4N051B Volume 2 Patient Care Skils II Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Military and Civilian phycisions, dentitist, CNM
Which healthcare providers found in AF Medical facilities are authorized to both treat and admit pts
the physician or physician's designated representative
Who is responsible for notifying the inpatient unit that a routine pt is being admitted
what does the  the provider do to help a patient relax and sleep prior to the nightb efore the surgery?
what can you, the medical technician, do to comfort a pt concerned about their surgery?
be friendly, caring, professional, and be a good listener for the pt
to rule out any lung disease
why is a chest xray taken prior to surgery?
CBC and urinalysis
what labs are frequently completed the day before surgery?
it gives the surgeon information about the blood and function of the kidneys
what is the purpose of a pre-op urinalysis
shower or bathe using the antiseptic soap such as proxidone-iodine (betadine) to reduce # of microorganisms in the skin
what pre-operative action do most pts perform the evening before the surgery
cleaning/disinfecting and hair removal
What is involved in preparign the skin for surgery
look for adverse reactions or complicatuibs from surgery
what is the goal of care provided during the immediate post operative period?
pale cold cool clammy skin
what are signs of shock
a&o x3
ask pt his/her name, date, location
how do you determine the pt's LOC
pupils equal, round, reactive to light, accomodation
what does PERRLA stand for
bed side rails must be up and remain up
what action must be taken once a premed is given
the chance fior bacterial growth near the operative site increases danger
what may  happen if the skin is scratched ot nicked near the surgical site prior to surgery
an anticoagulant
what is whole blood mixed with after it is collected from a donor?
the iv administration of whole blood or blood products
what is a transfusion
in 225cc units as pooled, fresh frozen, or single donor plasma
how is plasma supplied
compatibility testing
what is the first step to the actual transfusion process
1st 15 to 30 mins
once a tranfusions is initiated, how long should it run slowly
a form of extreme irrational behavior exhibitred by a pt emerging from a general anesthesia characterized by screaming, shouting, and violent thrashing as if in rage
what is emergence delirium
hypoxemia, drugs, pts who are afraid of cancer, disfigurement ir are clostrophobic
what factors or causes that can contribute to emergence delibrium
check airway and administer O2, change pt position, children calmed when held by their parents
list at least 4 actions nursing personnel can take when a pt exhibits signs of emergence
rough handling of the pt during transportation and frequent changing in position
what are 2 main causes of nausea and vomiting in the surgical pt
place a cool, wet  washcloth or hand towel on the pts forehead and offer reassurance
what is one of the easiest most effective treatments for a pt experiencing nausea?
1. turn the pt head and offer reassurance
2. lower head of bed
3. suction
4. give O2
5. Ausculate to pt breathe sounds
list 5 things u do when pt vomits during surgery
rap9id cooling of the body both internally and externally
what is the main treatment for excessive high body temps?
blood pressure falls, <3 rate increases, seizures, fluffy lookin xtray
briefly describe the effects of severe dehydration can have on the body?
massive infusion of iv fluids, and clost monitoring of electrolytes
what is the basic treatment for esevere dehydration
posutrem tongue and mucous secretions
what are the 3 main causes of airway pbstruction after surgery
until the pt reacts and regains sufficient refelxes responses to spit or pull the airway out
how long is an oral airways left in the pts mouth following surgery?
14, 16, 18 FR
what size catheters are normally used on adult pts?
to ensure that the suction device is working properly and is mainteed lubricated
whyd o you aspirate a small amount of saline into a suction cathe ter before and between uses?
obtain the pt v/s height and weight
which statement would be the respinsibility if the mdical technician during a routine pt admission to a nursing unit?
a. evaluate pt
b. obtain pt history
c. transcribe dr's orders
d.  obtain the pt v/s weight and weight
pt condition and the facility policy
what considerations determine the steps in a routing admission process?
pt condition and the cost of admission per day
facility policy and the pts distance from home
pt condition and the facility policy
facility policy and pt request
inform the nurse that the pt is at risk for falling
while admiting a pt, you notice that the pt seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?
call the dr and order restraints
inform the nurse that the pt is at risk for falling
look at the ot medication. it could be a side affect
put restraints on the pt until the physician can be notified
b. both cief nurses
how authorizes tranfer of pt care for an interservice transfer?
a chief nurse
b. both cief nurses
recieving physician
Chief of Hospital Services
designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards them by registered mail.
during the transfer of a psychiatric pt requring sedation, how atre the pt vakuable safe gaurded?
a/ pass
which stateemnt allows pt to depart from the medical facility for a short operiod of time, usually between 24-48 hrs?
a/ pass
b/ discharge
c. subsisting elswhere
d. abscent w/o leave
d. 24 hrs
verbal orders must be countersigned by the physiscian w/n
a. 4 hrs
b.8 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 24 hrs
circle the last accumulated total
what is the proper method of annottaing shift change totals on the DD form 792, intake and output worksheet
a. no documentation is required at shift change
b. documents all totals in the remarks section
c. document in the grand total block
d. cirlcle the last accumulated amount.
v/s were not complete
if an inpatient chart with dr order;s orders for cital signs every 4 hrs were blank for the day you would assume
a.pt was likle off the unit having test completed
b. pt is doing well and no problems were noted
c. dr proably changed the orders verbally
d. v/s wer enot complete
which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnosis?
a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in pt behavior
relative to nursing process, what is the client goal
a.an observable change in pt behavior
b. a measurable change in pt condition
c. a realistic and measurable statement oif the end result of care planning
d. a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in pr behavior
nursing interventions
which actions are performed to help the pt reach his or her goals most effectively?
a. nursing inventions
b.nursing diagnosis
c. nursing skills
professionalism and a caring attitude
what has a significant uimpact on the pt's percieved quality of care treatment?
b. back massage
c. oxygen therapy
d. preoperative teaching
dry mucous membranes
the surgery pt is given a preoperative medication to
a. reduce recovery time
b.dry mucous membranes
c.produce and unconscious state
d. prevent aspiration during surgery/.
SF 518
What form dl you document blood transfusion
What component of blood is involved in the blood clotting process
30 mins
what is the guideluine for the maximum minutes of time frin pick up to transfusion start of blood products?
stop the transfusion
if a patient you are monitoring is recieving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. what should you do first?
a.continue to monitor, this is a normal side affect
b. place the pt on his/her left side
c. administer 100% oxygen
d. stop the transfusion
emergence delirium
a post operative pt who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing?
a.extreme pain
b. hyperthermia
c. emergence delirium
d.electrolyte imbalances
semi sitting
idealyl, in what position is a pt placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
a. modified lateral
c.semi sitting
congenital problems, infectious diseas, and trauma
list 3 factor that can result in an orthopaedic problem
what is a fracture that results from a disease called
Pain Swollen discoloration
List 3 symptoms of a fracture
it keeps the muscle tones and prevents contractures and deformities
why exercise important to the patient with arthritis
what is the weight limit for a pt baggage during aero medical evaluation
joint strain
what condition is indicated if a pt complains of a pain that increases with activity?
input and output form
afi 41-210
what af instruction provides alist of form to be assembled after the discharge of a pt?
time and mode of onset, sensory disturbance
what information should you obtain regarding deformities?
noise heard when bones are moved
what does the term crepitus mean?
adequate transporation and splinting to prevent for further damage to soft tissue and bone fragments
what is the 1st level of care provided for injuries of the joint?
extent of the injury, location of the fracture, the age of the pt, size of bone, and circulation to area
what 5 factors determine the legnth of time required fot a fracture to heal?
setting the bone
define the term reduction
a surgical procedure to set, align, stabilize a fracture
define open reduction
24-48 hours
how much time is required for complete drying of a cast
circulatory impairment and pressure on body tissues especially over bony parts
what do yoiu look for when you are inspectin gextremeties that have been casted?
 one in a cast or traction
what type of orthopedic pt requires special skin care?
a skin traction applied to the leg as temporary treatment for fractures of the upper portion of the shaft of the femur
bucks's extension
skin traction for treating some fractures of the shaft and neck of the femur
russell traction
skin traction used for fractures of the shaft of the humerus
arm traction
traction for cervical spine disorders
head halter traction
to attach various pulley's for traction deviced and a trapeze bar to assist pts in helping themselves as mush as possible
what is the purpose of a Balkan frame?
Most often used to support and immobilize extremeties
artificial limbs
used after the amputation of an extremeity
orthopaedic beds
these include the stryker frames and the circolectric
serve as legs for an indefinite period of time?
prevention of hemmorrage
what are immediate post operative gials for the amputee 
trauma, spinal cord tumors, diease, infections, congenital defects
list 5 causes of paralysis?
monitor respirations, cardiac, and gi functions
what bofy functioning must be monitored carefully for the 1st 48 hrs after a spinal cord injury?
to prevent pressure sores cardio respiratory complications, muscle athropy, and urinary complications
why are pts who have been placed in skeleteal traction to immobilize the spince placed on a spacial bed such as a stryker frame?
schemia or hemmorhage of the brain
what are 2 physiological causes of a stroke?
sustain life
what is the primary goal during the acute stage of a stroke?
Pupil, hand grip stregnth and fou streghtn
what neurological checks need to be done frequently on a stroke pt
seperation, loss of control, fear of bodily injury and pain
list 4 stressors that influence the way children cope with hospitalization
protest, despair, detachment
name 3 phases of seperation anxiety
rooming-in with parents
what ideal situation helps a child cope with seperation anxiety?
physical restriction, altered routines or dependency
what can casue a child to feel a sense of "loss of control"
open mouth, eyes closed tightly, flaring nostrils, loud crying
what are 4 signs that indicate that an infant may be experiencing pain?
toddlers and preschoolers
which age group woll most likely act very emotionally to pain?
respirations/breeathing. b/c taking the pulse of blood pressure may cause them to cry alterting their breathing
which if the vital signs are taken 1st with a pediatric patient? why
ausculated over the apex of the heart for one full minute
how is pulse taken on children less 2 y/o
axillary method
which method of temperature assessment is easiet for children
an appropriate size cuff
what important factor of blood pressure assessment is essential for obtaining accurate results
lack or proper exercise
reduced muscle tone
less rough age and fluids in the diet
what are 3 reasons an elderly pt might have difficulty with regular bowel eliminations?
spiritual, physical, cultural, physiology, economical
5 needs of the terminallly ill patient
A complex emotional state of tension or uneasiness, the cause of which is unrecognized
a state of indecision that arises when an individual is confronted by alternatives of action or by contradictory ideas or ideals
a false sensory perception occuring w/o external stimulus
a state identified by feelings of elation and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity
pertaining to or affected with a neurosis
a fixed morbid fear of an object or a situation
pertaining to or caused by psychosis
a psychotic disorder characterized by disorientation and disorganized patterns of thinking
set limits and enforce them
how should you react to a patient who becomes verbally and physically abusive
appearance, behavior, conversation
what are the ABCs of observing and reporting the pt condition
nudity, disrobing, genital exposure,observations of the child in a state of undress, imitate kissing of a child, fondling and child porn.
what is 3rd degree child abuse
build up of tension stage, abuse stage, and hooneymoon stage
describe the cycle of spouse abuse
distrust, isolation, not ask for help in crisis, and does not offer help
what tyoe of behavior can you expect of a person who abuses  his/her spouse
what drug inducing slurred speech, flushed face, poor coordination, confusion, altered LOC
what drug induces tachycardia, rapid breathing, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, excitement, euphoria, and anorexia
what drug causes sluggish, lack of coordination, slurred speech, pulse and breathing slow, sleepiness
what drug induces reduced pulse and respiratory rate, pupil constriction, coma,  diaphoresis, euphoria, sleepiness, and anxiety
a fracture that results from disease, such as metastic cancer of the bone is called:
a hairline
b pathologic
c conenital
d traumatic
orthopaedic deformities cush as a clubfoot ot wryneck are categorized as
a infectious
b congenital
c pathologic
d temporary
traumatic injuries
military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems
a inflammatory disease
b congenital problems
c traumatic injuries
d infectious disease
d promotes flexion deformities of the hip
the semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in pts with orthopedic disorders because it
a causes drop foot
b causes venous stasis
c causes external hip rotation
d promotes flexion deformities of the hip
a muscular pain
what orthopedic problem would you suspect if your pt complains of soreness or aching?
a muscular pain
b bone infection
c malignant tumor
d psychocomatic issues
which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?
a age
b gender
c extent of injury
d circulation to the area
phantom limb pain
the cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is reffered to as a:
 a phantom limb pain
b phantom limb sensation
c physiological phenomena
d psychological phenomena
what equipment is essential to have at the post operative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
 a suction
b oxygen
c NG tube
d Tourniquet
 a. a life long process
rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
 a. a life long process
b. of no use because they do not fully recover
c. continued for 6 months after the incury occured
d. continued for up to 2 yrs after the final surgery
cardiac arrest
turning a patient on a stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
a aspiration
b cardiac arrest
c disorientation
d respiratory tract
sustain life
during the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal
a sustain life
b stop ischemia
c maintain mobility
d monitor vital signs
pre school
during which child development state is seperation anxiety the most stressful?
 a early infancy
b preschool
c school age
d adolescene
established daily rituals and routines
which statement provides a hospitalized child wiht a sense of control?
a - stricly enforced rules
b - use os safety restraints
c - changes in daily routine
d - established daily rituals and routines
the normal adaptive mechanism used by children when the loose their sense of control is
a - fantasy
b - projection
c - regression
d - displacement
when caring for a child with nausea and vomitting, a primary concern would be what?
you have other tasks to dom an dno time to sit with the child
which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
a. the physician needs to suture the childs face
b. the child continues to climb out of bed in the night
c. to prevent the child form falling out of a high chair
d. you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
less because of frequent daytime naps
the amount of sleep required at night by elderly pts is generally?
 a. less because of frequent daytime naps
b. more becuase of insuffucient activity
c.the same as required by all ages
d.more than for youthful pts
what serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues
a. infiltration
b. embolism
c. plebitis
d. extravasation
all that a person is, feels, and does is gnerally termed
a environment
b. personality
c. character
d. heredity
self perception
what affects and individuals feeling about himself?
a. socioeconomic status
b. opinions of others
c. self perception
d. job title
which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality
a. neurosis
b. phobia
c. delusion
d. psychoses
which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
b. delusion
c. anxiety
d. conflict
a patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
a. withdrawal
b. suspicion
c. anxiety
d. anger
shared characteristics or established criteria
how are behaviordisorders and syndromes grouped into categories?
a. severity of behavior or shared characteristics
b. shared characteristics or established criteria
c.  severity of behavior and pts age
d. establish criteria and pts age
as soon as the pt is admitted
when does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient
a. during pre-admission
b. w/n 12 hrs of admission
c. w/n 24 hrs of admission
d. as soon as the pt is admitted
attitude of society
what major problem affects mental health treatment
a. attitude of society
b. cost of medical care
c. lask of adequate medication
d. limited number of appointments
when observing and reporting on mentally ill pts, the most important facotr to consider is:
a. behavior
b. appearance
c. conversation
d. sleeping habits
leave the other pts to follow the escaping pt
if you see a mentally ill pt sneak out of the nursing home unit, take all of the following actions?
a. telephone for help
b. try to describe the pt, including the pt's clothing
c. note the direction in which the pt is heading
d.leave the other pts to following the escaping pt
wh ois at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?
 a. child
b. abusers
c. parents
d. society
report the suspected abuse
what action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of  shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?
a.report the suspected abuse
b. only report if the pt admits abuse
c. counsel the parent on his or her actions
d. nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse
spouse states it wil lnever happen again
what occurs in the 3rd phase of spousal abuse?
a.counseling is sought
b. tension and stress builds
c. physical or verbal abuse occurs
d. spouse states it will never happen again
if a pt is restrained, what position should he or she be in if the pt is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?
a. supine
b. prone
c. semi-recumbent
d. high fowler's
pain, neurological damage, structural defects, weaknedd, psychological problems and rehab measures
what are common causes of immobility?
they must be convinced that the activity is going to help and motivated to do the activity
whattype of special nursing challenge do pts in pain present?
fatigue lowers pain tolerance
why should you schedule activities for a pt at a timewhen the pt is feeling energetic?
stroke victim
what type of pt is not usually able to communicate effectively?
inactivity or degenerative processess like cancer
what are 2 causes of weakness?
allows injured tissues to heal
what is the purposes of bed rest?
many who are on bedrest do not want to be on bedrest and will resist limitations
how do pts who are on bed rest differ from immobilized pts?
strange environment, cannot do anything to help or protect themselves, dont known whats gonna happen
what are 3 reason immobilized pts may be frightened?
regression and childlike behavior
what psychological condition is exhibited when a pt spends a great deal of time worrying aboul meals and bowel movements?
impaired circulation to the skin and subcutaneous tissue in areas of the body where the bony prominences lie close to the skin surface
what are the effects of a grade III ulcer?
poor posture, lack of supports, and streched muscles
what causes back aches
the flow is slower b/c there is no muscle activity helping to push the blood thru the body
what  efefct does immobility have on the flow of blood thru the body?
inadequate vasoreconstriction
what causes orthostatic hypotension
backaches, muscles strain, and other permanent problems
what possible consequences of using poor body mechanics are discussed in the text?
the proper relationship of body carts to one another
define posture?
crossin gur legs or sitting to that the back of the chair is pressing against you rpupiteal area
what are 2 way you can impede the circulation to your lower legs when you are sitting?
your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support
what is the relationship between your stability and your cernter of gravity?
shoulders, upper arms, thighs and hips
where are your largest muscles located?
the resistance of friction is less than the resistance of gravity
why should you use pulling or pushing movemenbts rather thank lifting movements
wash hands, greet patient, check id, and explain procedure
what 4 st4eps should preface any movement procedure
pts who have back, shoulder, or chest injuries
what types of pts cannot be moved using the shoulder lift technique
to shift the pts weight and to prevent from rolling
before turning a pt to the side-lying position why should you bend the pts leg?
about 12-15 inches apart with one slightly behind the other
how should you place ur feet when preparing to turn a pt ro his or her side?
when you push you lose some control and risk the possibility of accidentally pushing the pt out of bed
why is it better to pull than push the pt into a different position
for repositioning, to perform various procedures and in preperation fo rgettin gout of bed
what are the reasons pts are moved to the edge of the bed?
helpless and near helpless pt, pre-op and post-op pts, and others who must remain in a lying position
what type of pts are transported on strechers
at the head of the pt so that sshe.he can see that the pt and what the other techs are doing
what is the best position for the person who is controlling a move
@ po degree angle to the foot of the bed
where should the stretcher be positioned if the pt is to be transferred by lifting
3 person technique
what technique should you use to reposition a pt in the bed
with a drawsheet
 what is the preffered method for moving a pt from a bed to a strecher
head first
how do you place strectcher pts onto an elevator
the edge of the bed will put pressure onn the backs of the pts legs and interfere with circulation
why should the pts legs not be allowed to hang unsupported from the edge of the bed
doorway or elevator
when should you back up with a pt in a wheelchair
to provide smooth transfer and to reduce possibility o finjury to pt and tech
what are 2 purposes of mechanical aids
their muscles have atrophied and weakened and they are usually unsteady
why cant pts who have been bedridden for a long period of time just get up and walk?
help bedridden pts remain as active as possible and move the pt ou tof the bed in gradual stages
what can you do to reduce pt problems with ambulations?
pts physical condition, support needed, type of disability, and doctors order
what factorsdetermine the type of ambulation aid that will be used for each pt?
body 1st and then the crutches
what basic rule should a crutch pt follow when going up the stairs
what type of pts should recieve passive exercises
movement towrds the ceneter of the body
what is adduction?
they prevent shortening of the muscles, tendons, ligaments, and join capsules that lead to join fixation
how do range of motion exercises helps prevent joint fixation?
Dr's order and pts diagnosis and capabilities
what informationwill help you decide the type of exercises pts need
cradle or cup the body part and support it above and below the injured joint
how should you support a body parrt when you are doing passive exercises
straining causes irregular heartbeats
why should you instruct the pts not to hold their breath as they do isometric exercises?
what diet is used for pt with hypertension or congestive heart failures
which diet eliminates chemicals, mechanical and thermal irritants?
what diet is used as a transition between full liquid and regular diet
clear liquids
what diets is inadequate in all nutrients and not given for more than 3 days
full liquid
what food is easily digested foods that malt and foods free from cellulose and spices
high calorie, high protien, regular
what type of diet is udes got pt who suffer from excessive weight loss
what diet contains fewer calories that the pt normally uses to metabolizes
what diet means that no restrictions  are on the types of food and nutrients a pt can eat
what diet is used for pts with kidney or liver disease
the desire for food or and agreeable altitude towards eating food
define appetite
pain, discoomfort, and unpleasant sights sounds or odors
what physical sensations, mentioned in the test, that can cause a loss of appetite?
personal preference
what is the strongest force that affects a persons appetite?
af form 1094, diet order
on what form do you identify where the pt will eat
assist the pt wirh oral hygiene, assist pt to the bathroom or bedpan, provide equipment to wash his/or her hands
how should you prepare a pt for mealtime
diagnose disorder, feed pt, relieve distention, drain stomach, or wash out stomach
what are 5 reasons for the use of NG tube
what term is used to denote tube feedings?
room temp
at what temperatue whoul dthe tube feeding solution be when you use it?
10-20 mins
how many minuted will it take to properly administer a tube feeding
introduction of a solution into the stomach thru a tube and the siphoning the solution back out
what is lavage
relieve or prevent bladder distention, collect a sterile urine specimen or to empty bladder before certain surgical procedures
what are 3 reasons that catherizations are performed?
to prevent bladder damage, shock, chills and fever
why is it important to decompress the bladder slowly?
foley and straight
what are 2 types of catheters?
what type of technique ise used when inserting a catheter
6-10 inches or until the urine begins to flow
how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the male pt
2-3 inches or until the urine begins to flow
how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the female pt
to remove or wash out blood, pus, bacteria, or waste products following urinary surgery
what is the purpose of bladder irrigations
cleansing and retention
what are 2 types of enemas
releive constipation, prep for surgery, and preparation for diagnostic procedure
what are 3 reasons for the use of cleansing enemas
left lateral recumbent or on back
what position is the pt placed when administering an enema
5 minutes
how many mins should a cleansing enema remain
apprx 12 inches above the rectum, but no more than 18 inches
when giveing a retention enema, how high should the solution container be held above the rectum?
treatment disease of the rectum and lower colon, soften fecal material, or soothe an irritated colon or rectum, and administer medication
what are retention enemas used for?
is establishing fecal co ntrol and keeping the pt clean
what are 2 reasons for colostomy irrigation?
begin the program early in the pts hospital stay
for pts who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to
a. schedule the activities for afternoon or evenings
b. begin the program easrly in the pts hospital stay
c. plan the activitities in conjunction with pain medications
d. provide reassurance and a clear explanation of the program
develop a good rapport
when planning activities for pts with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to
 a. motivate the pt
b. reassure the pt
c. show sincere concern
d. develop a good rapport
allow them to channel their hostility thru verbal expression
what should you do to help pts who become angry and hostile?
a. involve the pt in group therapy sessions
b. allow the pt to become physically abusive
c. refer the pt to the n urse for counseling
d. allow them to channel their hostility thru verbal expression
2 hours
to aid in preventing decubitu sulcers, pt positioning should be changed every
a.1 hr
b. 2hrs
c. 3 hrs
d. 4 hrs
maintain balance and prevent back hip and leg strain
why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?
a. prevent back, hip and leg strain
b. prevent back, hip, and neck strain
c. maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain
d. maintain balance and prevent back, hip and neck strain
base of support
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
a. axis
b. head
c. internal gridle
d. base of support
which technique for moving the pt up in bed is not used for a pt who has back or chest injuries?
 a. 1 person
b. 2 person
c. shoulder-lift
d. 2-person with drawsheet
raise the near side rail
when turning a pt, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the pt?
a. don not push to hard
b. raise the far side rail
c. traise the near side rail
d. lock the wheel on the bed
when transfering pts, you can reduce the chanceof injury to urself by
a. locking beds and wheelchairs before the transfer
b. using good team work and proper body mechanics
c. explaining the procedure to the pt prior to the transfer
d. knowing the pt weight and capabilities prior to the transfer
pressure on the back of the legs
a pt's feet must beplaced on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
a. the pt from falling out the bed
b. pressure on the back of the legs
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. embolism
drawsheet and roller board
which deviced can be used to slide a pt from the bed to the strecher
a. drawsheet and trapeze
b. drawsheet and roller board
c. drawsheet and pt hoist
d. roller board and pt hoist
beside and a little behind the pt wiht your near arm interlocked with the pts near arm
when helping a pt to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?
a. beside the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pt's near arm
b.beside the pt with one hadn on the pt's waist and one hand under his or her near arm
c. beside and a little behind the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pt's near arm
d. beside and a little behind the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pts near arm
4 Point
which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by pts who can bear some weight on both legs?
a. 2 point
b. 3 point
c. 4 point
d. swing through
three point
which gait is used by pts who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial ot no weight on the other
 a. 2-point
b. 3-point
c. 4-point
d. swing through
muscle contraction without body movement
isometric exercises are activities that involve
a. muscles relaxation without body movement
b. muscle relaxation w/o any body movement
c. muscle contraction without body movement
d. muscle contraction with body movement
heart attack (cardiac arrest)
care must be taken to ensure pts do not hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as they may cause
 a. muscle strain
b. heart attack
c. dizziness
what diet is usually ordered for pts who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract
a. soft
b. bland
c. liquid
d. regular
clear liquid
the diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and ahould not be given for more than 3 days is the
 a. soft diet
b. full liduid
c. clear liquid
d. mineral-restricted
room temperature
what should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage
 a. hot
b. chilled
c. lukewarm
d. room temperature
750 to 1000cc
to prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
a. 550 to 800cc
b. 650 to 900cc
c. 750 to 1000cc
d. 850 to 1100cc
during catherizationof a female pt, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder
 a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 4-5
d. 5-6
prevent air from entering into the bladder
the urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to
a. prevent the risk of contamination of the catheter tip
b. prevent dripping of urine on the bed linen
c. eliminate any possible pain to the pt
d. prevent air from entering into the bladder
for what length of time in minutes should the pt retain the solution of a cleansing enema?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
1/3 full
the pts colostomy bag should be changed when it is
a. 1/3 full
b. 1/2 full
c. 3/4 full
d. full
80-100 mm HG
what is partial pressure of arterial oxygen?
35-45 mm HG
what is partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide
7.34 -7.45
what is the percentage of hydrogen ions
95-98 %
what is the arterial oxygen saturation
what term means the pt has a low oxygen content in the arterial blood
respiratory alkalosis
hyperventalation can cause that type of acid- base imbalance
respiratory acidosis
hypoventalation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance
before and after respiratory treatments
when providing respiratory care, when do you  listen to lung sounds
rales - fine crackling sounds
snoring - noisy brething caused by an obstructed airway
Ronchi - course, gurgling sounds heard best on expiration
wheezing - a whistling sound
b/c O2 supports combustion and makes things more flammable
why should "no smoking" signs be posted outside rooms where oxygen is in use?
what type of blanket muyst be used in areas where oxygen is in use?
ensure that the fill date does no exceed 5 yrs and that they tank is secured to keep it from falling over
what safety precautions should you take if you are using a metal oxygen tank
pts who are very sick, restless, or uncooperative
for what type of pt is an oxygen tent used?
NRB Mask
how is the concentration of oxygeen concentration of 60-90 percent?
venturi mask
what type of mask is used when the pt needs low concentrations of oxygen, 24 to 50 percent
when other attempts in increases the pts PaO2 have failed, and prior ro intubation
when is continous positive airway pressure mask used?
water may overflow into the gauge
what will happen if the humidifier is too full when u are using nasal canula
every 48 hrs
how often are humidifiers changed?
a doctor or anesthesia
who is normally responsible for inserting endotracheal tubes
to help maintain a clean and dry area longer
why is a tracheostomy prior ro changing the dressing
q8 Hours, or as often as the physician orders it
how often should tracheostomy care be performed
Difficulty breathing on exertion, which is relieved by rest 
what is exertional dsypnea
unusual or irregular heart beats felt by the pt
what are palpitations?
a fall in cardiac output
what is one cause of the cardiogenic synoscope
a reduced amoutn of hemoglobin
what is the cause of cyanosis
what can casue diminished pulses
apex of the heart
what can cause diminished pulses
closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
..during ausculation of heart sound, what does the S1 represent?
one listens over the apex of the heart with that at the radial artery
what is the purpose of taking an apical-radial pulse?
to terminate ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia
what is the purpose of defibrillation?
continue CPR until the physician decides the next course of action
what should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful
electronic monitoring of the heart rhythm over airways
what is telemetry
70-90 mm/hg
what is the normal arterial pressure
a pressure bag
what prevents blood from backing up the tubing of an arterial line
venous blood volume, assessment if right sided heart failure and determinations of heart infarctions
what type of information can a CVP provide to a physician
brachial femoral subclavain, jugular
name 4 possible sites of a CVP line
to decrease chance of an air embolism
why is the pt taught to perform the valsalva maneuver prior to insertion of a cvp line
5-12 cm h2o
what is normal cvp range
8-41 mm/hg
what is the normal range for the PCWP?
left ventricular failure, pulmonary congestions, and hypervolemia
what are PCWPs greater than 20 mm HG associated with?
injuries to face and throat, loose dentures or teeth, deformities or swelling
what types of head and facial injuries could result in airway problems?
conjuntiva becomes bright red
how does conjunctiva react to injury or or irritation?
the particle often leaves a small scratch on the surface od the conjunctiva that continues to irritate the eye even after it has been removed
why does a small particle continue to irritate they eye even after it is removed
dont attempt to remove, notify the doctor and let him or her handle the problem.
what should you do with a particle that is lodged on the cornea
bleeding into the anterior chamber of th eye
why is hyphemia
perform a flueroscent eye strain
how do you detect corneal abrasion
apply pressure on both sides of the cheek
 how shoul dyou handle laceration that extends all the way throught the cheek
avoid the airway maneuvers that may cause further damage
how should you handle a pt who is bleeding from the mouth and has apossible spinal cord injury?
can end up pushing it further back
wh6y should you never attempt to remove objects that have been forced into the nose
pain, swelling, bite, irregularity, loos or absent teeth, inability to talk or swallow, increased salavation, bleeding in mouth and lose bone fragments
what are indications of cial fractures
an occlusive dressing is used to prevent the possibiliy of an air embolism being sucked in thru a vein
what type of dressing should be used on neck injuries and why
electrical, hear, ekectric, radiation
what elements can cause burns to body tissues
facial burns are usually accompanied by injuries to the respiratory tract
why is the mortalilty rate high for facial burns?
by agent and source, degree and severity
what are 3 ways to assess a burn victim
charred, coagulated, or while and lifeless surface appearance
how can you tell a burn is a partial thickness burn
rule of nines
what is used to determine the extent of burned surface area?
under 5 and over 55
pts under and over what age have the most sever reactions to burns
minor burn
a parial thickness burn that involvess less that 15% of the body surface is classified as what type of burn?
critical burn
a full thickness burn that involvess more than 10% of the body surface is classified as what type of burn?
appeareance of vessicle or blisters
how can you tell a burn is a partial thickness type
wrap burn with a dry sterile dressing
what is the treatment for a thermal burn to the back?
open or closed
how are wounds classified
an intentional wound
what ype of wound is created during surgery
a surgical closure
what is a good example of first intention healing?
the filling in of a new pink tissue in a wound
define granulation
wound dishiscence
what is the term used to refer a wound when the initial suture closure breaks open
protection from trauma and bacteria, apply pressure and pt comfort
 give three reasons for the use of a dressing over the wound
swipe from the wound edge then outwards
what direction do you wipe when cleaning a wound
 referred to as a bruise
loss of epidermis as the result of the skin being rubbed or scraped
a cut produced by a sharp object
caused by a stab with a pointed object
skin is torn compeltely loose or left hanging as a flap
pool of blood that forms beneath the skin
causes vessels to contract
what effect does cold temperature have on the blood vessel
the superficial bloodvessel in the area become dialated or enlarged
what effect does the applications of heat have on the superficial blood vessel
95 to 98
What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
a. 85 - 88
b.89 - 91
c. 92-95
d. 95-98
60 to 90 percent
for pts using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
a. 30 to 40%
b.40 to 50%
c. 60 to 90%
d. 80 to 100%
which mask is suggested for pts with COPD
a. venturi
b. simple
c. nonrebreathing
d. positive pressure
assess the stoma for patency
before performing tracheostomy care, you would first
a. urine the neck string
b. remove the dirty dressing
c. assess the stoma for patency
d. put on your unsterile gloves
this is usualyl described byt the pt as a jumping, punding, ors topping of heart within the chest
a. flutter
b. syncope
c. palpitation
d. fibrillation
when preparing a pt for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the pt to decrease the chance of an air embolism?
a. webber
b. valsalva
c. vagal
d. allen
for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein in what position should the pt be placed?
a. left lateral recumbent
b. righ tlateral recumbent
c. trendelenburg
d. supine
howmany minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eye
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
there is a high rate of sucess for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure w/n how many minutes of the accident
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
fluorscien stain
how are corneal abraisions detected?
a. xrays
b. venogram
c. angiogram
d. fluorescein stain
partial thickness
damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classifies as what type of burn
a. superficial
b. full thickness
c. partial thickness
d. severe thickness
management of the pts airway
when caring for a pt with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is
a. to apply sterile dressings to the burn sites
b. management of the pts airway
 c. evaluate extent of the burn
d. infection control
wet to dry
how would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding the wound
a. dry
b. wet
c. wet to dry
d. wet to wet
reflex vasoconstriction
what a reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?
a. reflex vasoconstriction
b. reflex vasodilation
c. babinski reflex
d. haabs reflex
20-30 mins
when applying a cold treatment , how long should you leave it in place?
a.10-20 mins
b. 20-30 mins
c. 30-40 mnins
d. 40-50 mins
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