Microbiology Exam 3 Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Nitrobacter
NO2//O2
IL-23 subunits
p40/p19
freeze drying/preservation
lyophilization
trophozoite
motile feeding stage
Chloroflexus
hybrid photoheterotroph, chlorosomes
oncogenes
regulate cellular genomes
unicellular/multicellular organisms with nucleus and are membrane bound
eucaryote
Gram positive cocci
StaphylococcusStreptococcusEnterococcusMicrococcus
- sense?
looks like RNA
Are all antigens immunogenic?
No
Opsonization
coating to facilitate phagocytosis
VIRUSES
 
ACELLULAR (DONT CONTAIN CELLS)
nonliving
have core area


~composed of nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA)
the virus coat in composed of protein
reproduce inside a host cell,using the host cells replication machinery
all viruses are parasitic

can only be observed with an ELECTRON microscope
Virus
Non-cellular obligate intracellular parasites
Class Anoxyphotobacteria:Genus?
sulfur bacteria:Chlorobium (green)Chlomatium (purple)non sulfur bacteria:Chloroflexus ( green)Rhodospirillum ( purple)
sepsis
a)decay b) bacterial contaminationc)presence of bacteria in normally sterile tissues of the bodyd) bacteria in blood, actively multiplying
Joseph Lister
introduced aseptic techniques:wash/ disinfect hands, treat air with strong antiseptic chemicals (phenol)
Viremia
presence of viruses in blood
How are the enteroviruses transmitted
Fecal-oral
GMOs
-genetically modified organisms. Plant and animal breeding EX: Round up ready corn - altered to be Round up resistant
Isotonic
similar concentrations of solute inside vs. outside
flaky (subsurface)
large particles in suspension
THE
PROKARYOTIC CELL
(OUTSIDE TO INSIDE)
GLYCOCALYX
FLAGELLA
AXIAL FILAMENTS
FIMBRIAE
PILI
 
Carbohydrates Types
Monosaccharides= one sugar(Glucose, Fructose)Disaccharides= two Monosaccharides. (Glucose + Fructose = Sucrose)
HIV stands for
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Anionic Detergent (Sodium lauryl sulfate)
Antiseptic
Dinophyta / Pyrrophyta
dinoflagellates "red tides"
asepsis
-area/object free of pathogens-absence of significant contamination- condition that results from aseptic technique in lab, surgery, etc...
Protozoa
entamoeba gingival and Trichomonas tenax
 present in about of adults w/ "clean and healthy mouths"
increases w/PDD
A capsid is made up of:
Capsomeres
normal flora
always present in low #
Neisseria meningitides
Neisseria meningitides
Gram (-) diplococci, endotoxin, pili
small % develop meningitis
throat infetion-> DIC-> bloodstream
septicemia
mental retardation, hearing loss, loss of limbs
vaccine recommended for college freshmen
Process of phago
Pouch-like structure invaginates, displaces nucleus/organelles, forms "phagolysosome," kills microbe
owl body intranuclear inclusions are associated w/
CMV
Plasma cells
Activated B-cell undergoes clonal expansion, multiplying and secreting large volumes of antibody (same specificity!) in soluble form


Which causes ringworm molds that attacks the skin nails and hair?
trichophyton
Phase-Contrast Microscope
 
microscope that converts slight differences in refractive index and cell density into easily observed differences in light intensity
Enrichment (selective) media
 
No organic source of carbon
 
selects for autotrophs 
What are bulla?
fluid filled larger vesicles
transduction
phages serve as transporters of bacterial genes from one bacterium to another and can play a profound role in bacterial genetics
Sporozoa develop s...l body
 
aka. a...
 
no structures for l... in adult sage
sporelike
 
apicomplexans
 
locomation
 
Pathogen
Any disease causing agent (bacteria, viruses, protozoans, molds)
tubular protein structure found only in gram neg cells join bacterial cells for conjugation
pili
Bergey's Manual of Determinative bacteriology:based on
observable characteristics
Toxoplasmosis
BLOOD PARASITE- Caused by Toxoplasma gondii- Parasites invade all cells except RBC's- Transmission from contaminated beef, pork, lamb; cats can get from soil or birds- No serious illness for healthy, parasites may pass through placenta and kill baby or abort. In AIDS patients, attacks brain, cerebral, kills with seizures
WHat is the cause of SARS?
coronavirus
The protein which controls the "switch" is the _______ protein
repressor
Zanamivir (Relenza)Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
neuraminidase inhibitorsblock release of virus from host cells
Non-siderophore mediated uptake involves what type of protein?
Transferrin binding proteins (TBPs)
Explain lateral gene transfer

Lateral gene transfer (Horizontal gene transfer)
when genes are passed to other organisms in their same generation.

when microorganisms come together and exchange DNA
ex: a virus introducing a new trait to a host cell
anaerobes
organisms that do not use oxygen, include some that are killed by oxygen
What's the common manifestation from congenital rubella syndrome
1.  Deafness
Which Ig is more efficient with complement?
IgM
Which type of direct assay amplifies specific segments of DNA or RNA, is rapid, sensitive, and specificity can be varied?
PCR
global control
Example involved CAP and cyclic AMP-SOS response
Source
individual or object from which you actually obtain the infection
Exponential (log) phase
 
microorganisms are growing and dividing at the maximal rate possible given their genetic potential, the nature of the medium, and environmental conditions; rate of growth is constant; balanced growth – all cellular constituents are manufactured at constant rates relative to each other
Microbial Diseases of Upper Respiratory System:
Streptococcus pyogenesCorynebacterium diptheriaeBordetella pertussisNeisseria meningitidisHemophilus influenza
Aflatoxin (Aspergillus) is caused by what?
peanuts/peanut products

Sterilization

Process by which all life forms (including bacterial endospores & viruses) are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitant.
finished water
water delivered to the distribution system after treatment
plasmid
A plasmid is a extrachromosomal DNA molecule separate from the chromosomal DNA and capable of autonomous replication. In many cases, it is typically circular and double-stranded. It usually occurs naturally in bacteria, and is sometimes found in eukaryotic organisms (e.g., the 2-micrometre-ring in Saccharomyces cerevisiae).
used for conjugation of cells
direct assembly
in some cases, other macromolecules must aid in the process of assembly reactions
Eukaryotic Species
Group of closely related organisms that breed among themselves
defense response that is the same every time
non-specific
controlling microbial growth
-microbes die at logarithmic rate-D-value: time to kill 90% of cells-antimicrobial agents decrease D-value (kills cells faster)
fungus
an organism that belongs to the Kingdom Fungi; a eukaryotic absorptive chemoheterotroph.plural: fungi
colony
a visible mass of microbial cells arising from one cell or from a group of same cells
If you are diagnosed with chalmydia trachomatis, what else should you get tested for?
gonorrhea
Anctinobacillus Actinomycetemcomitans
frequently found in children w/primary dentintion
high incidence in subgingival plaque of children under3
What is disinfection?
destruction of microbes (not spores) on INERT surfaces
 
bacteremia/viremia
microbes present in the blood but not actively dividing
What Angle is Zygomycetes branched at ____
90 degree
Name the 5 Cestodes
1.  Taenia solium
2.  Taenia saginata
3.  Diphyllobothrium latum
4.  Hymenolepsis nana
5.  Echinocuccus granulosus 
Filovirus can cause _____ & _____
Ebola & Marburg
Why does medulla stain lighter?
Fewer lymphocytes, numerous macrophages/DC's
Differentiate between bacteria and virus particles.
Virus:
         - smaller than bacteria
         - has 1 nucleic acid either DNA or RNA never both
         -not a cell, no cytoplasmic membrane, cytosol, organelles
         -cannot carry out metabolic pathway, cannot reproduce independently
          -cannot grow on agar
         - not susceptible to antibiotics
Bacteria:
         -has DNA and RNA
         -prokaryote
 
induced (inducible/regulated)
enzyme produced in high amounts only under appropriate conditions
Name 5 agents that are associated with antimetabolites
Sulfonamides
Sulfones
Isoniazid
Trimethoprim
P-AminoSalycylic Acid
Presumptive Test
-inoculate lactose broth with a water sample-incubate at 37 C for 48 hours-if gas produced then MAYBE coliform is present
Sterilization
 
Sterilization Techniques
 
How many
What are they 
There are four basic types of sterilization procedures
 
1. Heat
2. Certain chemicals
3. Cold filtration * 
4. Radiation
 
*method of choice for liquid media 
What are splinter hemorrhages?
as endocarditis progresses capillaries burst and ou get red dots under fingernails
biotransformation
the use of microorganisms to carry out a chemical reaction that is more costly or not feasible non-biologically
The normal microflora found in the nose is
Staphylococcus aureus
antibodies
A type of protein produced by the immune system in response to foreign substances that may be a threat to the body -- such as chemicals, virus particles, spores, or bacterial toxins. (These foreign substances are called antigens.)Each type of antibody is unique and defends the body against one specific type of antigen.
Reverse transcriptase
Converts RNA to DNA in the host
IgA, IgE
IgA - found in secretions (blood, saliva, colostrum)IgE - involved in allergic reactions
germ theory of disease
the principle that microorganisms cause disease.
What diseases does mycobacterium leprae cause?
leprosy (lepromatous and tuberculoid)
What is enterocolitis?
inflammation involving mucosa of large and small intestines
Anton van Leeuwenhook(know spelling)
first to opbserve living microorganisms. made 400+ microscopes, saw protozoans and bacteria
What is antimicrobial antagonism?
antibioltics that, when used together, work less effectively
Describe aldehydes (glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde)
-Inactivate proteins by cross linking wiht functional groups
-Disrupt structure of nucleic acids 
 
Describe Carbohydrates
-Consists of C,H,O, with an HO ration of 2:1-used to store and release energy
What does Schistosoma species cause?
Schistosomiasis:
 Skin rash at site of penetration
 
Kattama fever:
1.  Intense itching, fever, hives
2.  Weight loss
3.  Portal hypertension 
Types of proteins activated by complement
Serine proteases, membrane-binding proteins
What does calreticulin do?
Stabilized newly formed EMPTY CI molecule
ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay)
detect presence of antigen-specific antibodies in serum of patient (a)detect presence of antigen by using known antibody Note use of Fc portion of antibody as second specificity handle
Transmission Electron Microscope
 
microscope in which an image is formed by passing an electron beam through a specimen and focusing the scattered electrons with magnetic lenses
Microbial Nutrition and Metabolism
 
Cultivation
 definition
the growth of microbes under well-defined laboratory conditions --> results in a culture
Evaluation of Chemical Control Methods

•Use-dilution tests: rate at which selected bacteria are destroyed 95%

–Standard test organisms:

–Staphylococcus, Salmonella, Pseudomonas



 
Phenol Coefficient
–Dilutions of test agent compared to dilution of phenol

–Ratio- 1 / test dilution : 1 / phenol dilution

 

•Phenol Coefficient Example:

–Max activity of Agent A: 1/450

–Max activity of Phenol: 1/90



•PC = 450 / 90 = 5

•PC > 1  Agent is more effective than phenol


 
There are 2 types of bacterial endocarditis name them
Subacute and acute
What is involution?
after the thymus increases in size until puberty, it is then replaced slowly by fat
Allosteric Site
What does the inhibitor bind to during feedback inhibition?
How do you get V. parahemolyticus and how does it present?
Contract:
1.  Shellfish
 
Presents:
1.  Diarrhea
2.  Cramps, nausea, fever and vomiting 
potential energy
energy that has the capacity to do work, when released
What is the most common organism found in the gut?
E Coli
What is sepsis?
What is asepsis?
-Microbial contamination (also known as "septic")
-Absence of significant contamination (also known as "aseptic")
What condition does Blastomyces present w/
Fever, malaise, night sweats, weight loss
What does CD59 block?
Polymerization of C9, formation of the MAC
Functions of Fc (Aggregated)
Removal of Ag, Killing of infectious agents/abnormal cells, driving inflammation
Major Histocompatibility molecules (MHC)
▪ cell surface proteins that (1) signify “self”(2) present epitopes for immune surveillance
Molecular techniques used for taxonomic purposes
nucleic acid sequencing, nucleic acid base composition, DNA-DNA hybridization, amino acid sequencing, genomic fingerprinting
What is an operon?
A cluster of (generally) related genes controlled by one regulatory region
What are the two characteristics of IgD?
<1% of Igs
Monomer structure
Which co-receptor binds to MHC class I? What is it expressed on?
CD8; cytotoxic t cells


Describe structure of antibody 
5 classes- same basic structure
* two heavy and two light chains
* constant regions and variable regions
* disulfide linkages
* Fab and Fc regions
* Fab- antigen binding
* Fc- "clearance" 
when desribing bacteria under a microscope, which thing will u mention
shape, arrangement, size, inclusions (spores,cysts)
How do you get tapeworms?
consumption of undercooked fish, beef, or pork (wnt to get into muscle, but sometimes get into eye or brain)
If these holes are not punched how will the effect the results?
Aerobic bacteria require
The Lambda repressor binds to __ and __
Ol and Or promoters
Give an example of process regulated by Oligopeptides
-Staphylococcus aureusToxic shock and virulence
OR• Bacillus subtilisAntibiotic production and sporulation
Hows hanta virus transmitted
Breath in urine & feces of carrier mice
What does calnexin do?
Assists folding of alpha chain of MHC I and association with beta2M
What is known as heavy creams and is used topically for mild dermatophytic infections like vulvovaginitis?
clotrimazole & miconazole
How does intrinsic termination of transcription work?
Two sequential, inverted sequences are transcribed. As these sequences are transcribed, the resulting RNA sequence contains a sequence of matching pairs, which bond to each other. These inverted sequences are followed by a long sequence of poly-A (transcribed to uracil), which slows RNA pol. These two factors slow and destabilize RNA pol, which loses energy and falls off.
In a patient w/ Otitis media, the tympanic membrane would look like
1.  Redy
2.  Bludeing
3.  Immobile 
What are the mechanical barriers of the skin against pathogen growth?
shedding of skin cells, sweating
What are the characteristics of german measles?
low grade fever and rash
What is the viral structure of influenza strain A?
enveloped virus: has hemagglutinin spikes (clumps RBC, recognize and attaches to cells) and neuraminidase spikes (helps seperate from cell afterreplication), has 8 RNA segments
Describe the differences between axial filaments, fimbriae (spelling), and pili? Where would you find axial filaments? What is the specific function of Pili?
Axial filaments only found in spirochete bacteria. similar to flagella, twisted around bacteria between cell membrane and cell wall, corkscrew motion (Borrelia, Trepenoma)Fimbriae + Pili - short hair-like structure NOT for motility but for attachment (Fimbriae - surfaces, Pili - other bacteria)Pili allows for dna transfer.
UV light causes pyrimidine dimer formation in DNA. What can cells do to remove them? There are two mechanisms, light and dark repair, that are known to repair damage caused by dimmers. Light repair or photoreactivation
ccurs in the presence of visible light in bacteria previously exposed to ultraviolet light. When organisms containing dimmers are kept in visible light, the light activates an enzyme that breaks the bonds between the pyrimidines of a dimmer. Thus, mutations that might have been passed along to daughter cells are corrected, and the DNA is returned to its normal state. This mechanism contributes to the survival of the bacteria but creates problem for microbiologists. Cultures that are irradiated with ultra violet light to induce mutations must be kept in the dark for the mutations to be retained.
What are 2 types of cell division that can occur in bacteria?
binary fission & budding
How does the VDJ work?
D to J and then V to DJ
presence of D-isomers helps pathogenicity?
true - our proteases can only degrade L isomers because we only have L isomers
What are the biochemical defenses of the skin?
keratin, salt, fatty acids, lysosyme, and antimicrobial peptides
How do you keep bacteria in check?
Hygiene, natural flora compete, body's immune system
How does clostridium botulinum affect adults?
food poisening or wound (toxin enters blood, binds to nerve signals in PNS)
What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?
infectious skin rash, hair losee, malaise, mild fever
How does rocky mountain spotted fever effect humans?
grow in blood veddels yields systemic damge, rash's and in 1% mortality due to heart and kidney damage, if left untrreated
What are the two most important domains of C3?
Anaphylatoxin (pull out = C4a gone, conformational change) and Thioester domain (binding site to microbes)
What are ways microbial growth can be measured in lab?
direct counts; viable counting methods (spread/pour plates); turbidity measurements
What are the three characteristics of self antigens?

Seen as normal by the host IS
Genetically determined
Unique to each person
AIDS vs. Healthy classification
AIDS - 200 or less CD4 Tcells per mL cubed of blood. Healthy - 400-1600 CD4 Tcells per mL cubed of blood.
What are the six definitions of nonspecific host defenses?

Innate - in born in every human.
Provide a general protective response against any pathogen.
Function in the same way aginst all MOs

Vary in strength from person to person
Do not depend on previous exposure to the MO
Not effected by prior contact to the MO
Name the 3 modes of transmission of adenovirus
1.  Fecal oral
2.  Hand to eye
3.  Respiration 
1. fusion of g... sex c...
2. two h... n... fuse
3. fusion results in d... c... (2 sets of chromosomes)
4. d...c... (zygote) undergoes m... which results in d..c.. , each with single set of chromosomes
5. sexually produced h..s.. germinate & form h.. t
1. gamete cells
2. haploid nuclei
3. diploid cell
4. diploid cell, meitosis, daughter cells
5. haploid spores hypha, mycelium
 
What is the result of the enterotube?
A five digit code that can be referenced to identify the exact genus and species name of the enteric.
What are the steps to recognition of T lymphocytes?
Ag binds to the APC (Antigen Presenting Cell)
APC specifically binds to TCR (T Cell Receptor)
APC release cytokines to recognize TCR and BCR
What is the membrane attack complex? what does this lead to?
a pore of C9 in the surface of the pathogen; cytoloysis (filling of the bacteria with fluid to make it burst)
mili-
one-thousandths
Campylobacter
gastroenteritis, microaerophile!
Bdellovibrio
protobacteria predator
lytic
(Lambda) Rightward transcription
Archaezoa
-no mitochondria-multiple flagella
disease paradigms
early onset
late onset
 
 
 
 
 
Clindamycin
inhibit protein synthesis
commonly used for anaerobic, Gram negs
common prophylactic in dentistry (broad spectrum)
scope, scopy
instrument for examining
monosaccharides are monomers of
carbohydrates
Protozoans
single-celled animals classified according to their ability to move; use of flagella and sporozoa.-larger than bacteria-found in soil and most bodies of water.-Cause amoebic dysentery and malaria.
aseptic meningitis
Enterovirus-most common, later summer/early fall
HSV2-primary or recurrent
HIV
Mumps
What is mRNA from DNA
Transcription
Coxiella burnettii
Rickettsias, Intracellular; AKA: indicator organism, Q-fever
Fungi?
Thrush (infected mucous membrane), ringworm, athlete's foot, jock itch
Krebs Cycle
Acetyl CoA combines W/oxaloacetate------citric acid
2 ATP's needed to begin
yields-2 Acetyl Co-as which gives 2 cycle
 
Protozoa
Diverse group of microscopic, single-celled organisms-- live in both water and on land-- complex and larger than Prokaryotes-- no rigid cell wall-- major feature of classification is means of locomotion
what limits bacteria metabolic rate?
diffusion
endemic
disease exhibiting relative steady frequency
ubiquitous
Prokaryotes are ____________ meaning everywhere
Describe replication strategy of Retroviruses.
Syl 11-16
transmission over short distances (
Droplet transmission
naturally acquired active immunity
maternal antibody transferrance
Eukaryotic Lysosomes
Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes, powerful digestive enzymes. Only membrane bound organelle that has a single membrane and not a double membrane.
Filament
Composed of gobular proteins called flagillin.
Entamoeba
protozoa, water, salad bar, bloody stool > liver, lung, brain
what is total magnification?
objective x ocular
Exotoxin is...?
Produced inside mostly gram-positive bacteriaThey are then secreted or released following lysis into the surrounding medium.
Outer membrane gram negative
Largest partsemipermeablephospholipid bilayer contains specialized proteins lipopolysaccharides - toxic to animals lipoproteins - the anchor porin proteins - protein channels
name the org:
G+, nonspore forming
anaerobic
pleomophic

found in skin
MOC: intestinal tract

diseae: acne vulgaris
Propionibacterium acnes
Phosphorylation
the process of transferring a phosphate group from a donor to an acceptor; often catalysed by enzymes
name drug grp for competitive inhibitors of essential metabolite synthesis
sulfonamides
pathogens picked up during brief contact with contaminated reservoir.
Carrier
Which process interprets RNA to synthesize protein?
Translation
C. botulinum
Name the bacteria with the toxin:
Blocks the release of acetylcholine
-causes anticholinergic symptoms, CNS paralysis, especially cranial nerves; spores found in canned food, honey
Some members of enterobacteriaceae cause opportunistic infections. What is the most common type of infection that they cause?
Urinary tract infections.
 
(Syllabus: 21-5)
phase of illness: symptoms disappear resulting in recovery, may have disability depending on organism and damage, can be quite long
convalescent period
ELISA steps
1) Antigen (lipopolysaccharide) is affixed to the bottom of the well (in our case a 96-well plate)
2) Egg yolk is added to the well; if antibodies specific for the antigens are present, they will bind. • Note: Antibodies outside their host behave slightly differently, and exhibit some non-specific binding • In order to prevent this, we “block” non-specific binding sites with detergents (tween) and proteins (milk) which helps the antibody bind to the specific site
3) Rinse (wash); only bound antibodies remain.
4) Add anti-chicken antibody antibodies coupled to enzyme; rinse to remove unbound antibodies.
5) Add chromogenic reagent; reagent is cleaved by enzyme, resulting in signal proportional to the amount of bound antibody- can get a quantity
What types of shapes do Bacteria have?
BacillusspiralCoccus
allergic conjunctivitis
causes itching, redness, and excessive tearing in both eyes. your nose may also be stuffy, itchy, and runny.
Convalescent Carrier
Carrier recovers but continues to harbor pathogen
infection
the invasion of body tissues by microorganisms
Salmonella basic characteristics
Gram negative bacillus; lactose negative, facultative anaerobe
Glucose isomerase
Enzyme converts glucose that amylase formed from starches into fructose
Disinfectants
A chemical used to destroy many microorganisms and virus this -- biocides-- used on inanimate objects
What is the only beta-hemolytic streptococcus that is sensitive to bacitracin?
Strep pyogenes
name the organism:
anaerobic G+ spore forming

found in soil
MOC: human colon and vagina

disease: gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
and food poisioning
Clostridium perfringens
What sporozoa is the cause of malaria?
Plasmodium
Complex media
Organic Compounds, provide source of Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorous, Sulfur, and Nitrogen. Peptones, beef extract, yeast extract, and tryptones
-compounds derived from phenol-it reduces the irritating & disagreeable properties of phenol but retains the killing properties-denature proteins/disrupt cell membrane-not affected by organic materialex. lysol or Cresol (to preserve wood)
bis-phenols"bis" = bridge
What drug Prevents peptide bonds from forming?
Chloramphenicol
Where is the genome located?
in the chromosome
dermatophytes (microsporum, trichophyton, epidermophyton)
Name the fungi:
-pruritic lesions w/ central clearing resembling a ring, caused by dermatophytes
-see mold hyphae in KOH prep, not dimorphic
Few pathogens are primarily inhaled. Name 5.
Legionella
M. tuberculosis
Pulmonary anthrax
Histoplasma
Tularemia
20-4
Contrast pili from nonfrimbrial adhesions.
Pili: Long-rangeNonfimbrial adhesions: Short-range21-2
caused by Variola virus, transmitted by aerosols and contactSymptoms: fever, prostration, fatality rate up to 40%, small round pocks 1mm in diameter with white opaque centers
smallpox (variola major)
Coulter counter
Particle counter used for any cell, works by detecting change in electrical conductance of a small aperture as fluid containing cells are drawn though
Gram + bacteria
A -> G
(1A, 2B, 2C, 1E, 1G)
Actinomyces
Bacillus
Bifiidobacterium
Clostridium
Corynebacterium (& other diphtheroids)
Enterococcus
Gardnerella vaginalis
 
Complement System
defensive system consisting of over 30 serum proteins found in normal serums.
generalized transduction
occurs by mistaken packaging of a piece of host DNA into a phage particle instead of phage DNA
Define fastidious organism.
=wild type bacteria that have complicated growth requirements
-may be tough to grow in culture
What are the portals of exit?
Respiratory trace--coughing, sneezingGI tract--feces, salivaGenitourinary tract--urine, secretionsSkinBlood--Biting arthropods, needles
process of killing using mild heat while preserving quality of food62 to 66 degrees Celsius - 30 minutes - quick cool COXIELLA BURNETTIdestruction of pathogens in milk, beer and win - increases shelf life
Flash Pasteurization
what are some characteristics of Lactobacillus acidophillus?
Gram-positive
non-spore forming rods
obligate fermenter
pairs or chains of various lengths
What was Spallanzani's Experiment?
Boiled infusions, infusions remained clear
Concluded 3 things about Needham
-Didnt kill microbes sufficient
-Didnt seal container tightly enough
-Spontaneous generation does not occur
Stationary phase
third growth phase in which numbers level out due to equal growth and death rate
microbial growth
increase in number of cells, not size
Differential MedialIndicates the presence of a specific microorganism usually by color change
Enrichment Culturemedia designed to make the microorganism grow into large numbers from a small amount
What aer A blue-green bacteria that fix nitrogen?
Cyano bacteria
obligate intracellular parasite
The technical name for a virus
botulism tx and px
antitoxin to prevent progession or shorten illness course
no indication of px antitoxin
supportive care
no benefit of antibiotics
Antigenic _____ is thought to occur through reassortment processing of the segmented genome of influenza.
Shift (NOT DRIFT!)
What is transduction?
Process whereby a virus transfers DNA from one bacterium to another. 
What are the three positions an endospore can be in?
terminal, subterminal, central
Pathogens 7 Challenges
1. Maintain reservoir2. Gain access to new host3. adhere to body surface4. invade deeper tissue5.establish infection invade host defenses6. multiply in host tissue7.Exit host
Group III Mott examples
(nonchromogens: slow gro, no pigment at all)1) M. avium complex (MAC): found in water, common in SW. Inhaled or ingestion, but not communicable. Causes either TB-like pulmonary disease or disseminated disease. More common among HIV or COPD individuals. Hard to treat.
Terminator site
Region of DNA that is endpoint for transcription
transformation
taking up free DNA that is in the environment
what stage of lyme disease affects the heart by impairing electrical conduction causing dizziness, fainting and affects the nervous system by paralyzing the face, severe headache, pain on moving eyes, difficulty concentrating, emotional instability, and n
stage 2
Who is Gram?
Came up with stain that differentiates gram (+) from gram (-).
Q: Coccidioides immitis causes what?
A: Coccidioidomycosis, AKA Valley Fever.
Mesophiles (moderate temp. loving)
-good temp. 25-40-most bacteria are mesophiles-most are pathogenic
What is serology?
The science that studies serum and immune responses that are evident in serum
Lab can reject sputum samples if there are what in them?
Epithelial cells.
Trypanosoma cruzichagas disease
what bacteria can cause a decrease in cytokine release leading to immune suppression?
What does contact isolation require?
Patient is put in private room.Healthcare workers use gloves and gownPatient-dedicated stethoscopes22-6
Viral Genetics
Can be either RNA or DNA, and either single- or double-stranded
Reverse transcriptases translate viral RNA into DNA for insertion into host genome.
Genome codes for a replication protein (polymerase) and all proteins required for virion production However a lot of bacteriophages code for sigma factor that guide host polymerase to viral genes
how are halogens used for control?
oxidizes proteins
uses chlorine to destroy all organisms/ disinfectant
ex. iodine-- kill veg. cells
RAT BITE FEVER- Streptobacillus spirillum
More common in Asiatic countries, Recurring fever- arthritis like pain- inflammation of lymph nodes.
What structural feature of prokaryotes does Beta lactam anti-biotics target?
=transpeptidase
-this is the enzyme responsible for cross-linking parallel chains of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
What is glycolysis? also known as the metabolic pathway;
1)molecule glucose (6c)-2ATP-2ADPbreakdown glucose-use 2ATP-Yields 2 ADP cuts carbon in half.2)Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (3c) Break high energy bond of ATP-extra phosphates attach to end of 3rd carbonC-C-C-PiEnd up with 2 pyruvic acid molecules plus 4 ATP plus 2 NADHNet yield=2ATP + 2 NADH
How are Enterobactericaeae grossly characterized?
antigenically: K, H and O antigens
enzymes speed up reactions by:
a. converting products into substrates
b. breaking the bonds between hydrogen and oxygen
c. lowering their energy of activation
d. producing heat
lowering their energy of activation
Q: What are the four classifications of fungi discussed in this chapter?
A: Zygomycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Deuteromycota, and Chytridiomycota.
Why are serretia important?
Bacteria found on catheters and lead to many urinary and reproductive tract infections
What's the mnemonic used to remember the RNS viruses?
Please Call (ss+, nonenveloped)
TCR for (ss+, enveloped)
Friday's Rheal Performance Of BA/R (ss-enveloped/ds nonenveloped).
 
OBAR are all segmented.
Name three bacteria (or groups of bacteria) that are obligated to be extracellular pathogens.
Gram positive (except Listeria monocytogenes)Vibrio choleraeTreponema pallidum1-7
Malassezia furfur;
Mottled, discolored skin pigmentation with some slight scaling or flaking
What is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?  What does it look like?
Radiation to control bacterial growth
Very effective way of killing bacteria using Xray, gamma waves or UV light
Clinical features of m. pneumoniae infections
1) causes walking pneumonia (primary atypical pneumonia) compared to pneumonia caused by streptococcus pneum.2) WP is usually less abrupt onset and milder course3) HA, fever, chest pain, scanty sputum, paatchy infiltrate, persistant cough, resolves untreated in 3-4 weeks4) moderately contagious
What are the beneficial roles of microbes in pesticides?
Bacteria produce protein crystals that are toxic to the digestive systems of the insects which allows farmers to environmentally friendly treat their crops.
What does gropu A carbohydrate do?
can stimulate antibody production (but antibodies produced are not opsonic), unknown role in pathogenesis
Describe Moraxella colonies on agar.
Hockey puck colonies. Can push them around on agar.
the gain of electrons by an atom or molecule
oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions
American Biologist Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
Demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is another nucleic acid, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
How does the following virus generally enter its human host: RSV?
Respiratory tract. Causes infection in URT, or LRT.12-3
What was Alexander Flemming most famous for?
Discovery of the enxyme Lysozyme and antibiotic pennicillin 
In regards to the extent of host involvement, what is sub-clinical infection?
no noticeable signs or symptoms.
What are the Charactoristics of Neisseria meningitidis
Small children high risk, grows in the nasal passages moves to the brain.
What are the common steps of microbial pathogenesis?
colonization or attachment, invasion (common but not obligatory), evasion of host defenses, host damage (several mechanisms exist)
Give 2 factors that allow different microbes to attach or adhere to target cells
fimbriae and lipoteichoic acid of gram-positive cells are factors--allow different microbes to attach/adhere to target cells
What are some of the diseases caused by pseudomonas species? Is it easy to treat?
Otitis externa, hot tub folliculitis, pneumonia, UTI, abscesses, otitis, corneal disease, Endocarditis, meningitis – mostly as an opportunistic pathogen – not easy to treat
If a patient returned from working as a health care worker in an endemic area for viral hemorrhagic fever and presents with fever within 21 days of returning, what should you do?
Isolate and treat the patientCC 6-7
a gene can be described as
a nucleic acid sequence that codes for polypeptide, tRNA or rRNA
Q: What are dimorphic fungi?
A: They exist either as yeast cells or mycelia depending on the environment (they exist as yeast @ 37 degrees Celsius).
Do M. tuberculosis and M. leprae grow in culture?
M. Tuberculosis does, but very slowly - it takes 3 weeks to grow on the plate. M. Leprae does not.
How can NEGATIVE staining be used in conjunction with a simple stain?
neg. stain can provide a halo-like effect around a thick capsule. simple stain will allow ID of bacterium lying within the capsule
Why can't bacteria grow on fruits, grains and vegetables?
Too acidic and not enough moisture for bacteria to grow on
What are the 2-3 and 1-4 hairpin in the Trp operon?
2-3 is the stable interaction of complementary regions that allow further transcription when there is low concentrations of Trp. 1-4 hairpin is formed in Trp excess that will prevent further transcription and serves as the terminator.
Is Rabies a virus, a bacteria, or worm? Where does it originate?
Rabies is a virus that infects the PNS then the CNS before causing death. 
Ribosomes
protein synthesis
Trichomonas vaginalis
=
Endemic disease
constantly present
Moraxella/Barnhamella catarrhalis:

-colony description?
-biochem tests positive (2)?
-diseases?
Moraxella/Barnhamella catarrhalis:

-HOCKEY PUCK colonies on agar

-oxidase +

-DNAase + (but all CTA sugars neg)

-diseases: pneumonia, otitis, eye, sinus
EHEC
Name the bacteria:
Presentation: Dysentery (toxin alone causes necrosis & inflammation), Does not ferment sorbitol
-O157:H7 = most common serotype
-produces shiga-like toxin & Hemolytic-uremic syndrome = triad: anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure
-endothelium swells & narrows lumen, leading to mechanical hemolysis & reduced renal blood flow
-damaged endothelium consumes platelets
Aseptic techniques
a:notSeptic:filled with diseaseTechniques used to sterilize/keep sterilized
Cellular Defense Mechanisms
PhagocytosisNormal MicrobiotaInflammationFeverInterferons
Desiccating
Removing water from food
phenotype
expression of the genes
toxin
poisonous substance produced by bacteria
Which pathogen is particularly problematic in ICUs?
Klebsiella22-5
Vaccine
Killed, inactivated, or attenuated microbes to induce artificially acquired immunity
Bordetella pertussis
lung disease, whooping cough
Planctomyces
Bacterium, stalk, S-layer "covers" cell
substance that lowers activation energy
catalyst
Campylobacter jejuni:

-Gram?

-Special selective agar?

-Growth temp and atmosphere?

-How to distinguish from Campylobacter fetus?
Campylobacter jejuni:

-small curved gram neg rods &quot;seagulls&quot;

-Special selective agar:
Skirrow's blood agar (has abx to kill other bacteria)

-Growth temp and atmosphere?
42' C, microaerophilic.

-How to distinguish from Campylobacter fetus?
C. jejuni grows at 37 and 42
C. fetus grows at 37 and 25

(&quot;It's hot in the jejunum!&quot;)
parasitology
protozoan and parasitic worms (helminths)
gram negative
-red
-thin peptidoglycan layer
-outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide (outside peptidoglycan layer) (responsible for fever and shock)
E. coli
Name the bacteria:
-virulence factors = fimbriae -> cystitis & pyelonephritis
-K capsule -> pneumonia, neonatal meningitis
-LPS endotoxin -> septic shock
Low concentration of what substance induces the production of diphtheria toxin?
Iron33-3
Influenza viral particles ability to change surface proteins and prod new strains of itself that ppl are not immune to, make it difficult disease to ____
control
Does a darkfield microscope use light?
yes
the process through which organisms change over time as a result of changes at the DNA level
evolution
Hyaluronidase
called the "spreading factor"- breaks down hyaluronic acid, a tissue "cement" found particularly in connective tissue
Conjugation
direct transfer of genetic material from one cell to another via direct cell-cell contact. requires specific surface proteins, DNAse resistant, does not involve a phage
Secondary sewage treatment
Predominantly biologicalRemoves most organic matter and redues BODSewage undergoes strong aeration to encourage aerobic bacteria growth
Exocytosis
Process by which eukaryotic cells expel material-- membrane-bound vesicles inside the cell fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing their contents to the external medium
with specialized transduction, a peice of bacterial DNA remains attached to the peice of phage DNA that is exised. T or F
true
Name the catalase + organisms
Staph
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Candida
Aspergillus
Enterobacteriaceae
Leukopenia
decreased number of white blood cells
temp-optimal 37*C: "low slow; high die"pH- optimal pH7substrate concentration-saturation pt of enzyme activity vs substrate concentrationinhibitors-chemicals that bind to enzymes and stop enzyme activity
oxidation
What are chemicals that improve effectiveness of antigens?
Adjuvants
lysozyme
hydrolyzes peptidoglcan and can be used to produce protoplasts
prevention of vascular catheter associated bacteremia
meticulous insertion technique
minimize duration of catheterization
use single vs. multiple lumen catheters
antibiotic impregnated catheter
Bacteriostatic or bactericidal: Cephalosporins
Bactericidal 4-2
 
P.S. Thanks Brady
Oral or injectable vaccine
How is Polio prevented?
Edward Jenner (1749-1823)
deliverately infected patients with matter from cowpox lesions, this process would be called vaccination
Selective Media
Suppress growth of certain bacteria and allow for the growth of needed bacteriaBismuth Sulfate in media will suppress gram +ve and only allow gram -ve interic bacteriaSabouroid Dextrose allows only the growth of fungi at pH 5.6
Signs
objective changes that can be observed and measuredEx. nausea, pain, headache, dizziness, and fatigue = symptomsEx. vomiting, swelling, rash, redness, fever = signs
chromosome
large single strand of DNA that contains the "blueprint" for all cell structure and activity in regions called genes
Transitions
base substitution mutations in which a purine is changed to another purine(A-G) or a pyramidine is switched to another pyramidine (C-T)
Describe bacteriodes fragilis
-gram negative enteric
-normal flora of GI
-obligate anaerobe
-able to form abscesses after trauma to the abdomen
-Unique features:
1. no lipid A in outer membrane (no endotoxin)
Chemotrophic metabolism
-Energy from chemicals - all pathogens degrade organic compounds to produce energy in form of ATP
lysogenic pathway
lysoginizes into chromosome takes adv. of enxyme att p and att b intergrase - recognizes attb so it catalyzes a recombination between attp and attbhybrid attpb
what are some characteristics of shigella species (S. dysenteriae, S. sonnei)?
gram-negative
enteric rods
non-motile
facultative anaerobic
non-lactose fermenter
A polysaccharide called glycan that is cross-linked to other polysaccharides molecules bu short peptide cross-bridges to form a fishnet-like structure.
Peptidoglycan
Anabolism
the synthesis in living organisms of more complex substances (e.g., living tissue) from simpler ones together with the storage of energy
-water molds-cellulose cell walls-multicellular-chemoheterotrophic-produce zoospores-decomposer and plant parasites
-Phytophthora infestand responsible for Irish potato blight- P cinnamomi infects Eucalyptus-P. ramorum causes sudden oak death
Bisphenolscompound derived from 2 phenolics bridged together-disrupts all membranes-effective on G+ and G-
Halogenspowerful oxidizerTincture-an aqueous solution in alcoholIodophore-iodine with an organic detergent
Chlamydia trachomatis
Gram: n/a
Shape: small cocci
Location: sexual contact
Disease: STD; conjunctivitis
3 rare streptococcus groups
C, G, and F
HIV related infections: name pulmonary infection
recurrent bacerial pneumonias (S pneumonia, H flu, S aureus, gram negative)
PCP
other fungal pneumonias
Aspergillis
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus

mycobacterial infections
Is the change of antigens the induce antibody response systematic or random?
Systematic
Pinworms (Enterobius vermicularis)
What worm causes anal pruritis especially at night?
Singlet Oxygen
Is normal molecular oxygen that has been boosted into a higher-energy state and is extremely reactive.
plasmolysis
cell shrivels and dies from lack of water.
Heterocysts
Wall in a cell which eparates nitrogen fixation from oxygenic photosynthesis.
prokaryote
an organism whose cells lack a true nucleus.
Helicobacter treatment
Treat ulcer disease with Ab plus Pepto; works symptomaticallly and cures underlying infection
What is glycocalyx composed of?
polysaccharide, polypeptide or both
Adeno Associated Viruses (AAV)
are defective parvoviruses which require the presence of adenovirus or herpes viruses for proper replication
What defines &quot;infection&quot;?
A step beyond colonization; an organism crosses anatomical barriers, crosses cell surface, or host develops an immune response to the organism
light rays bending as they pass from one density into another is an example of:
a. absorption
b. refraction
refraction
What is the slowest frowing fungus on earth?
Lichen
Q: True or false? Chytridiomycota only causes disease in plants.
A: True!
obligate aerobe
growth occurs only where high levels of oxygen have diffused into the medium
What does herpes simplex virus 2 cause?
Genital herpes
What selection is required to isolate organisms that require growth factor that parents strain does not have?
indirect selection
C. diphtheriae
Name the bug w/ the special culture requirements:
Tellurite plate, Loffler's media
Name 3 atypical organisms that can also cause community acquired pneumonia.
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila (unproductive cough)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
CC 3-2
Name the gram reaction and morphology of Citrobacter sp
Gram negative rod
gram pos coccicatalase negSF broth purple (no growth)hemolysis beta or gammabacitracin disk resistant (no zone)positive CAMP test
Group B strepS. agalactiae
3 Types/Reasons for drug resistance
-Exchange of plasmids-Not taking entire prescription-Inappropriate prescription
Excellent models for understanding basics of viral biology
Bacteriophages:- Inexpensive- Easy to grow and study in lab
Osmotic relationships
 1.Isotonic
2.Hypertonic
3.Hypotonic
1.the environment is equal in solute concentration to cells internal environment
2.the environment has a higher solute concentration than the inner cell
3.the environment has a lower solute concentration than the inner cell
How do you distinguish between staphylococcus and streptococcus?
=catalase test
-staph: catalase +
-strep: catalase -
How does assimilatory Sulfur reduction differ from dissimilatory Sulfur reduction?
In assimilatroy Sulfur reduction, sulfate is reduced to incorporate it into organic material (used in biosynthesis of AAs/prots); no energy is made available. In dissimilatory Sulfur reduction (anaerobic), sulfate/sulfite is used as an electron acceptor and is reduced but not incorporated incorporated into organic matter during biosynthetic processes.
What are sigma factors?
give specificity for promoter regions for RNA polymerases; sigma factors can be used to activate a wide range of genes in response to specific environmental changes
these diseases are from what gram + cocci?
folliculitis
furuncle
carbuncle
impetigo
endocarditis
food poisoning
osteomyelitis
scalded skin syndrome
wound infection
toxic shock syndrome
staph aureus
Electron microscope
An electron microscope is a type of microscope that uses a particle beam of electrons to illuminate a specimen and create a highly-magnified image
factors that affect enzyme production (6):
temperature, pH, substrate concentration, competitive inhibition, noncompetitive inhibition, feedback inhibition
What is A common method of identifying cells that carry a specific cloned gene?
Colony hybridization
What site attaches amino acids to amino acids?
the P site
congenital CMV infection in mother: symptoms, dx, prevention 
usually asymptomatic with occasional mononucleosis like illness
dx established by seroconversition or +IgM for CMV
prevention- reduced contact with multiple young children, wash hands
Types of Mutation: Missense
A mutation that results in the substitution of an amino acid in a protein
How soon does the canchre show up for syphillis?
2 weeks-months
Parasitic Worms
Most grow to a visible size, but their microscopic eggs can be found in blood, feces, urine,and lymph specimens.
What is the sp. name for Group a strep?
Streptococcus pyogenes
What is an element?
a substance that can't be decomposed into substances with different properties.
What are the main treatment strategies for Neisseria meningitidis?
penicillins and cephalosporins (resistance found outside US), high IV dose given in case of meningococcemia or meningitis; prophylaxis of carriers or close exposure with rifampin, relatively new adjunctive therapy with rBPI21
what disease is caused by pastuerella multocida?
wound infection e.g. cellulitis
with what do the beta-lactams interfere?
transpeptidation causing the formation of penicilloyl-enzyme complex instead of D-Ala-enzyme complex
Hot air sterilization170ºC-2 hrs to sterilize
2 Filtrationuses no heatphysically separates microbes from a suspending liquid or gas by passing a screen like device
What are a set of genes controlled by a protein called?
an operon
exogenous (endosomal) antigen processing
MHC II molecules are found on antigen presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells)antigen presentation to CD4 helper T cellsportion of cell wall/toxin goes into the cellrough endoplasmic reticulum produces MHC II
How do you diagnose mad cow disease?
diagnosed after deaeth and autopsy
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
What are the 2 major types of cells?
Describe the life cycle of chlamydia
1. The extracellular elementary body attaches to a specific host cell R and undergoes parasite-specific endocytosis
-stays in phagosome and EB prevents fusion with phagolysosome
2. EB differentiates into RB (reticulate bodies) and multiply and make more EB
3. EBs can be released from cell by cytolysis
What is a clone?
A population of cells derived from a single cell.
What are the culture demands of Campylobacter?
microaerophilic (want low oxygen 5-10%), capnophilic (want high CO2 4-8%), can ferment peptones but not carbohydrates, thermophilic (C. jejuni and C. coli like 42∞C)
Q: What diseases are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
A: Strep throat, necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, impetigo, erysipelas, cellulitis, glomerulonephritis, otitis media, sinusitis.
What is a noscomial infection?
An infection that develops in a hospital because of the bacteria in teh hospital
How do you preven lymphatic filariasis from going on to elephantiasis?
keep affected region clean from secondary bacterial invasion
Name the 3 diseases that may be caused by different hantavirus strains:
Hemorrhagic Fever (HF)Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS)Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) 17-4
Two types of Membrane Disrupting Toxins
Form channels in the membrane Compromise the integrity of membrane phospholipids
Describe main features of strep group viridans.
1. Big group
2. Alpha hemolytic
3. Normal GI flora
4. Also found in
1. nasopharynx
2. gingival crevices
What are the major bound virulence factors for Streptococcus pyogenes?
M protein, lipoteichoic acid, F protein, hyaluronic acid capsule, C5a protease, IgG and IgA binding proteins, group A carbohydrate
When Legionella was newly discovered, it was classified with the pseudomonads because: A. it is a pathogen B. it is an aerobic gram-negative rod C. it is difficult to culture D. it is found in water E. none of the above.
B. it is an aerobic gram-negative rod
What are the two viruses that lack the machinery and can only be "transformed" artifically?
E. coli and Salmonella
Describe the interaction of the enzyme neuraminidase (NA) with the host cellepithelial cells.
NA cleaves sialic acid residues from the host cell receptor for the virus, freeing virus particles and enabling them to spread through secretions. Also important for viral neutralization.
What are the two (three) ways of improving resolution?
-Decrease wavelength-Use oil with 100x objective(-increase N.A.)
Name 6 gram positive bugs that cause disease in humans
2 cocci, 4 bacilli
1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. Bacillus (makes spores)
4. Clostridium (makes spores)
5. Corynebacterium
6. Listeria
how is borrelia burgforferi most commonly transmitted?
tick bites for longer than 24 hours
most common tick borne disease in the USA
All MRSA strains have a ...gene which does what?
Mec. Makes them methicillin resistant.
What was a shocking way Jenner proved a vaccination?
Innoculated 8 year old boy. (His son?!?!)
What is a common route of infection by GBS in babies?
organism colonizes vagina, ascends and infects amniotic fluid through placental membranes, fetus aspirates organism in amniotic fluid; also, through the birth canal.
Which of the following is not true:

Commensal flora inhibit growth of pathogens in upper airways
Mechanical mechanisms for respiratory include all of the following:, air flow, mucociliary elevator, and epiglottis
Innate immunity involves all of the fo
3:  While most of what is said is true, there is no IgM in the upper respiratory tract: the remainder of the info is correct (20-3)
name 4 components of a virus
1. Genome (DNA or RNA)
2. Capsid - protein shell(capsomeres)
3. +/- Envelope membrane layer acquired from host cell
4. Spike proteins - project through envelope, aid attachment
Why can having a baby with an Rh+ man be problematic?
The baby may be Rh+ and could cause an allergic reaction within the woman if she is Rh-
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