4A051 Flashcards

Commander
Terms Definitions
Standard systems are those that are standardized across more than one
command
Which system supports the admissions and dispositions functions in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?
CHCS
Which devices are considered auxiliary storage devices?
Floppy disk, hard disk, USB and magnetic tape
Hard disk devices
are standard in most microcomputers
A program or set of programs that manages and directs a computer system is called
an ope
Random access memory (RAM) is
the temporary electrical storage space that holds program instructions
TRICARE Online allows authorized users to do all of the following except
check medications
Which system is designed to store, share, and exchange knowledge among all Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) members?
Knowledge Exchange (Kx)
Which files, if tampered with, can cause an unstable or unrecoverable operating system?
Program
What process realigns the separated files and moves them into a more defined structure increasing data access rate and performance of the system?
Defragment
What device is used to junction between local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN)?
Router
Who is accountable for equipment assigned to their organization?
Commander
A physical inventory of all equipment is conducted
annually
Where do you place the Automated Data Processing Equipment (ADPE) identification label?
Front or top of the equipment
What computer security (COMPUSEC) objective is reached when there is no unexpected downtime due to a virus or sabotage?
Availability
What computer security (COMPUSEC) objective is attained when access to sensitive information is allowed only to those with the proper clearance, authorization, and need-to-know?
Confidentiality
Who is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in computer security (COMPUSEC) awareness and local operating instructions?
Information systems security officer (ISSO)
When is computer security (COMPUSEC) training provided to the user?
Prior to being granted system access and annually thereafter
Who represents the Information Systems security officer (ISSO) at locations the ISSO cannot effectively monitor users or system activities?
Client support administrator
Information needing protection from public interest is marked
For Official Use Only
The Privacy Act of 1974
safeguards personal information from unauthorized use
An individual is allowed access to classified information after a determination is made that
the individual is trustworthy and access is necessary for performance of duty
When writing, which way would be the simplest way for making a personal contact?
Familiar, everyday words
The body of your correspondence explains and clarifies your
purpose
What is the MOST common format used in Air Force correspondence?
Official Memorandum
The BEST way to manage correspondence involves sorting, routing, and
controlling suspenses
An emergency involving military forces caused by natural disaster, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations is called
contingency
What is the relocation of forces to a desired area of operation called?
Deployment
What is the quality or capability of military forces to move from place-to-place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission called
Mobility
Who is the chairperson of the Medical Readiness staff function (MRSF)?
MTF commander
According to the Department of Defense (DOD) a unit type code (UTC) is developed and assigned by the
Joint Chief of Staff (JCS)
Substitution shall NOT exceed what percent of any Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requirement in a single unit type code (UTC) or set of UTCs that collectively make up an operational platform?
40 percent
Who keeps the Medical Group (MDG) commander and squadron commanders informed of the deployment status of unit personnel and equipment subject to deployments?
UDM
When following the procedures to process individuals for deployment, who will review the deployment records for the members of each unit type codes (UTC) being tasked?
Medical Readiness staff
Which scenario is NOT included in the full spectrum threat response (FSTR) as a required emergency response and mitigation event?
Minor government vehicle accident
Into which triage category and color would you place a patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients?
Expectant-Blue
Update disaster team checklists as necessary and review them at least
once a year
What telephone communication system is designated to save lives through the rapid relay of emergency information to specific base agencies?
Primary crash alarm circuit
Horizontal and vertical lines on a grid map are called grid
lines
On a grid map, the grid square is identified by its grid
coordinates
The two types of official Air Force E-mail are
organizational and individual
Which type of E-mail must contain a complete signature element clearly indicating who sent the communication?
Organizational
The success of the global message communication depends on a secure
writer-to-reader message system
What bar provides access to various Microsoft Outlook Defense Message System (DMS) functions while the user is composing of drafting a message?
Menu bar
Where does the user type summarizing the content of the message?
Subject line
The portion of the situation report (SITREP) that specifically addresses significant deficiencies that are above the commander's capability to overcome in a timely manner is
Logistics
What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff (JCS), Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
SORTS
The prefix that means "above or excessive" is
hyper-
The suffix "-plasty" means
surgical reshaping
The suffix "-penia" means
lack or reduction in number of
Encephal (o) is the root word meaning
brain
What is the abbreviation for "both ears"
AU
The anatomical term "peripheral" refers to something
outward from the center of the body
The anatomical term meaning "away from the midline" of the body is
lateral
What provide the body energy?
food and oxygen
Which macromolecules carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?
Nucleic acids
Which type of tissue helps support and join together various parts of the body?
Connective
The epidermis
forms the outermost layer of the skin
The place where bones meet is a
joint
What works together with the muscles enabling the body to move?
skeleton
What type of muscle is known as "involuntary"?
Smooth
What empties into the small intestine through a duct?
pancreatic enzymes
Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the
diaphragm
Arteries carry blood
away from the heart
The largest artery in the body is the
aorta
All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the
right lymphatic duct
What nourishes the cells of the body tissues?
Interstitial fluid
Urine leaves the body through the
urethra
What carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
Ureters
What enables a developing baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream?
Placenta
Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
Endocrine
Which gland is the "master gland"?
Pituitary
Sensory neurons carry information
to the central nervous system
Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
Drug and alcohol
Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered
sensitive
If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse affect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,
only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.
Which kind of information CANNOT be released without a patient's informed consent?
general extent of the injury or disease
What establishes your identity to Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and authenticates your use of the system?
access and verify codes
Which is NOT an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
OLUM
To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
Accomplish a "patient lookup"
The validity of registration data entered into the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) is critical because
it is used by every CHCS user within the MTF
A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?
Verify the patient's eligibility for care
What information can be obtained using the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Patient Record Inquiry option?
History of the record's movement
What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the Check-In Record option?
Date and time of record being returned
Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is composed of timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patient slots?
Schedule
In Composite Health Care System CHCS) what does the Schedule Hold Duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) accomplish?
Defines how much time will elapse before the system automatically releases frozen slots
If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse's family member prefix (FMP) will be
31
Which number is blocked out on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987-65-4321?
1
What procedure would be used to identify the outpatient record of an individual assigned to the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?
Block the last character of the social security number along the right hand side of the record with red tape or marker
What procedure would be used to identify the outpatient record of an individual assigned to a mobility position?
Block the last character of the social security number along the right hand side of the record with a green marker or tape
When are new outpatient record jackets prepared for patients with existing outpatient records?
When the folder no longer protects the contents
Where would miscellaneous forms (forms that are not specifically designated to be filed elsewhere) be placed within an AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
Section 3
Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?
On SF 600, Health Record-Chronological Record of Medical Care
Outpatient records are the property of the
Department of Defense
If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?
Outpatient records personnel
How often are active duty records inventoried?
At least once a year
What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing health records retirement?
MRTR2 guide
What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
Primary Care Optimization Team
When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
Primary Care Manager
If for some reason the sponsor's medical record is NOT present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a
Letter of Non-Availability
When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
The dependent
When an active duty member is being discharged but does NOT have any type of orders, what document must they provide before you can release their records to the discharge review board?
Memorandum from their squadron
For which of the following would you NOT create an inpatient record?
Stillbirths
Who prepares AF forms 788 series folders for filing inpatient documentation?
Inpatient records section technician
A concise clinical summary is dictated any typed on Standard Form (SF) 502, Medical Record-Narrative Summary, for
inpatients received by transfer for further treatment
Final progress notes on Standard Form (SF) 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients EXCEPT
patients treated at tactical MTFs
When documenting care in inpatient records, symbols and abbreviations
cannot be used when recording the final diagnosis on the AF Form 560
Inpatient records on a family member of a retired Air Force Chief are the property of the
Department of Defense
An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
eligible for retirement on 31 Dec 2001
Who performs a risk assessment when the patient verification process results in questionable eligibility?
Competent medical authority
Before a patient without proper identification or verification of Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) eligibility is provided care in a military treatment facility (MTF) they must first sign a statement agreeing to provide proof of eli
30 days
Who will establish local procedures for management of the quarters program?
MTF
After a military treatment facility (MTF) establishes local procedure for management of the Quarters Program, what must be done next?
Produce a local quarters authorization form
During completion of a Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee letter, the request must contain the effective date, period covered and
determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation
When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status?
Continued care is still necessary
When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the
MTF Commander
Generally, applications for designee status are submitted through the
command surgeon general's office to HQ USAF/SGMA
In most military treatment facilities (MTF) the majority of requests for Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status come from
former Air Force females discharged under OTHER THAN HONORABLE conditions who were pregnant at the time of discharge
Under the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) Designee Program, pregnant former active duty females are limited to prenatal and delivery, as well as follow-up care not to exceed
6 weeks
Which is NOT part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?
Locates providers and establishes the consults for care
What process provides coordination to determine if family members needs can be met at a projected location prior to the sponsor receiving permanent change of station (PCS) orders?
Family member relocation clearance
For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
military treatment facility (MTF) in closest proximity to the family
Which is NOT a requirement for selection to the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?
Individuals MUST be a citizen of the United States by birth
A Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) position is considered CRITICAL when duties
would permit the launch of nuclear weapons
Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
category one
When an individual is suspended from Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties, the military treatment facility (MTF) will
take no action
Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?
Air Force
Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
Department of Veterans' Affairs
The three types of line of duty (LOD) determinations are informal, formal, and
administrative
The purpose of what type of line of duty (LOD) and misconduct investigation is to protect the interests of the member being investigated and to ensure government benefits are awarded justly and according to law?
Formal
The interim line of duty (LOD) for Reserve members is valid for no more than
90 days
If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the
LOD-MFP
The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of the line of duty (LOD) findings is the
approval authority
Who has the authority to retire or separate members who can no longer perform the duties of their grade because of medical impairment?
Secretary of the United States Air Force
Who designates the military treatment facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?
HQ AFPC/DPAMM
When should a first term airman, diagnosed with a seizure disorder, be referred to a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
Within 90 days of the onset of the illness
What special processing should be accomplished when processing an imminent death case for a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
None; imminent death processing was rescinded
Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
Three
How often must a member be examined after being placed on the temporary duty retired list (TDRL) by the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB)?
At least once every 18 months
Which is an appropriate Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) recommendation?
Return to duty
Which Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) finding is the appointing authority NOT allowed to reverse?
Competency or sanity
Who will be reimbursed from military treatment facility (MTF) operating funds on a monthly basis?
Managed care support contractor (MCSC)
Before you can ensure military treatment facility (MTF) capabilities are fully and accurately defined, what should you review?
Service availability listings (SAL)
Who has the ultimate responsibility to ensure the AF Form 560 is accurate?
Health care provider
For which patient would an AF commander at the nearest medical treatment facility accept administrative responsibility?
AD SSgt admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status
The number used to identify an inpatient's case from beginning to end is called the
register number
When is the only occasion a register number may be omitted?
Never
Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?
admissions technician
Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (current organization) of AF Form 560?
Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form 560?
AD E6 OSI Agent
Which CHCS subsystem supports admissions functions?
PAD patient administration
The Admissions and Dispositions Report is a daily report of?
admissions,dispositions,change of status, newborns, and interward transfers
Which is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
patient suspense file
What action must be accomplished when active duty personnel are admitted to a nonmilitary treatment facility?
Complete section 1 of the AF Form 560
Infants are admitted as a direct admission(not a liveborn) when they are
transferred from a civilian facility
An inventory of patient valuables is conducted?
monthly
AD members hospitalized in nonmilitary(civilian) hospitals and then moved to a military treatment facility, are considered?
a change of status, in
When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on?
AF Form 3066, Doctors Orders
What form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
What form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
AF Form 570, Notification of Patients Medical Status
When must the military treatment facility release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
within 24 hours after death
How must corrections to medical documentation be accomplished?
line through the incorrect data with one straight line
Corrections to entries made in health records should be done by the
practitioner who originally entered the incorrect data
A provider's verbal or telephone orders may be taken by
a registered nurse only
Once a pass has been approved for an inpatient, give the original AF Form 569, Absence Record, Section 1 to the patient and file the copy in the?
inpatient record
Of the following, who may authorize a patient dispositions?
physician or dentist
In concert with acquiring long-range aeromedical evacuation(AE)aircraft, full use of helicopters and rapid airlift, what else was instrumental with the reduction of mortality rates?
trained AE crews
What usually accommodates from 50-250 patients and receives, shelters,processes and provides care to patients who enter in or leave the AE system?
Aeromedical Staging Facility
What is the largest turbo prop driven cargo aircraft in the AF inventory?
C-130 Hercules
What AF assest is the primary aircraft used for AE in tactical situations within the combat zone?
C-130
Who is responsible for coordinating patient movement once the mission arrives at the continental US reception aerial port?
Global Patient Movement Requirement Center
Patients requiring rest during a long AE flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
liter
What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the AE system?
6A
What does the International Civil Aviation Organization(ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patients Baggage Tag represent?
The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight(RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination
To ensure continuous care while patients are in transit, what supply(amount)of medication (in days)must be provided?
3-day for intra theater flight, 5-day for inter theater flight
vol 3 The manage access to care (ATC) tools are available in the Composite Health Care System and are also located on the web at the?
TRICARE Operations Center
What is composed of timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types,durations,and a maximum number of patients per slot?
schedule
What is a pattern of time slots specific to a provider, but not linked to any particular date?
template
What schedule in the CHCS makes it simple for you to add, delete,cancel,freeze, and release schedule time slots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
Maintain/Cancel
Which CHCS option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or another agency at the medical treatment facility?
Cancellation by facility
What includes all units, organizations, and members of the ANG and AFR?
Air Reserve Component
The favorable dependency determination must specifically state the individual is eligible for medical care and this eligiblity determination is made by the
military personnel flight
The former Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) option that pays a share of the cost of covered healthcare services you obtain from an authorized, non-network, civilian healthcare provider is?
TRICARE Standard
Pregnant females discharged under other than honorable conditions who must be authorized by a general court-martial authority to apply to the medical group commander for obstetrical care, fall within what program?
Secretary of the AF Designee
Children retain their eligibility unless they marry before the age of?
21
AD service members' family members not enrolled in TRICARE Prime belong in priority group?
One
When creating a personal master schedule, the appointment personnel must coordinate with the
provider
To be cognizant of the information you are inputting into the system, you must remember what?
accuracy and effectiveness ensure the report is good
When you print reports by using the appropriate option, and enter the necessary report, and print parameters what will happen next?
On-demand reports will print
The function that ensures the preventive individual medical readiness program is evaluated during operational readiness inspections(ORI), major command (MAJCOM)-level staff assistance visits, and health service inspections and JACHO inspections?
MAJCOM SG
Who is required to conduct medical record reviews in order to identify significant items of medical history and any information that may be potentially disqualifying for deployment or worldwide duty?
primary care element and primary care management teams
MTF use what two data systems to identify and describe their enrolled population by age, gender, and beneficiary category, and to assess their healthcare needs?
DOD and AFMS
What non-electronic,folder-style form documenting immunizations is used by all active duty,reserve, and ANG personnel?
DD Form 2766, Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet
What process for inpatients begins before or on admission and continues after appropriate discharge to include follow-up and evaluation of services provided?
MTF Discharge and Disposition Planning Process (DCP)
What military treatment facility process is a broad-spectrum scope and approach to identifying beneficiaries experiencing conditions which may indicate the need for case management services?
MTF Case Management Process
At least how often must medical treatment facilities assess centrally and locally produced performance measures for effectiveness and efficiency?
Quarterly
The federal government's healthcare financing for the elderly is called?
Medicare
When legislation was passed enabling managed care plans to increase in numbers and expand enrollments through healthcare programs financed by grants, contracts, and loans, which of the following was the name?
Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973
If a healthcare system is responsible for both the financing and delivery of a broad range of comprehensive health services to a voluntarily enrolled population,what plan would apply?
HMO
If an individual is enrolled in a healthcare plan, who is responsible for reimbursing covered individuals for the cost of their healthcare?
Health care insurance companies
If a patient has routine medical needs, who would be the patient's principal provider?
Primary Care Manager
What was formerly known as the Public Health Services Hospitals,and now operates much like TRICARE Prime?
Uniformed Services Family Health Plan
What is the main challenge for most eligible beneficiaries?
deciding what TRICARE option is best for their particular situation
The TRICARE program is geographically structured by
regions
How many regions are there within TRICARE?
3
Within each local delivery area, how is TRICARE health care managed?
Locally
The benefits of TRICARE cannot be fully realized without timely information regarding access, utilization and ?
costs
For at least how many months is the enrollment period for TRICARE Prime?
12
Currently TRICARE Standard pays what percentage of the approved or allowable cost for outpatient care, for active duty families, after the annual deductible is paid?
80
TRICARE Plus enrollment is noted on beneficiary records in
DEERS
TRICARE Standard has
the broadest choice of providers
What document reflects a reasoned and balanced approach to managing the military health benefit with military medical readiness as a first priority?
TRICARE governance plan
The TRICARE Regional Office (TRO) operates under the authority, direction, and control of the
regional director
One of the most important functions of the managed care support contractor is the development of ocivilian provider networks in support of TRICARE?
Prime and Extra benefits
What does the TRICARE Regional Office use as the baseline to build additional network needs, develop referrals for delivery of care?
assists with resolving contractual issues
Who is each TRICARE Regional Office and medical treatment facility required to have available to assist beneficiaries in determining the validity of collection agent claims received for debts incurred as a result of medical/dental care under the TRICARE P
DCAO
A nonenrolled beneficiary is required to obtain authorization for care from the Health Care Finder when
a NAS is required
Nonavailability statements (NAS) are processed through the
DEERS
There is no copayment or deductible for beneficiaries referred for civilian medical care
while in an inpatient status in the MTF
Who authorizes non-medical treatment facility Referred Supplemental Care for the uniformed services?
SPOC (service point of contact)
The TRICARE Management Activity(TMA) is a field activity of the
Undersecretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness
Who, along with the TRICARE Regional Offices(TRO), are responsible for conducting provider training on TRICARE and managed care in accordance with contract provisions?
MCS contractors
Who is responsible for oversight of the managed care support(MCS) contractor's marketing programs?
Regional TROs
TRICARE presentations are most effective when done jointly by a knowledgeable uniformed representative and a
MCSC marketing representative office
What should be the first priority in developing marketing material for a region?
enrollment packages
The Customer Satisfaction Survey primarily attempts to collect information regarding
a specific appointment
When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies?
MTF commander
Whose policy requires you to consider resource sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional healthcare plan?
TRICARE
Who determines whether or not resource sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional health care plan?
TROs
Who establishes the resource sharing agreements with the managed care support contractor?
MTF Commander
Who performs periodic reviews of the medical treatment facility/Veterans Administration facility resource sharing agreements to ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers?
TRO
As a minimum, the medical portion of in-and -out-processing should include information on how access health care at the medical treatment facility and in the community, and how to
resolve problems accessing health care
AD personnel who have family members may or may not elect to enroll their family in
TRICARE Prime
Which office conducts the required medical out-processing briefing?
TRICARE office
vol 4 What term is defined as a funding document that represents cash and authorizes commands
an allocation
The amount of operations and maintenance (O & M) dollars which a command base can reasonably expect to receive to carry out its mission for the forthcoming operating year is called
bogey
Which term represents an intent to purchase that will eventually become a legal obligation?
commitment
Which statement best defines the operating budget account number (OBAN)
code identifying fund accounts to which military funds are authorized
Which entity or unit of activity is subordinate to a responsibility center?
cost center
What funding structure,mandated by the TRICARE Management Activity (TMA), must military treatment facility commanders, resource management personnel and flight commanders review and manage?
Budget activity groups
Upon what structure is the AF Resource Management System(RMS) based?
DDPPBES department of defense planning, programming, budgeting, and execution system
Who is responsible for training cost center managers (CCM) within a military treatment facility?
Resource advisor
Who is responsible for reviewing backorder lists,evaluating stock supply levels and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
cost center manager
What time frame constitutes the first quarter of a fiscal year?
1 October through 31 December
Which two budgetary phases commence during the first fiscal quarter?
initial distribution and execution
During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the MTF?
MAJCOM
Locating and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor's (RA) record and the official accounting records occurs during the tri-annual review of the
Open Document Listing
Which document's primary purpose is to explain to higher levels how much money will be to carry out the MTF objectives and how the funds will be used?
Financial Plan
Which document is often referred to as the financial blueprint for an organization for a specific period of time and reflects an organization's funded and unfounded requirements?
Financial Plan
When must the second phase of the tri-annual review of the ODL?
3rd quarter
Which document provides the basis for all decisions regarding the management of dollar resources?
Spend Plan
Who develops the Spend Plan?
Resource Advisor
How many times during the fiscal year must the triannual review of the ODL be completed?
3
In what time frame is the fiscal year-end close out completed?
July through September
Who is responsible for storing and safeguarding patient valuables such as cash, jewelry, and similar articles?
Medical Service Accounts office
Under the patients' valuables guidelines, which item must not be accepted for storing and safekeeping?
knives with blades above the length permitted by law
Who is responsible for maintaining the necessary patient valuable records and protecting the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?
custodian for patient valuables
Who is responsible for reporting the loss of patient valuables to the MDG/CC?
Any individual who discovers the loss
Which is an acceptable form of payment for health care rendered at a military treatment facility?
Foreign currency not credit cards
Which form supports the entries made on AF FORM 1086, Cash and Sales Journal?
SF 1080, Voucher for Transfers Between Appropriations and/or Funds
Where can you find information regarding entitlements, appropriation rates, and mode and site of collection for all patient categories?
Patient Billing Category Standardization Table
What is the primary document used for billing patients?
AF Form 1127, Hospital Invoice/Receipt/Account Receivable Record
The active accounts receivable file should be broken down into inpatients discharged, outpatients from whom full payment has not been received and accounts?
The SF 1080, Voucher for Transfer between Appropriation and /or Funds, is used when billing?
governmental agencies other than the military
The purpose of the SF 1081, Voucher and Schedule of Withdrawals and Credits, is to bill
Reserve and National Guard forces
Which Composite Health Care System(CHCS) report is printed for each account that is 30 days delinquent?
Batch DD 139
Which CHCS report provides a synopsis of the patient accounts that were transfered?
The I and R
When must MSA funds be transferred to the Defense Accounting Office (DAO)?
when the amount on hand at the end of a business day exceeds the amount approved for the container
Which form is used to transfer all money received by the MSA office to the DAO
DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher
Which term is defined as the allowance given to military personnel of money in place of subsistence?
Patient basic daily food allowance
A prescribed quantity of food, as defined by components and monetary value, required to provide a nutritionally adequate diet for one person for one day explains the
basic daily food allowance
Which form is used to record all dining patrons who pay for their meals at a Subsisitence Credit Allowance Management System(SCAMS) dining facility?
AF FORM 1087, Cash Meal Log
How often must a physical inventory of the MSA book balance and the count of each subsistence line item be performed?
monthly
To whom is the inventory adjustment report submitted for approval?
squadron commander
Which form does the MSA office use to maintain perpetual inventory records of subsistence purchased, stored and consumed by the Nutritional Medicine Flight (NMF) activities?
AF Form 542, Subsistence Stock Record
Which report provides specific daily information on categories of patrons served for each meal, total meals, weighted meal days, cash, other income collected, and earned income?
Daily Facility Summary Report
Which form provides operating data for NMF managers to control expenditures for subsistence in their activities?
AF Form 546, Food Cost Record
Who determines if an injury is actually a Medial Affirmative Claims case?
Base Legal Office
What is the objective of the Medical Affirmative Claims Program?
Assist the SJA in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party
What form should be initiated by the Medical Affirmative Claims manager for patients identified as a Medical Affirmative Claims case by the SJA?
AF 438, Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification
Which agency would most likely use information World-Wide Workload Report(WWR) to develop staffing justification, trending patient care demand, and marketing?
MTF
Which agency would most likely use information from the WWR to evaluate performance against budget execution, to reallocate resources when necessary and to project future programs as well as planning needs?
MAJCOM
Which agency would most likely use information from the WWR to coordinate care under the MCS contracts of TRICARE and for the management of bid price adjustments with the TRICARE MCS Contracts?
TRO
Who is responsible for the patient administration data quality, and the collection,processing, reduction and transmittal of the WWR?
WWR monitor
Who "owns" the WWR process within the MTF?
MDG/CC
Who is responsible for establishing an environment that recognizes the improtance of data quality and monitoring the data quality metrics within the MTF?
MDG/CC
Which computer system permits the generation of the WWR
CHCS
When submitting the WWR electronically, in what form is the data?
ASCII
When collected electronically,what completes the audit trail for the WWR?
the CHCS, the Ambulatory Data System, and the record of treatment
When collected manually, what completes the audit trail for the WWR
the patient appointment roster, the sign-in log, daily tally reports, monthly clinic reports and the record of treatment
For what purpose is the AF Form 235a, Report of Patients (Sec VIII-IX), used?
as a continuation of the AF Form 235, Report of Patients (SecI-VII)
Who signs the WWR when it is completed manually?
Person preparing the report
The MEPRS information is routinely channeled to which person or agency?
DOD, Secretary of Health Affairs
The MEPRS captures MTF data relating to personnel,workload, and
expense
Which is not a benefit from properly reporting MEPRS data
determine number of AE missions to support MTF activities
Which account does the first letter of every functional cost code (FCC)represent
functional account
Which account does the first two letters of every functional cost code represent
summary account
Which is established to collect operating expenses when two or more centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?
cost pool
On the average, what percentage of a MTF budget is allocated for personnel in the form of salaries?
70-75%
Personnel data documented on the AF Form 3078, Time and Salary Distribution Worksheet, must be turned in to the MTF MEPRS program manager by close of business on the
3rd duty day of the beginning of each month
What system is responsible for incorporating all of a MTF captured expense, workload and personnel data into one single report?
EASIVi
What identifies all of the functional cost codes used by your facility
ASD table
How does the MTF MEPRS program manager receive the MTFs financial data?
through the Commander's Resource Integration System (CRIS)
A full time equivalent(FTE) is equal to how many hours?
168
What report will give you a detailed picture of the expenses processed through EASIVi
EASIVi Allocation Summary Report
The responsibility an individual has when they have acquired possession of government property is known as
custodial responsibility
The two major classifications of medical material are
supplies and equipment
Which are additional classifications of medical equipment
expense or investment
The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $2500 and 250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as
medical expense equipment
A medical supply item with a unit cost of less than $2500 that requires upkeep is classified as
maintenance significant supply item
A medical supply item with a unit cost of less than $2500 that does not require any form of maintenance is classified as
medical supply item
Which is established when there is no stock on hand or there is not enough stock to fill the total order?
back order
The property custodian ensures that all property in his or her account is properly charged to the account and is physically on hand by
performing spot checks and periodic inventory
Who is responsible for completing an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, to transfer equipment from on account to another?
the losing property custodian
Which document is used as an interm listing to update the custody receipt-locator list (CRLL)
custodial action list
When changes or a cancellation of a due-in is required, when must the property custodian return the annotated back order report to the Medical Logistics Flight?
by the seventh calendar day of the month
Which term is defined as to the number of people contributing to or needed for a work force?
manpower
Which term represents a description of the workload, and includes a grade and skill level, approved variances, and a process analysis summary?
manpower standard
What term in the manpower standards process means that requirements start at zero and are increased based on workload?
zero-based
Determining manpower requirements involves the development and use of manpower?
standards
How often must a review and application of each approved AF manpower standard be done?
annually
Which quarterly produced document shows manpower spaces by functional account with the authorizations displayed over fiscal quarters?
unit manpower document
Within the unit manpower document (umd), what identifies a manpower requirement?
position number
What part of the UMD reflects a six-digit code identifying a particular function, with the first four digits controlled by HQ USAF and the last two by the major command (MAJCOM)
functional account code
Which is the senior review body within the AFMS corporate structure and makes recommendations to the SG?
AFMS council
Which term refers to the way the AFMS views the strategic viewpoint and incorporates the use of readiness case analysis (RCA), currency case analysis CCA, and business case analysis (BCA)in decison making?
long view
Which tool is a web-based application tool that allows the MTF user to collect and enter all the necessary data required to run each manpower standard or model?
data collection tool
Which tool is an Air Staff tool used to run existing manpower standards and models?
impact application tool
Which tool is used to support the resource funding decision process at the work center level of detail?
manpower requirement tool
vol 5
What is the AF primary human resource system?
MilPDS
What system allows commanders and managers near real-time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports?
PCIII
What was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for DOD personnel and save taxpayer money?
DTS Defense Travel System
AF members cannot carry leave in excess of how many days into the next fiscal year if they are not eligible for special leave accrual?
60 days
is the maximum number of unused leave days the AF can pay members for?
30 days
What is emergency leave?
chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued,advance,or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence
How many continental US(CONUS) or outside of CONUS (OCONUS) permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
20 days CONUS/ 30 days OCONUS
Which of the following factors is not considered when a commander decides if a member is entitled to BAS?
time in grade
How often is a unit required to conduct reviews to verify members entitled to BAS are receiving it?
annually
How many copies of the substance-in-kind(SIK)roster is provided monthly to each unit?
two
Within how many days must a substance-in-kind letter on newly assigned personnel be prepared and submitted to food service?
3
What is used by commanders to perform various quality force actions?
Unfavorable information file (UIF)
Who determines which optional documents are filed in a memeber's unfavorable information file?
commander
Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, UIF Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final disposition date?
12 months from today
Which document is an optional item that may be filed in an UIF?
Article 15 punishment
How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an UIF?
3
What is marked on the front and the back of an UIF folder?
For Official Use Only
Who should not be allowed to access an UIF?
members of enlisted promotion selection boards
Upon assumption of command, when must a commander review all UIF?
within 90 days
When does the UIF monitor remove documentation pertaining to Article 15 action?
upon receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside
What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an UIF is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY?
send the completed package to the member's unit commander
Who can place a member on the control roster?
unit commander
What is the maximum time an individual's name can remain on the control roster?
6 months
How often is duty status reporting accomplished?
whenever changes occur
Who is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions?
member's unit
You change member's duty status to "absent without leave-AWOL" when they have an unauthorized absence of more than
24 hours, but less than 30 days
What is one of the most important aspect of in-processing?
individual base agencies will be unable to track member
What is not an action a personnel action changes (PAC) worksheet can communicate to the commander's support staff(CSS)?
promotion
What is a tool used for notifying units that they have inbound personnel?
allocation notice
Through what system are allocation notices generated?
PCIII (personnel concepts)
Which of the following service characterizations is not authorized for administrative separation?
dishonorable
Which of the following is not a reason members may be retained beyond their expiration time of separation(ETS)?
for completion of involuntary discharge processing
Which of the following is not a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
the family is separated
When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
alcohol abuse
Within how many days should personnel be notified of reassignment?
7 calendar days
Who approves a member's projected departure date on the assignment notification printout?
commander
When considering an airman for reenlistment, commanders should consider all of the following except?
airman's career goals
MSgt Bryce has over 20 years active service. When will he be considered under the selective reenlistment program (SRP)?
when he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS)
The Selective Reenlistment Program(SRP)roster, part 1, identifies for the commander's support staff airmen who
are due SRP consideration or reconsideration
To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment?
wing commander
What part of the SRP roster identifies airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation?
Part III, Career Job Reservation
First term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a career job reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day after he or she completes how many months on his or her current enlistment?
59 months
Which of the following is not a rank order factor when personnel are given a waiting-list position number?
last 5 enlisted performance reports
Who can not be a rater?
a senior airman who has not completed ALS
When should the commander's support staff send the rater a computer-generated performance feedback notice?
30 days after supervision began
What form is used for an enlisted performance report on a SrA?
AF Form 910
Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
AF Personnel Center or Air Reserve Personnel Center
In which situation would an LOE not be mandatory?
AIC with 5 months total active military service
Which of the following is awarded only to an organization that performed meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOEA)
Who is responsible for monitoring all decoration program requirements?
Commander's support staff
Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
any other person having first hand knowledge of the achievement
When are individuals considered for below-the-zone(BTZ) promotion to Senior Airman
the month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion
What is the promotion eligibilty status (PES) code for Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the military personnel data system (MilPD
A
In the weighted airman promotion system, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?
specialty knowledge test and promotional fitness examination
In the weighted airman promotion system, time-in-grade is computed at the rate of
one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years
What is the enlisted performance report conversion factor?
27
How many months time-in-grade(TIG) and years total active federal military service (TAFMS) does a 7-level technical sergeant require to be promoted to master sergeant
24 months TIG and 8 years TAFMS
Under the stripes for exceptional performers program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
SrA
In which situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade?
awaiting a decision on an application as a conscientious objector
When career enhancements or the commander's support staff schedules personnel for weighted airmen promotion system (WAPS) testing, they do so by annotating the
unit eligible for promotion testing roster
Which phase of promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)
initial
Which brief is a one-page,computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) military personnel flight(MPF)that is used by all officer selection boards?
Officer selection brief (OSB)
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