of the squad. Positioned first by the squad leader. The remainder of the fire team is positioned around the automatic rifles.
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Cyclic:
325-375 rpm
If you receive a green color on an M9 paper, what does that signify?
Perform further testing, possibly a false reading
Characteristics of the M203 :
The two most common types of 40-mm ammunition used with the launcher are:
High Explosive (HE) and Training Practice (TP).
DO NOT permit manpack or vehicular whip antennas to come in contact with:
high-power lines or other sources of electricity; injury or death could result.
Classes of Supply:
Class 5 is:
While on patrol, the RRP is:
Re-entry rally point
What does DRMO stand for?
Defense reutilization marketing office (DRMO)
Characteristics of the 240B :
49 inches
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Cyclic:
325-375 rpm
Tools borrowed from another unit must be inspected by CTR before :
put into use.
______ ensures requirements for supplies still exist (cancels material no longer needed, needs receipt to close out) – Completed Quarterly
MOV – Material Obligation Validation program
What is a FR?
Force Revision
The _____officer is responsible for contingency planning and intelligence collection.
D. Eisenhower first promulgated the Code of Conduct for members of the Armed Forces of the United States on August 17, _____.
What are the three Antennas used at the Ant Farm?
AS-2259 (HF)
OE-254 (VHF)
TR-72 (HF)
A ______ kit detects nerve, blister and blood agents in water
25 test per kit
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum range:
6800 meters (approx)
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Automatic Rifleman:
M16 rifle, backbone of the defense of the squad. Positioned first by the squad leader. The remainder of the fire team is positioned around the automatic rifles.
Who is responsible for Planning, scheduling, and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster recovery Ops?
Operations (S3)
What are the duties of the S-6?
Establish Comms for the COC
Issue Comm gear
Review Comm requests
If there is nerve agent poisoning to a downed Seabee, administer the antidote using whose injector/ampoules?
The casualty’s
What is an NC?
Navy Counselor
Characteristics of the M203 :
Point target range:
150 meters
A full-time military motor vehicle operator will not drive a motor vehicle during any period if that duty period was not preceded by
8 consecutive hours off duty
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Heads from the water supply?
100 Meters
The purpose of a mishap investigation is to determine:
How the mishap can be prevented in the future
What does the COC stand for?
Combat Operations Center
The color code for this road condition is:
Subject to limited hostile activity
Ensure that you locate alternate fighting positions where the machine gun teams can continue to accomplish the_____________.
primary mission
What is a FAR?
Field Adjustment Request – field change from NMCB (changes based on materials, experience, efficiencies)
In terms of COMSEC, what does PDS mean?
Practices Dangerous to Security
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective range (Area Target):
800 meters
Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the purpose of :
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Program
What is the 17th master activity?
Expeditionary structures
After the sucking chest wound is sealed and dressed, the victim should be placed on the ________side unless there are back injuries.
Can a Tricon fit on a 463L pallet?
What is the principle element of command and control?
A white phosphorus burn to the skin is complicated because the white phosphorus particles
ignite upon contact with the air.
This weapon can be used against antiarmor, gun emplacements, and bunkers.
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
What is Rolling shoring?
Used to protect the aircraft parking ramp, floor, and loading ramps (used especially for tracked or cleated vehicles)
Who are the 3 enlisted who work directly for the CO?
Military Advisor
Safety Chief
What are the characteristics of the M500?
Manually operated, Single shot, Magazine feed (tubular), Pump action, Shoulder-fired weapon
Use the LOW CRAWL when:
a) The route you have selected provides cover or concealment less than one foot high.
b) Visibility provides the enemy good observation.
c) Speed is not required.
Following confinement of oil spills on water, what 2 Methods of removing the confined liquid are used.
What Radio is in the Company CPs?
What does MOCC stand for?
Mount Out Control Center
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Implement Controls
Implement control measures
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Blood coming from the nose :
Skull injury
What is a kit 80013?
Mechanics Kit
What field telephone is DSN capable?
________ is responsible for the convoys action during movement. He initiates the march, issues and enforces march orders, and supervises the movement.
Convoy commander
Who maintains battalion library on directives and pubs:
Admin/Personnel (S1)
The PRC-117 (UHF/SATCOM) uses what RT?
RT 1796
A draw is :
a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side of a ridge or hill.
Often, there is a small stream running down the draw.
The M240B uses the ____ tripod with T&E mechanism.
How many hazard categories of hazardous material (HAZMAT)?
What bridge is 12’-6” wide, can span up to 210’
Bailey Bridge
Engaging point, wide, deep, and oblique battlefield targets from a tripod-mounted gun is known as:
transition firing
________ bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.
A means for others to positively locate your gun position. The line is drawn from a prominent terrain feature that is located behind friendly lines.
Magnetic Orientation Line
During initial emergency treatment, it is imperative that a ____________be sealed with an airtight dressing.
sucking chest wound
What does this formula calculate: 67/PEF?
A delay factor (DF)
What does AP stand for?
Advance Party
What are the camouflage colors for dark skinned personnel in other than snow regions?
Sand & dark green
For camp layout Keep BAS near the ______ (overflow BAS) and near the ___.
Chow Hall
Due to the Amplifier and height of antennas, range of the VRC-92 is increased to ______miles. Since RT is the same, operation of radio is the same as a PRC-119.
Mount out procedures for CESE:
Supply Prep
Mobile loading (filling up empty spaces)
You have a HAZMAT spill of a highly dangerous product, what is your first procedure in response?
evacuate the area
Air Det Weapons

___ M2 50 cal
___ M19 Grenade machine guns
___ M240B machine gun
___ M203
___ M500
What does CHRIMP stand for?
Consolidated HAZMAT Reutilization Inventory Management Program
Sporadic damage to a runway that looks like shrapnel wounds is called a:
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun :
The "HB" designation stands for_______ .
"heavy barrel."
What is the function of the S3 in the COC?
Keeps the S3 board up to date with:
What is the primary mission of a Battalion after an airfield attack?
Airfield Damage Repair
Who is responsible for tactical communications training, equipment, and procedures?
What does CAS stand for?
Construction Activity Summary
How long is the CPO Suit good for in a contaminated environment?
6 Hours
What are ALL the enlisted rating in Alfa Co?
What are the three major types of respirators?
Supplied Air
Self Contained
Air Purifying
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun :
Is it equipped with a safety?
For the M240B, each click of elevation or traverse on the elevating hand wheel or the traversing
knob equals______.
one mil
What is a GM?
Gunner's Mate
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a window openings within :
100 meters
Positioning Seabees in some terrain features, like_____, will expose them to increased hazards from a biological/chemical attack. These areas retain moisture and block sunlight. These characteristics will allow biological agents (germs, mosquitoes, ticks,
wooded areas or jungles
The AN-M14 is a/an _____ grenade.
Process by which units move equipment, cargo, and personnel to temporary staging area near embarkation points.
Characteristics of the M203 :
Maximum range:
400 meters
______ fire is delivered over the heads of troops. It is usually plunging fire.
Overhead Fire
The M8 is a _______ grenade.
For all Wire Communication plans: everything should be assembled into _______________.
A loop for fire teams/squad leader, a loop for squad leaders/platoon commanders, and a loop for Platoon Commanders to the Company Command Post.
Gun Loops
Do not attach grenades to______ or ________.
Do not attach grenades to______ or ________.
Military Role in Domestic Disasters:
Response – sustaining life (major role)
Recovery – returning infrastructure and services
Restoration – long term (limited role)
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
Serviceable/Unused - Good/Fair/Poor
The manual switchboard is the ____,
The automatic switchboard is the___.
SB-22 (Manual)
SB-3614 (Automatic)
What is the formula for calculating Manday Capability?
MC = WD x AF x CS x ME
The two methods of firing a M18A1 are:
Who functions as the prime contractor and/or subcontractor?
Company Commander
Which of the following forms is used to report equipment discrepancies?
NAVFAC 9-11240/13
EEFI Beadwindow Code
05 Personnel
FRIENDLY KEY PERSONNEL: Movement or identity of friendly or enemy flag officers, distinguished visitors, unit commanders, movements of key maintenance personnel indicating equipment limitations.
In the Seabee TOA, what is MH?
Heavy Module (horizontal, water well, 49 pieces of CESE) – P25H
This round of M203 ammo lands on the deck and bounces up 2m to explode. 5m-casualty radius. Arms within 14m to 27m.
HE Air Burst
What is OPTAR 03:
Camp Maintenance
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Red - represents major roads and other cultural features such as populated areas and boundaries
Equipment is placed in _______when there is no foreseeable need for the equipment for a period of two preventive maintenance (PM) cycles or 80 working days and also it must be in A5 or better condition.
live storage
Supply, maintenance, transportation, engineering, health services, and other services (billeting, disbursing, etc.) are_________.
Functional areas of naval logistics
Bailey Bridge Configurations:

Single / Single Bridge: ___ ft
Double / Single Bridge: ___ ft
Double / Double Bridge: ___ ft
A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1,800 construction hours or 90 days, is found in the
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
There is a back-blast of ___ meters (casualty area) and ___ meters (danger area).
RAC 4 =
When a piece of CESE is deadline or anticipated to be, it is designated as_______ or __________.
What is EKMS?
Electronic Key Management System
What is OPTAR 08:
Training, DET swings, Emergency Leave
The Safety Policy committee is made up of ?
Company Commanders and Department Heads
What are the Eight Steps of the M16 Firing Cycle?
Air Det is self sufficient for ____ days minus food (___ days), fuel (__ days), and ammo (___ days).
Air Det is capable of mounting out within ____ hours.
How many M2 .50s are in a Battalion TOA?
Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for entry by personnel?
Gas-free engineer
What are the 6 types of chemical agents?
Military Compounds
The maximum extent of the grazing fire is _____ meters for the M240B or _____meters for the M2 if there is no sharp rise or fall in terrain at a closer distance.
What is the length and width of a 2-man fighting position?
1 M16 Long by 2 M16s Wide
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Receiver Group:
60 lbs.
___________ is a unit reporting format utilized to summarize a unit’s training and operational readiness to higher headquarters and the theater commanders.
Who disburses funds for purchases, pay, and allowances?
Supply (S4)
What does SLRP stand for?
Surveillance Liaison and Reconnaissance Party
Broken damage through the runway is called a :
The four elements relevant to each functional area of naval logistics are:
Acquisition, Distribution, Sustainment & Disposition
For indirect fire, there are three methods of target location:
Polar plot
Shift from a known point
What is X4?
Regarding the USMC, what does MEB stand for?
Marine Expeditionary Brigade
What are ALL the HQ enlisted ratings?
Military Advisor (USMC)
Air force MTSG
The purpose of the ACR is to
submit an allowance change request to any published allowance list.
Tanker Airlift Control Element
A campsite should not have been occupied by other units in last ____ months.
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Who drafts and produces internal pubs (POW):
Admin/Personnel (S1)
What are examples of FFIRs?
Battle space Commander
Adjacent Units
Comm assets in the area
Call for fire / Medevac
Who Operates the mail system?
Supply (S4)
What is the most common cold injury?
In Alfa Co. the Repair Parts Peculiar is also known as :
Modifier Code 98
Mod 98
What is the max height one can load a 463L pallet?
96 inches
MOPP gear exchange is the removal of ____________ and is performed in conjunction with hasty decon operations.
gross liquid contamination
Divers belong to this NCF unit:
Who is responsible for organizing and/or conducting workplace safety inspections to identify violations?
Safety Officer
A dislocation is when:
a joint, such as a knee, ankle, or shoulder, is not in proper position.
Before working on electricity, hydraulics, engines, or batteries, they must be
Locked/tagged out
What is the cost of a single
Characteristics of the 240B :
Muzzle velocity:
2,800 fps
_____ is used to change quantity on an allowance list (item failure rate is more/less than expected, new mission requirement, technological improvements)
NAVSUP 1220-2, Allowance Change Request (ACR)
Partially embedded ___________ particles must be continuously flushed with water while the first aid provider removes them with whatever tools are available.
White Phosphorous
What is DAPA?
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA).
The PLGR antenna can be swiveled :
to improve reception.
Just because a Seabee has clearance to view classified material, doesn’t automatically mean _____ will be granted.
What is an SH?
Ship's Serviceman
(Barber, laundry, tailor, cobbler)
When developing a patrol plan, use ________ to plan based on the remaining time available.
Backwards planning
____ Company Is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the automotive, construction and materials-handling equipment assigned to the battalion.
What is the function of the Messenger in the COC?
Deliver messages to assigned locations. Most secure, can deliver yellow canneries to CPs when comms fail.
What is available for equipment Decon?
M295 – oven mitt like with 4 individual packets (activate charcoal)
M100 – Chemical DECON for vehicles
M17 – Pressure washer
What is the SSAP?
Seabee Skills Assessment Program: continuously update member skills (general/rating/military/construction)
What are the HF (non-mobile) antennas used at the Ant Farm?
______ company is responsible for water, sanitary sewer, power distribution systems, fuel systems, and communications projects.
Also serves as a mini public works department providing for maintenance and operation of the unit’s camp.
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Supervise personnel
The M15WP, and M34WP are:
Smoke Grenades
A bone that has been forcibly displaced from its joint is____________.
Requisition/consumption reporting document used by submarine force and non-automated units.
NAVSUP 1250-1
Never heat a frost bitten areas with :
An open fire.
How many M203s are in a Battalion TOA?
What is the MPP?
MPP – Master Packing Plan – packed with TOA during mount out, assigns item to a specific container.
What is a PC?
Postal Clerk
The P-437 is no longer in publication and has been replace by :
ABFC View web based database
A ________is the opposite direction of a particular azimuth. It is the same as doing an "about face."
back azimuth
In areas where noise levels consistently exceed ____ dB sound level, a combination of insert type and circumaural (muff) type hearing protective devices must be worn by personnel.
What do you use to measure actual ground distance on a map?
The bar scale
There is no antidote for _____ agents.
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
What is the gun mount?
M64 Mount
If mandays earned is greater than mandays expended then the project is ahead of / behind Schedule.
Ahead of
Name the members of a crew served gun team:
Team Leader
Ammo Bearer #1
Ammo Bearer #2
A patrol leader will receive a warning order for a patrol, from that order, what are the two orders that will be issued by the patrol leader?
Patrol Warning Order
Patrol Order
Place _____________in front of the defensive perimeter to conceal the exact line of tactical wire.
supplementary wire
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
HEDP is what?
High Explosive Dual Purpose
What are the 3 levels of ORM?
Time Critical
What are the three types of labor?
Warning sent over the net to alert operators that hostile forces are attempting to intrude on the net by Imitative Communications Deceptions.
When under NBC attack, when do you give warning?
After you mask
What is the MSC?
Military Sealift Command
Regarding the SB-22, how many lines can be connected:
RAC 1 =
What does FLOT stand for?
Forward Line of Troops
The __________ is responsible for the interpretation and application of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Legal Officer
Which principle of war constantly aims to keep the enemy at a disadvantage through the constant shifting of ones own force?
What does CREO stand for?
Career Reenlistment Objectives
The _________ are a lightweight, gas- operated, air-cooled, magazine-fed, shoulder- fired weapon that can be fired either on automatic or semiautomatic.
M16A3 service rifles
The ___________ officer is responsible for the orderly and efficient embarkation of the entire NMCB or any portion thereof.
Embarkation Officer
Any breach or possible breach of Security or classified material is known as a _____ and must be dealt with immediately.
A cliff is:
a vertical or near vertical terrain feature.
Any material that absorbs HAZMAT, becomes _________.
In terms of camp layout:
Disperse berthing, don’t face tents towards _______.
The forward line of troops.
What does the “WD” stand for in
Wire Drum
When deployed, NMCBs shall be ready to redeploy with their entire TOA within ___ days.
Organic CESE allowances are not designed to meet every_______
What are the three billets that work directly for the S4?
ABFC stands for:
Advanced Base Functional Component
What is ECCM?
Electronic Counter - Countermeasures
What does ECP stand for?
Entry Control Point
A grenadiers position is near the __________.
Squad Leader
Air Echelon is self-sustaining for ___ days, except for Class I, III, V.
What batteries are used in a TA-1?
None, it’s sound powered
Under Airfield Damage Repair, what does BXO stand for?
Buried Unexploded Ordinance
The effective radius of the M67 is:
15 Meters
What are the three types of Medium Girder Bridges?
Single Story
Double Story
Linked Reinforced
A monthly statement of a command's enlisted personnel account:
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
What are the three types of chemical weapon delivery methods?
Ground burst
Air burst
There are ____ categories of Production Efficiency Factors. The default value for each PEF is _____. The final PEF is found by calculating an _________ of the values.
During Mopp gear exchange, when no material is provided on which the decontaminated equipment may be placed, such as____________, then decontaminate a poncho and place it upwind of the column.
a plastic sheet or poncho
Classes of Supply:
Class 9 is:
Repair Parts
What is the VHF vehicle mounted antenna?
Who works directly under the H6?
What is the Junction box model number?
What are the Convoy immediate action drills?
Deliberate high clear (overpass)
Deliberate low clear (overpass)
Hasty overpass Clearing
Hasty Attack (suppress)
Hasty Attack (assault)
Hasty Defense (dismount)
Hasty Recovery (tow with chain)
Hasty Recovery (Push-Through)
Bail out cold side (use vehicle as cover)
IED discovery (5 “C”s)
Where is the FLOT located in relation to the three echelons of Defense?
Between the Security area and Forward Defense Area.
_________ wire entanglements are located to prevent surprise assaults from points close to the defensive area.
NMCB companies all fall under the control of the:
What are the two types of emergency classified information destruction?
What is the maximum effective distance of a TA-312 field phone in wet and dry climates?
14 Miles Wet
22 Miles Dry
There are _____ steps to developing planning a patrol.
What are the 12 steps of a patrol?
1.          Study the mission
2.          Plan the use of time
3.          Study the terrain
4.          Organize the patrol
5.          Select the personnel, weapons and equipment
6.          Issue the warning order
7.          Coordinate the logistics and entry/exit point locations
8.          Make recon
9.          Complete detail plan
10.      Issue patrol order
11.      Supervise rehearsal – inspect/reinspect
12. Execute the Mission
What is a Class C fire?
How long is the wire associated with an M18A1?
100 feet
What are the 4 types of bridges used in the NCF?
Mabey Johnson
Medium Girder
Heavy Timber
What are the steps for purifying water with iodine tablets?
Remove the cap from your canteen and fill the canteen with the cleanest water available.
Put two tablets in the canteen.
Replace the cap and wait 5 minutes.
Shake the canteen.
Loosen the cap and tip the canteen over to allow leakage around the canteen threads.
Tighten the cap and wait another 25 minutes before drinking (total of 30 minutes).
The unit’s senior military member present at the project site shall direct all military personnel engaged in the work. At no time will Seabees be directed by_____.
non-Navy personnel
What is the NMCB mission in the MPS?
Beach improvements
Survivability structures (earthen berms)
Airfield Improvements
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
unserviceable/repairable – Fair
For a DED decon layout, what is station #2?
DS2 Application
What are the three antennas that can be used with the AN/PRC-119?
3 foot tape
10 foot Whip
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
What does 3M stand for?
Maintenance and Materials Management
There are three methods for disinfecting water for drinking. These include the use of:
iodine tablets
calcium hydrochloride ampules
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Sustained:
40 rpm
Putting diesel fuel in a coke bottle requires informing users of the new contents, this is called:
Secondary Labeling
What does ICAM stand for?
Improved Chemical Agent Monitor (replaced the CAM)
Classes of Supply:
Class 4 is:
Construction Material
A joint force based solely on functional capabilities is commanded by a:
Functional Commander
What type of bleeding shows blood dark red or maroon, and flows in a steady stream?
Venous bleeding
When should an evader attempt to contact friendly troops when nearby?
When there is enough light available to be identified by friendly forces
What batteries are used in a TA-312?
2 D-Cell
Determining real communications from fake is the purpose of :
Thermite burns at a temperature of about ____ F.
Who in a convoy is responsible to enforce traffic control?
Trail Officer
Who performs workplace monitoring to determine exposure to hazards?
Industrial Hygienist
The full title of PHIBCB is:
Amphibious Construction Battalion
___________ is that component of COMSEC that results from the
provision of technically sound cryptographic systems.
Cryptographic security
________ precedes the column and is in charge of the point in tactical ops. Non-tactical operations reconnoiters the route of march selects alternate routes posts traffic control personnel, and notifies proper authorities of the approach of the column
Advance officer
If chemical or biological attack, mask victim immediately. If a nerve agent is present give the victim their ________ kit. If there is a chemical attack do not expose__________.
Reports are used by a command to report logistical requirements to higher headquarters:
Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ)
METT-T (Enemy)
When preparing a Convoy Order, where do you find into on Threats/Enemy?
R2 and S2
The _______is a two-wire, battery-operated field telephone. It is rugged, lightweight, and
waterproof. It may be used inside or outside under all conditions.
The navigation method where one identifies terrain features and compares it to what is shown on a map:
Terrain Association
What are the 4 hazards listed on a Hazardous Warning Label?
What are the 2 techniques for operational decon?
MOPP Gear Exchange
Vehicle Washdown
In terms of camp layout:
The Antenna farm should be on the ______ of a hill.
Antennas should not silhouette the skyline
______ is a requisition used for open purchase items, services, or shipping.
DD 1149
When using METT-T to analyze the military aspects of terrain (KOCOA) for convoys, simply using a _____ will not be sufficient to accurately analyze the route.
In a three-man machine gun team, the ______ digs a one-man fighting position to the flank where he can provide security for the machine gun, observe and fire into the team's primary and alternate sectors of fire, and also can see the gunner and team leade
ammunition bearer
Decontaminating Solution #2 is more commonly known as:
A battalion is self sustaining for ___ days after Air Det, Sea Echelon, and Air Echelon have arrived.
Advancement in rate, retention and reenlistment, and special training are some of the purposes for the
Enlisted Evaluation
Place the M9 pistol in condition 1.
Logistic operations between a company and the battalion supply department are an example of logistics on a _________ level.
What is the mission of JLOTS?
Unloading cargo, fuel, and water from a ship without port facilities (unimproved shorelines)
Regarding the USMC, what does MAW stand for?
Marine Aircraft Wing

Place the M16A3 in condition 1.
_______ lists all the material a unit is supposed to have for a particular piece of equipment.
AEL – Allowance Equipage List
What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class B fire?
Dry chemical or CO2
METT-T (Terrain)
To identify standard military aspects of terrain, use the acronym:
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Assess Hazards
What are the end results of the hazards?
What is the bore of a weapon?
The internal measurement inside the weapon barrel. It can be rifled or not.
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Used against armored personnel carriers. Can be used to disable a battle tank (mobility kill) if struck properly.
What are the three safety devices on the M9?
Safety lever, Decocking mechanism, Half cock
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
10 foot antennal
3-10 miles
The XTS 5000 has ___ channels, ______ MHz, and a range of _______ miles.
15 channels
VHF: 153 – 168 MHz
Range 1 – 3 miles
Total weight of the M203 including the M16A3 is _______ pounds fully loaded.
Maximum performance with the AN/PRC-119 is to the _____when the set is on the operator’s back with a 3-foot whip antenna.
The operator should then try facing in the direction of distant communications.
In COMSEC, what does ICD stand for?
Imitative Communications Deceptions
On a Range Card, the FPL needs no direction reading since the traversing slide is positioned to the ______of the traversing bar.
extreme right or left
The AN-M14 incendiary grenade contains 26.5 ounces of :
Thermite mixture
When was the Department of the Navy formally created?
30 APR 1798
Who is the immediate supervisor for all the X codes?
Vietnam: The first full Seabee battalion arrived in Vietnam on _______ to build an expeditionary airfield for the Marines, at _____.
7 May 1965
Chu Lai
________ is a system to send VHF data via a RT 1523
The FIRST NCD, and its subordinate NCF units, are under the _____ of US Fleet Forces Command.
The AN/VRC-92 has how many RT-1523s?
Under Airfield Damage Repair, what does RQC stand for?
Repair Quality Criteria
What does PIR stand for?
Priority Information Requests
How long should you apply pressure when using the NAAK auto injector?
10 seconds
The objective of _________ pressure is to compress the artery against the bone, thus shutting off the flow of blood from the heart to a wound.
Pressure point
What is the advantage of a two man fighting position?
One person is on watch while the other sleeps.
Your fellow Seabee has just taken a 7.62mm to the chest, is covered in blood, and ---has a large hole in his chest, your first action should be?
Return fire and assess ABC’s when safe
On the front sight of the M16, rotating the sight in the same direction as the “UP” arrow will move the impact of the round ______.
The Battalion Safety Officer reviews project _________, conducts ___________, and coordinates _________.
Safety Plans
Safety Inspections
Corrective Actions
What is the AUL?
Authorized user list
_______ of NCF units forward deployed to the European theater is maintained by the theater COCOM, which is U.S. European Command (EUCOM), and is exercised via U.S. Naval Forces Europe (CNE) via the FIRST NCD and TWENTYSECOND NCR.
_______ (NCF Unit) is an established unit in the Naval Beach Group (NBG)
Amphibious Construction Battalions
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for V Nerve Agents.
He is responsible for changing the barrels during firing (M240B).
Team Leader
NCF Units:
Seabee Readiness Group (20th and 31st)
What is the total system weight of the MK-19?
143 Pounds
Symptoms of nerve agent poisoning:
Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained sudden headache
Difficulty with vision (dimness of vision)
Tightness in chest/difficulty in breathing
Localized sweating/muscle twitching in contaminated area of the skin
Stomach cramps
When a vehicle in a convoy becomes disabled, the two methods of hasty recovery are:
Tow with chain or strap
“Push through”
A saddle on a map is:
a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground.
How many stations are there in a personnel decontamination site?
Heat cramps are due to:
insufficient salt in the body
What is the built in back up if the batteries fail in a TA-312?
Talk in the ear piece as a sound powered telephone
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a bunker within :
150 meters
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Range: Max. Effective:
300 meters
Mustards, Arsenic, Urticans are:
Blister Agents
What billet works directly under S7?
React to aerial flares
If you hear the firing of a flare:
Then hit the deck, taking the best cover available.
What is STB?
Super Tropical Bleach
What is the CMSR?
Camp Maintenance Storeroom
OPORDER Mission element:
A clear, concise statement of the task the squad must accomplish.
What are the dimensions of a Tricon?
6.5 x 8 x 8 ft
EUCOM is an example of a :
Combatant Command
Condition 2
Not applicable to the M9.
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 2
Not applicable to the M16A3
What does NMETL stand for?
Navy Mission Essential Task List
What are the departments under the A4?
- Cost Control – DTO clerk, PM clerk, Parts Expeditor, Tech Librarian, Tool Room
- Light Shop Sup
- Heavy Shop Sup
- Support Shop Sup (steel, machine, paint, 5000, tire, and battery shops)
- Live Storage
- Inspectors
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Blood coming from the ears :
Skull Injury
What is NC?
Not Carried
When applying a Tourniquet, use a strap that is one inch wide. Too narrow of a cord will:
Cut into the skin
Briefly state the purpose of the following immediate action drills:
Condition Gunsmoke
Intruder in camp
The definition of automatic retrans is:
signal enters 1st radio, passes through cable and exits 2nd radio on a different frequency
Who is responsible for Evaluation of received OPORDS, prepare internal OPORDS for battalion?
Operations (S3)
The Acronym SURVIVAL stands for:
Size up the Situation
Undue haste makes waste
Remember where you are
Vanquish fear and Panic
Value Living
Act like the Natives
Learn Basic Skills
What is the M295?
M295 – oven mitt like with 4 individual packets (activate charcoal)
Command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an :
Major health hazard
OPORDER Execution elements:
Concept of Operations - The concept of the operation is the squad leader's brief summary of the tactical plan the squad is to execute and the commander's intent.
Subordinate Tasks (Missions) - In each succeeding paragraph, missions are assigned to each fire team and any attached units.
Coordinating Instructions
The color code for this road condition is:
What does VBIED stand for?
Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device
Of the three types of Safety controls, which is most desirable?
Engineering controls,
they will always be in place.
NCF Units:
Naval Amphibious Construction Battalions (1 and 2)
What does CLS stand for?
Combat Life Saver
What are the 9 steps in response to a chemical attack?
Apply First Aid
Conduct DECON
Check food and water supplies
Mark all contaminated equipment and areas
Assess chemical downwind threat
Leave or avoid contaminated areas
Assess combat capability
Send NBC 1 report
Send NBC 4 report
The _________ Officer is responsible for procuring, receiving, stowing, issuing, shipping, transferring, and accounting for all construction project material.
What is PSE?
Personnel support equipment.

Some examples are beds, mattresses, wardrobes, desks, chairs, tables, lamps, bookcases, compact refrigerators, rugs, and drapes.
Sight Alignment
The relationship between the front and rear sight and the aiming eye. This relationship is critical to the aiming process and must remain consistent from shot to shot. There are three factors involved: stock weld, eye relief, and the relationship between the front and rear sight.
For the Claymore Mine, the M40 is:
The Test set.
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts local and remote. The remote is placed at the:
Combat Operations Center
Command Post
Supply operations involving movement of a large quantity of material from CONUS to a European theater of operations is an example of logistics on a ___________ level.
This person is the senior military officer in the Navy:
According to the type of HAZMAT, certain storage procedures must be applied.
For example, do not mix flammables and____________, or flammables and____________, together.
toxic materials
Particles remaining 0-3” off the ground are:
Alpha Particles
React to ground flares by:
1) Move quickly and away from the lighted area.
2) Look for other members of your squad and attempt to link up with them.
The most widely employed tactical radios provide integrated communications security (COMSEC) and _________through frequency hopping.
jam resistance
The ________________ and the ___________________provide a means of quickly locating the presence or absence of nerve- and mustard-agent contamination on personnel and equipment.
Chemical Agent Monitor (CAM)
Improved CAM (ICAM)
He carries spare barrel kit, M122 tripod, and one bandoleer of ammo and armed with a 9mm pistol.
M240B Team Leader
It is imperative a ___________ be sealed with an airtight dressing to prevent air from entering the chest cavity through the wound.
Sucking Chest Wound
What does OPP stand for?
Offload Preparation Party
Key personnel in a convoy
Trail Officer (Senior Enlisted)
decides whether to recover, repair, or destroy the equipment that impedes the progress of the convoy.
Standard issue 782 gear:
1) Pistol belt 1 each
2) Pack combat medium 1 each
3) Suspenders 1 each
4) Ammo pouch 2 each
5) Canteen cover, canteen, and canteen cup 1 set
6) First aid packet 1 each
7) Entrenching tool and cover 1 set
8) Poncho 1 each
9) Shelter half with one tent pole, five tent pins and guy line 1 set
10) Mess kit with knife, fork, and spoon 1 set
11) Bayonet or K-bar** 1 each
12) Kevlar helmet 1 each
13) Camouflage cover 1 each
14) Hat and mosquito net 1 set
MOPP gear exchange sites are usually located as close to the ___________ area possible to preclude the spread of contamination.
The Motorola portable VHF base station MODP1755 requires:
a hand held Saber radio for proper operation
What departments work under the S4A?
Post Office
How long is the OF-346 valid for and when does it expire?
3 years, on operators birthday
Condition 1
Magazine inserted, round in chamber, slide forward, hammer down and decocking/safety
Prior to a battalion movement, an ________ is used to request a cruise box shipment.
Why are berthing tents placed at least 35 meters apart?
To minimize losses due to a single mortar round
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Muzzle velocity:
950 fps
OPORDER Situation elements:
Enemy Forces - Consists of the composition, disposition, location, movement, capabilities, and recent activities of enemy forces.
Friendly Forces - A statement of the mission of the next higher unit, location and mission of adjacent units, and the commander's intent from two levels higher.
Attachments and Detachments - Units attached to or detached from the squad by higher headquarters, including the effective time of the attachment or detachment.
The goal of wearing hearing protection is to prevent:
Hearing Loss
Name two methods of delivery used for chemical weapons?
Spray, Thermal, Dispersion Burst (Ground or Air Burst)
What number on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Degree of Hazard = Extreme
What does BEEP stand for?
Battalion Equipment Evaluation Program
A Confirmation brief is used to:
Confirm that the details in an OPORDER are clearly understood. Also called a back brief.
What are the 3 categories of supplies for loading?
The 240B fires from the ______ bolt position.
The “hard card” is the:
What does NCTC stand for?
Naval Construction Training Center
A Bailey M2, Panel Bridge is constructed and launched via:
Manpower, roller system
The most effective way to stop an attack on a convoy is to:
Kill the attackers
What is the M100?
M100 – Chemical DECON for vehicles
_________ wreck gas mask canisters quickly.
Blood Agents
What is COG?
Two character Alpha-numeric codes that may be prefixed to national stock numbers to identify and designate the cognizant inventory manager who exercises supply management over specified categories of material.
At which MOPP Level do personnel don their protective over-garments and boots while carrying their mask and gloves?
MOPP Level Two
What is Approaching shoring?
Used to decrease the approach angle for aircraft ramps (tall or long vehicles usually require this)
The acronym ORM stands for :
Operational Risk Management
Grubbing operations increase ______ and reduce ________.
Soil erosion
Oxygen, Wildlife
The TA-1/PT is a lightweight, ______ powered, field telephone.
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Support the rifleman in the offense and defense. Provide heavy volumes of controlled fires. Provide FPF’s. Cover likely avenues of approach. Provide grazing fire.
The burning period of the M49A1 trip flare is:
55 to 70 seconds of illumination.
ACL is:
Allowable Cabin/Cargo Load
Who is the Senior assistant to the XO:
Admin/Personnel (S1)
This should only be used, as a last resort for severe, life threatening bleeding that cannot be controlled by any other method.
A Tourniquet
Who serves as head of Safety Policy Committee?
What is name of the enlarged part of the breech of a weapon that holds the round of ammunition?
The Chamber
What does MPSRON stand for?
Maritime Pre-positioning Ship Squadron
________ Supply requisition for NSN materials.
NAVSUP 1250-1
Which category of HAZMAT can burn skin and corrode metal?
Who is responsible for installation, training, and maintenance of all ADP equipment?
A _______ can accomplish limited construction tasking, but is normally employed only in the operational phase of an advance base life-cycle.
How many Grenadiers are in a Platoon?
Enemy – DRAW-D
A _________ mask has time limitations for use.
Self Contained
What phone does a Squad leader use to communicate with a Platoon Leader?
TA-1 or TA-312
What are the three types of inspections performed on camp facilities?
Controlled inspections
Annual Inspection Summary
Operator Inspections
What are the dimensions of a SIXCON?
6.5 x 8 x 4 ft
The _____ Bridge is a metal truss bridge with heavy timber decking, roadway carried between two main girders.
Why couldn’t civilian contractors build all the island facilities necessary to win WWII?
They couldn’t defend themselves, and if they did, they could be shot as guerillas under the rules of war
Strong ___________ coordination between rifleman up to MAGTAF and beyond can ensure a victorious outcome for any combat mission assigned to a Seabee organization.
The ___________ provides “ADVICE” in the areas of military training, small arms and defensive tactics.
Military Advisor (typically a Marine)
A card to bin, bin to card inventory is conducted to check the validity of____________?
project material
How do you load M-16 Magazines in a magazine pouch?
Loaded magazines are down, empty ones are up.
An amphibious operation is an attack that is:
Launched from Sea by Naval and Landing forces on a hostile shore.
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Cyclic:
450 to 550 rpm
___________ CESE is requested when an assigned project requires more equipment than the organic allowance supplies.
Why should Equipment Operators keep their equipment clean, serviceable, and safe?
To keep the equipment ready and avoid costly repairs
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 3
Magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed.
________ is considered unsafe for drinking.
Non potable water
OPCON is the only command and support relationship appropriate and authorized when Seabee units are:
employed within the MAGTF organization.
What is the magazine capacity for the M16?
30 rounds max
What is the identification marking for organic CESE?
Red background with white numerals
________ is a supply computer program that: *Manages money, *Produces financial reports, *Processes orders, *Automatically processes NSN orders (1250-1), and *Assigns requisition numbers for open purchases (1250-2).
Micro Snap II
What is the range of the Saber hand held radio?
1-3 miles
What phone does a fighting position use to communicate with the squad leader?
TA-1 or TA-312
Supports airlift missions where command control, mission reporting, and/or support functions are limited or do not exist.
U.S. Air Force Airlift Control Element
The time available for preparation and distribution is the most important factor in the method used to issue a/an :
NBC 1 reports are sent by ________ precedence.
When a convoy makes a short or long halt, ________ is called by the Convoy Commander to establish a perimeter around the convoy.
Tape ____(number) sides of a piece of plastic to a sucking chest wound.
What is the Master Chief Rating for either CE or UT?
______ can burn out most unprotected electronic equipment.
Usually an OP/LP consists of two to four men located up to ____ meters
forward of the platoon position or as the terrain dictates (OPs during the day and LPs during the night).
Which procedure is completed before electrical portable tools are issued?
Inspected and tested by Central Tool Room
There are no passengers in a _________ convoy.
Every person has a role/function to perform.
What is the background color of the Chemical Contamination marker?
When notifying the battalion coordinator of a HAZMAT spill you give what information?
location, material spilled & quantity, known hazards, telephone number & designated point of contact
In regards to Patrols, the POR is:
Point of Return
If the enemy throws a grenade into a fighting position, kick or throw it into one of the sumps to absorb most of the blast, and if possible, _______
exit the position.
Three basic types of Convoy formations are:
Close column
Open Column
MOPP Level 2:
Mask: Carried
Overgarment: Worn
Vinyl Overboot: Worn
Gloves: Available
Helmet Protective Cover: Worn
What is station #4 in a personnel decontamination site?
Overboot and gloves removal
What does SOI stand for?
Signal Operation Instructions
Supplementary wire in front of the defensive perimeter is used to conceal the exact line of:
tactical wire.
The _____ officer is responsible for the planning, scheduling and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster preparedness operations.
Use a _______ form to report lost or stolen equipment.
Convoy Organization
Elements generally include:
a) Transport element
b) Escort and security element
c) Various support elements
d) Command and Control element
Keep victim calm. Prevent the victim from seeing their wounds. Place victim on their back on a bed, cot, or stretcher with feet 12 inches higher than their head. This is treatment for:
All hands are required an annual HAZCOM refresher of how long?
30 Min
What type of radiation is pure energy and released during the initial detonation of a Nuclear blast?
PHIBCBs are also known as:
A BFA is:
Blank Firing Attachment
Regarding CBR, what is a CDM?
Chemical Downwind Message
What are the steps for unmasking procedures when an M256A1 chemical agent detector kit is not available?
Use M8 or M9 detector paper to check the area for possible liquid contamination.
Select two or three Seabees of varying heights, builds, and weights.
Expose eyes to air for 15 seconds, Monitor for 10 minutes
Take 2-3 breaths, remask, observe for 10 minutes
Unmask for 5 minutes, and then remask. Observe for 10 minutes.
Unmask all personnel, but continue to monitor
Condition 3
Not applicable to the M203.
UCT stands for:
Underwater Construction Team
How many fire teams are in a platoon?
The range of the AN/PRC-119 with a 3’ tape antenna is:
3-5 miles
What is the CSR?
Central Storeroom personnel are responsible for Maintaining and managing the inventory and issue of administrative and consumable NMCB TOA stock items, such as safety consumables, forms, nuts, bolts, chemical compounds, paints, electronics and weapons repair parts
A report given to the COC after enemy contact is called a ______ report.
How many personal are to be trained to ADR operations ?
46-Level I
20 Level II
6 cretemobile
What is the principle system within Department of Defense for translating policy decisions into OPLANS and OPORDS?
For a DED decon layout, what is station #5?
Check and Monitor
Position the LZ landing point at a distance ____ times as far from an obstacle as the obstacle is
The live storage maintenance cycle is based on what number of working days?
Trash and Garbage are properly disposed of where?
In a landfill
The Air force equivalent to a Navy Seabee Battalion is:
Red Horse
What are confidential, secret, and top secret examples of?
When not deployed, NMCBs are :
ADCON to: ________
TACON to:________
Seabee Readiness Group (SRG)
Seabee Readiness Group (SRG)
What does JLOTS stand for?
Joint Logistics Over the Shore
Requisition invoice/ shipping document used for open purchase items or services.
The characteristics of the C-130 are:

463L Pallet positions :
Max passengers :
Max Passengers over water :
25,000 Lbs.
The EDVR is distributed monthly by__________________.
the Enlisted Personnel Management Center (EPMAC).
A ______ bridge is 13.2 ft wide.
Medium Girder
What are three types of fall protection?
The Mount Out Control Center controls, coordinates, and monitors the movement of :
all personnel, supplies, and equipment to the embarkation staging area
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
3 foot whip antenna?
1-3 miles
The _____ deploys to the MPF Squadron 4 days prior to offload to prepare the equipment for debarkation.
Characteristics of the 240B :
Rates Of Fire:
650 to 950 rpm
Cargo going by air is palletized on a:
463L pallet
You are performing a 3M spot check. How do you validate the MRC card used for the PM check?
Validate the MRC with the MIP, then validate the MIP with the LOEP.
The_______ houses repair parts for in-camp preventive maintenance.
DACG is:
Departure Airfield Control Group
What are the 9 key billets in the COC?
Watch Officer
Watch Chief
Comm Sup
S1 Board
S2 Board
S3 Board
COC Sentry
A PDF is :
Principle Direction of Fire.
is the direction of fire assigned or designated as the main direction in which a weapon will be oriented. It is selected based on the enemy, mission, terrain, and weapons capability.
When did George Washington create the Navy?
13 OCT 1775
RAC 3 =
What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
List the Six types of chemical agents.
Blood, Blister, Choking, Nerve, Incapacitating, Military Compound.
The P-437 has two parts
Volume 1:_________
Volume 2:_________
Characteristics of the 240B :
27.1 pounds
What is the basic ammunition load with the M16A3 rifle?
210 rounds. 7 magazines with 30 rounds each.
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a open emplacements within :
300 meters
What are the three echelons of defense?
Security Area
Forward Defense Area
Rear Area
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts :
Stars will always move from ____ to ______.
East to West
What is the process of changing intelligible information into unintelligible information?
_________ are used used to determine cause, not fault.
Mishap Investigations
Operator logs document:
Performance and maintenance of equipment (steam temperature, pressure gages, etc…)
What is the 3M ACF formula?
Accomplishment Confidence Factor

ACF = Performed Spot Checks
Scheduled Spot Checks
The AS-____ is a HF non mobile antenna.
FTX is a real time tactical scenario, which exercises battalion’s, _______, _______, and _____________ functions:
Command and Control
The Chief Master at Arms reports directly to:
EEFI Beadwindow Code
04 EW/EMCON Intentions
FRIENDLY EW/EMCON, INTENTIONS, PROGRESS OR RESULTS: Intention to employ ECM, results of friendly or enemy ENCL, objectives of ECK, results of friendly or enemy ECCK, results of ESK, present or intended EMCON policy, equipment effected by EMCON policy.
Providing underwater engineering, construction, and repair is the mission of the :
The major function of HAZMINCEN is:
Hazardous Minimization Center
Issues, receives, prepares for disposal, and stores excess stock of HM.
How many NAAK injections should be administered in rapid succession to an unconscious person?
The AN/PRC-150 uses what Transmitter Receiver?
This fighting position is only used in the prone position.
Hasty Fighting Position
What does the acronym TPI stand for?
Two Person Integrity
What is the EDVR?
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
What does PEL stand for?
Permissible Exposure Limit
A _________burn usually results from deep sunburns or flash burns from gasoline fires.
In the NCF, what type of system is available and used to detect biological agents?
There is currently no system available and used to detect a biological agent
What is the CSMP?
Current Seabee Maintenance Projects
What is Parking shoring?
Used to protect the aircraft floor during flight to eliminate metal on metal (if you use rolling shoring then you must use parking shoring or the tongue on a trailer)
How many mils are in 1 degree?
Air Det (P25MCA)
__ personnel (officers and
__ pieces CESE
__ pieces of rolling stock CESE
__ Tool Kits
_______ short tons of cargo
Deploys within __ hours

The role of an NMCB in a MOB (mobility) mission is to:
1. Prevent and Control Damage (including CBR)
2. Operate from a Ship (MPF instream operations)
3. Maintain Mount Out Capabilities
4. Maintain the health and well being of the crew (protection from hazards)
5. Maintain Reserve Unit Mobilization Readiness
6. Conduct operations ashore (operate in the rear of a combat zone, conduct limited defensive combat operations).
EEFI Beadwindow Code
07 Inappropriate Transmission
INAPPROPRIATE TRANSMISSION: Information requested, transmitted or about to be transmitted which should not be passed on the subject circuit because it either requires greater security protection or is not appropriate to the purpose for which the circuit is provided.
What does PEF stand for?
Production Efficiency Factor
Who is responsible for procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction material?
Supply (S4)
A Fire Team Fire Plan shows:
Key terrain features and distances.
Fire team's primary fighting positions.
Individual sectors of fire.
PDF or FPL for automatic rifleman.
Magnetic north indicator to show direction fire team is facing.
A line drawn around the fire team fighting position shows the forward edge, flanks, and rear of individual fighting positions.
A symbol indicating unit size and identification is placed within a break along the rear edge.
A significant tool available to the COC for responding to emergency situations inside camp is :
Minor Property – Costs greater than ______ but less than ______ (computers, comms, etc).
Position the LZ landing point such that the ground slope does not exceed ____ percent or ____ degrees.
8 Degrees
The M49A1 is:
A trip flare.
The three types of fire, based on trajectory, are:
In the NCF, what type of system is available and used to detect biological agents?
There is currently no system available and used to detect a biological agent
A _________burn usually results from deep sunburns or flash burns from gasoline fires.
What is the standard resistance for a generator grounding rod?
25 Ohms or less
The authority to assign tasks and to designate objectives is the definition of :
What is the average battery life of the BA-5590 used in the AN/PRC-119A, assuming HI power and a talking to listening ratio of 9:1 is used?
18 hours
For _______, the victim will appear ashen gray; skin will be cold, moist, clammy, normal or subnormal temperature; and the pupils may be dilated.
Heat Exhaustion
____ exercises OPCON over the deployed NMCB in Europe via 1NCD and 22NCR. However, NCRs may also be assigned OPCON to a _____ or ________.
Commander Naval Forces Europe
What is the Master Chief Rating for either BU, SW or EA?
Who is considered the “Father of the Seabees”?
ADM Ben Morrell
Besides vertical and horizontal construction, NMCB tactical construction also includes:
Utilities (power and water purification)
Beach Improvements
Above water construction (with UCT)
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
30 yards
On the SORTS report, is it C1 or C5 that means the NMCB is fully capable of meeting its wartime mission?
A class C fire can be extinguished with :
Storing hazardous materials on the job site requires the use of approved containers. These containers must be placed a minimum of ____ feet away from any ignition device or source.
Mk-19 rounds should not be fired in a _______, as they contain significantly more _______.
Gun powder
What does PDDE stand for?
Power Driven Decon Equipment
What are the two types of leach field pipe layouts?
Right angle
Artillery or Indirect Fire at a Convoy
Three defense options may be used:
(1) Halt in place
(2) Continue the convoy
(3) Disperse quickly to concealed positions.
What is station #5 in a personnel decontamination site?
Why is housekeeping important on a job site or shop?
a.   It eliminates unnecessary hazards on the site.
b.   Eliminating tripping hazards, helps the job run smoother.
c. Dust & fumes not cleaned up can cause explosive hazards.
Classes of Supply:
Class 8 is:
__________is a cold injury resulting from prolonged exposure to wet, cold temperatures just above freezing. It is often associated with limited motion of the extremities and water-soaked clothing.
Immersion foot
What is an MC?
Mass Communications Specialist
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Cyclic rate of fire:
Approx. 800 rpm
Classes of Supply:
Class 6 is:
Personal Demand
If a confined space is left, upon return a Gas Free Engineer must:
Re-certify the confined space to ensure re-entry is safe
What is the maximum distance in front and upwind of the FLOT should the M43A1 detector(s) be placed?
150 Meters
This M203 round is a high explosive that can penetrate 2 inches of steel.
High Explosive Dual Purpose
What is OPTAR 01:
Consumables and Services
Give the command ___________ to have the unit stop firing and stand easy.
______are prepared immediately upon arrival to a position regardless of the
anticipated length of stay and should be continuously revised throughout the
occupation of the position.
Range cards
Who maintains service records:
Admin/Personnel (S1)
Garbage Pit: 4x4 pit 4 feet deep and will service ____ people for one day cover with 1 ft of dirt
Characteristics of the 240B :
During Sustained fire, the weapon can fire this rate of fire (with six to nine round bursts) for ___minutes before the barrel must be changed.
ROUTINE MEDEVAC is required:
Casualty has minor injury, KIA casualty must be picked up within 72 hours
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for G Nerve Agents.
Before morning nautical twilight (BMNT) and end of evening nautical twilight (EENT) are defined as the first and last time of the day that an individual can:
engage a target at the maximum effective range of his/her weapon system, unaided.
What is an LN?
All _____ radios are line-of-sight use only.
What does UNAAF stand for?
Unified Action Armed Forces
Seabees were unable to get enough practice with _______ (weapon), hence, it was deleted from the NMCB TOA.
What is station #8 in a personnel decontamination site?
Reissue point
For TOR, what is
I :
Time message received
Initials of Operator
When donning a gas mask, clear it first before breathing because:
The initial air in the mask once donned contains chemical agents.
Clear the mask with air from your lungs first, then breath normally.
Characteristics of the M9 :
Maximum Effective Range -
50 meters
On Sept. 1, 1942, elements of the 6th Naval Construction Battalion went ashore at Guadalcanal; Using mostly captured Japanese equipment, they finished ____________.
Henderson Field.
Ensure that there are at least _____ meters between each 240B machine gun.
What container is used to haul POLs?
Half Height
What type of funding is PH/IT?
Port Handling/Inland Transportation
With continued heat loss, there is a numbness of the affected area due to reduced circulation. As ice crystals form, the frozen extremity appears white, yellow-white, or blotchy blue and white, and it is cold, hard, and insensitive to touch or pressure. T
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C2?
C2: Capable of Bulk wartime mission
What is a CEB?
Combat Engineer Battalion
The term _______refers to all Navy-owned personal property acquired for immediate use in the Navy shore establishment. This property has an estimated or actual unit cost of greater than $300 but less than $5,000.
minor property
What is the function of the Comm Supervisor in the COC?
Supervise the Radio Telephone Operators
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum range:
3534 meters
What are the three general locations for possible nuclear explosions?
Air Burst
Surface Burst
Underwater Burst
The ________________ is the command information center during embarkation of the Air Detachment.
Mount-Out Control Center (MOCC)
These containers are used to haul lumber and plywood.
Flat Racks
O IMMEDIATE is a precedence with significant importance within the unit or organization (FRAG order, coordinated attacks, spot report, and SALUTE report).
Action is to be taken within:
thirty minutes from time of receipt.
The ____ is a detachment of personnel who deploy as the lead element in support of an MPF operation.
______ Company is the administrative and military organization for all enlisted personnel assigned to the NMCB's executive and special staffs. The Company provides support to the line companies in construction and disaster recovery operations.
A ridge is :
A series of hills that are connected to each other near the top.

A ridgeline may extend for many miles.

It may be winding or quite straight.
When was the first naval construction unit organized, and what was its nickname?
February 1942
Estimating range by firing a zeroed in machine gun is called________.
registration fire
Protective Wire is close enough to the defense area for____________ observation and far enough away to prevent the enemy from using ________effectively from points just beyond the obstacle, normally ___ to ___ meters.
day and night
hand grenades
50 meters
100 meters
Weapons lubricating oil arctic.
Who acts as project superintendent :
Platoon Commander
A respirator SOP tells the user:
the limitations of their respirator, procedures for its care and storage and how to select proper filters.
A complete fire command consists of six elements:
What does IED stand for?
Improvised Explosive Device
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C3?
C3: Capable of Major wartime mission
Who manages the battalion safety programs?
Safety Officer
The safety _________at each command is chaired by the XO.
policy committee
What are the three rates of fire?
What is the CESE Availability Goal?
Above 90%
Nerve, Blood, Blister, and Choking are all known as ______ agents.
What does TPFDD stand for?
Time Phased Force Deployment Data – personnel, cargo and equipment, and movement data – “Deployment Schedule”
Administrative, Clerical, Classroom
Category Hazard Level :
C Low
Place the M9 pistol in condition 1 with the safety lever placed in the fire position and engage target.
What is the AN/PSN-11
Global Positioning System
Expect a biological attack to be made at _____since most biological agents are sensitive to
What should be checked after securing a piece of equipment?
All items listed on the hard card
What type of restricted area is one in which secret equipment cannot be covered from view?
Exclusion Area
What is the MAGTF?
What is the standard protective Equipment?
Camouflage cover
Mosquito Net
Priority of Work
Automatic Weapons
Fields of Fire
Fire Support
Install Tactical and Supplementary Wire
Lay and bury comm cable
Make Obstacles
Alternate Fighting Positions
Supplementary Fighting Positions
The M203 cannot be fired without installing it to a ______.
Survey form as well as a report for lost, stolen, or damaged items
DD 200
The NMCB TOA is listed as the P25 and is broken down into ______ sub-TOA(s) to assist in quick deployment.
TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
Local Battery (LB) setting is used when all power needed to operate the telephone is supplied by (2) BA-30, dry cell batteries within the telephone. This is the most commonly used setting.
A significant traffic accident on local highways with a government vehicle where no fatalities were involved, would be reported on a________
Tactical wire in a defensive position is used to:
Funnel enemy combatants into choke points
Alleged danger situations will be investigated by the Occupational Safety and Health office within how many hours?
Sight Picture
is the placement of the tip of the front sight post in relation to the target while maintaining sight alignment. The tip of the front sight post is placed at the center of the target.
What are the four safety rules for handling weapons?
Treat every weapon as if it were loaded.
Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot.
Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire.
Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire.
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Range: Minimum arming:
10 meters
What is the definition of a Seabee?
Any enlisted person in an OF-13 rating, or any officer or enlisted person serving in a NCF unit
Emergency Service Authorizations are classified as:
Less than 16 man-hours and less than $100 in material costs
What is a MOS?
Minimum Operation Strip
How do you prevent frostbite?
Wear sufficient clothing that is dry and loose, or wear several layers of warm coverings for protection against cold and wind.
In high winds, take special precautions to protect your face.
Does Charlie Company have a C4?
Which NMCB Company commander has a direct line to the XO?
Bravo Company Commander (camp maintenance)
Seabees figure most into what functional area of logistics?
What type of Chemical warfare uses: morphine, drugs, stimulants.
Who assists the Safety Officer with enforcing policies and instructions within their work centers?
What radio uses the RT 1796?
What type of radiation is an internal and external hazard which poses the greatest threat after a nuclear blast and during fallout?
Which NCF unit provides logistical support to the Regiments?
The United States policy on chemical warfare states that we will not engage in Chemical warfare as a first strike attack. Chemical warfare can used:
as a retaliation if approved by the President.
How many normal categories of master activities are there?
If an operator on a voice link hears the word BEADWINDOW followed by a number, that operator must immediately acknowledge with “_______" and immediately secure the circuit.
Roger, out
Nerve agents enter the body through?
a)      Skin
b) Inhalation
The ___________ assists the XO in maintaining good order and discipline.
Chief Master-at-arms
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Muzzle velocity:
3,050 fps or 2,080 mph
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum effective range (Point):
1830 meters
What type of restricted area is one in which security guards are posted at the door?
Controlled Area
The SORTS _________ contains 2 parts: Data, and Narrative Comments.
Naval Message
Proper Radio procedures :
_____ this is ____ , Over.
(You), this is (me), over
Characteristics of the M9 :
Magazine Capacity
15 rounds
Super-chlorination: Chlorinate drinking water to at least _____ ppm and hold for 4 hours (used to disinfect _______)
Water Bulls
A real time tactical scenario, which exercises battalion’s, embark, tactical, and command and control functions:
Field Training Exercise (FTX)
What are the roles and duties of the EA rating?
Planning, estimating, Quality Control
The P- ___ is the standard peacetime construction estimating guide.
When possible, construct the supplementary wire at the same time you construct your:
tactical wire.
Formal embarkation training prepares ____________________________
for conducting an orderly mount out.
only a small portion of the unit’s personnel
Planning provides the discipline to focus on the ____, ____, ____, _____ to accomplish assigned missions.
and resources required
Chlorine present at 100 parts per million is known as:
Super Chlorination
What is X2?
Execute "Immediate Action - Firing Stoppage"
Pull the charging handle to the rear and release.
This person’s primary job is to provide extra ammo to the Automatic Rifleman, and will take over as AR if they become a causality.
Rifleman #1
___________is a means of immobilizing fractures and dislocations.
The two commands above a Battalion are:
What does SORTS stand for?
Status of Resources and Training System
Tactical wire is normally constructed using:
the triple strand concertina fence.
How many vehicles are in the March Column?
After severe burns ________ is common as the body tries to clear out dead cells.
Kidney Failure
Never become trapped between your wire obstacle and the enemy; always keep the wire obstacles:
between you and the enemy.
List an example of Escalation of Force (oncoming vehicle):
200 Meters - Bullhorn or audible signal
150 Meters - Pop flair, Star Cluster
100 Meters - Warning shot, disable vehicle
50 Meters - Shoot to kill, aim for driver
Registration fire is not the recommended way to determine the range to your target due to prematurely:
giving your machine gun position away.
Air Force Prime BEEF specializes in what missions:
What is the order of arrival for the three echelons?
Air Det
Air Echelon
Sea Echelon
What is CCI?
Controlled Cryptographic Items
The ____________ handles any major news items, request photographs as required and keep scrapbook on battalion activities.
Public Affairs Officer
What is station #6 in a personnel decontamination site?
Mask Removal
How many people are in a Squad?
State the purpose of COMSEC.
The purpose of COMSEC is to deny unauthorized persons valuable information that could be obtained from studying our communications information.
A __________ Fire mission is used to engaging wide targets.
Which company typically mans the ECP?
Alfa Company
When deployed, NMCBs are :
ADCON to: ________
OPCON to:________
U.S. Fleet Forces Command (via NECC, 1NCD, NCR)
Theater supported COCOM (ex. In Europe: EUCOM via CNE)
Who schedules classrooms, ranges, and spaces for training?
Training (S7)
The diagram that shows the angular difference between magnetic, grid, and true North is called a:
Declination Diagram
Air Det is self-sustaining for ___ days, except for Class I, III, V.
What is the maximum distance a double story MGB can span with a MLC 16?
162 feet
What is the normal Alfa Co deadline goal?
Less than 5%
What is station #7 in a personnel decontamination site?
Mask Decon
A closed fracture is:
a broken bone that does not break the overlying skin. Tissue beneath the skin may be damaged.
Regarding a Seabee camp, the Fire Plan must match up with the:
Camp Layout
Give the command ___________ to have the unit stop firing and to remain alert.
The _______ is a lightweight, sound-powered, field telephone.
782 Gear is broken down into 4 categories. They are:
Fighting Load
Protective Equip
Special Issue
OPORDER Admin and Logistics elements:
This paragraph contains information or instructions pertaining to rations and ammunition; location of the distribution point, corpsman, and aid station; the handling of prisoners of war; and other administrative and supply matters.
The 463L pallet has an exterior dimension how big?
108”x 88”
The ________________ administers the Battalion’s Special Service Program (MWR).
Special Services Officer
What is a kit 80001?
Plumbers Kit
What is a Class D fire?
Characteristics of the 240B :
7.62-mm NATO
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Length: Gun (overall):
65 inches (approx.)
TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
Common Battery (CB) setting is used when all power needed to operate the telephone by a switchboard. System is being supplied a switchboard.
What does RSO&I stand for?
Onward Movement
The Code Of Conduct was enacted after the ________ war.
Who assigns enlisted personnel to departments, companies, and detachments?
Operations (S3)
Convoy personnel should always expect an _________ after an IED detonation.
The _______ is a listing of all material and its status.
PMSR: Project Material Status Report
For the Claymore Mine, the M7 is:
The Bandoleer for a Claymore Mine.
What is ARP?
The Automotive Repair Parts outlet is responsible for the receipt, storage, issue, and inventory control of repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment.
What is ANORS?
Anticipate Non Operational Ready Supply, part isn’t broken but will be soon.
What is the name of the civilian Contractor on higher for all Navy support services?
The AN/VRC-90 has how many RT-1523s?
A hasty position should be positioned behind whatever _______is available. It should offer as much frontal cover and concealment as possible from enemy direct fire but should still allow firing to the__________.
natural cover
front and oblique
In terms of Convoys what does TRAVLR stand for?
Time convoy is departing
Reason for convoy
Area of location convoy is departing from
Vehicles/personnel in convoy (#)
Location convoy is going to
Routes taken to destination and return
Like the Squad Leader, the Fire Team Leader only shoots :
In critical situations.
What are the symptoms of choking agent poisoning?
Hacking cough
Rapid shallow breathing
Red/pinkish sputum
The Role of an NMCB in support of Amphibious Operations is to:
provide development of the beach support area and beach throughput,
and enhance the reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (RSO&I)
Which security classification is given to information that, if disclosed to unauthorized personnel, could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?
Which area of naval doctrine has a mission to, “provide & sustain operational readiness by getting the right support to the right place at the right time?
Naval logistics
The AN/PRC-119 can be used during ADR, as it will not :
Set off explosives
Regarding the USMC, what does MEF stand for?
Marine Expeditionary Force
How do you treat symptoms of Heat Cramps?
1) Move the casualty to a shaded area or improvise shade.
2) Loosen his clothing.
3) Have him drink at least one canteen full of water slowly.
4) Seek medical aid if cramps continue.
How does a convoy conduct a deliberate low clear of an overpass?
Two vehicles cover the overpass from below, one stops before the overpass, the other passes under and covers from the other side.
What are the departments in the A4 shop?
Tech Library
Cost Control
Heavy Shop
Light Shop
5000 Shop
METT-T (Mission)
When preparing a Convoy Order, where do you find into on your mission?
The OPORD from higher headquarters states specified and implied tasks, as well as the Commanders Intent.
All temp power must have a ______, and be re-inspected every _____ weeks.
What are the 4 defensive principals of war?
Unity of Command
Air Echelon personnel are composed entirely of Seabees in ________.
Main Body
A permissible exposure limit is set by:
For the M2 Machine gun, _________must be set when the machine gun is assembled, when the barrel or any major group or assembly within the receiver is replaced, or when there is doubt that it is set properly.
headspace and timing
What are the Communication devices in a Company Command Post?
TA-312 : comms with Platoon Commanders
TA-838 : comms with COC
What radio has SATCOM capabilities?
Chlorination for water treatment is :
2-5ppm for 2 hours
The Safety supervisors committee is a forum to:
Reviews mishap trends, and makes recommendations to the Council for policy changes.
What does the map reading term “resection” mean?
Finding YOUR position on a map by sighting azimuths from two or more known positions that can be pinpointed on a map.
What is the GPS model?
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The danger radius of high explosive (HE) grenades is________.
130 meters (427 ft)
Combining the ______ module and the ______ module will support an Air Det of 250 Seabees.
The 463L pallet has a shell made of _______ and a core of _________?
balsa wood
How do you treat a blood agent casualty?
Due to the rapid effects of this chemical agent, there is currently no antidote to combat it.
_______ is a condition in which the circulation of the blood is seriously disturbed. This can cause lack of oxygen to body systems.
Who in a convoy is responsible for route recon?
Advance Officer
Initial respirator training is given to personnel at the time of fit testing; the training should last a minimum of :
1 hour
4-hole burnouts are an example of a Camp maintenance ___________.
Standing Job Order
The color code for this road condition is:
Hostile activity is imminent
NMCBs construct advance base facilities in support of :
the Navy, Marine Corps, and other armed services engaged in military operations.
How does the AN/GRA-39 local unit communicate with the remote unit?
WD-1 wire
What is a kit 80031?
Mechanics Metric Kit
The handle on an M16 used to go from condition 3 to condition 1 is called :
The charging handle
Regarding the USMC, what does FSSG stand for?
Force Service Support Group
What is the EAC report?
EAC: Estimate at Completion – tells you your project financials
Every mishap involving a Navy motor vehicle must be reported on what form?
SF 91
Plastics, oily waste, paint, metal and wood can be turned into __________ for recycling.
AN/PRC-119F, Manpack Radio Set Components:
1) RT-1523 (Series) Transmitter Receiver
2) Antenna - Radiates / receives signal for RT
Ensure accountability of a casualty’s___________________.
weapon and individual equipment.
What is LSAT?
Lubricating oil semi-fluid weapon Teflon
What is X3?
COMSEC or CMS is a mission that provides security to naval :
communications and communication material.
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Standard Ball Ammo
What is a Class B fire?
Petroleum products, oil, gas, plastic
All electrical tools must be inspected prior to use on a _________ basis.
What container has the dimensions of 8x4x20?
Half height
In the Seabee TOA, what is MCA?
Core Module (125 Air DET) – P25MCA
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
Serviceable/Used – Good/Fair/Poor
What Does CESE stand for?
Civil Engineer Support Equipment
What does DFOW stand for?
Definable feature of work
What is the APL?