Microbiology Exam 4 Flashcards

Terms Definitions
energy requiring
sore throat
Function of PMNs
sore, inflamed throat
Protein on pathogen
Oxyphotobacteria Description?
aerobic photosynthesis
antimicrobial in garlic
Location of new PMN's
Anaerobe, strict fermentor, endospore
Clostridium Botulinum
Disease: BotulismCharacteristics: Exotoxin causes paralysis and respiratory failure
genus Bordetella
Pathogenic chemoorganotrophic rods
Iodine (I2, Providone, Betadyne)
Aminoglycosides ANTIBIOTIC- intestinal infections or ointment
thick mass of hyphae
from animal resovoir to human
Name the 5 Dimorphics
Sporothrix schenckii
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis 
DC's derived from monocytes
Langerhans cells
snapping division, phage derived cytotoxin BIG trouble
hydrogen hypothesis
endosymbiont was anaerobic bacteria that produced H2 and CO2, engulfed by host that became dependent on the H2
Essential Nutrients 
cells are 80% water
drinkable safe for human consumption
gene therapy
for curing genetic disease
cant grow without O2
obligate aerobe
HSV ( Herpes simplex virus)
protista kingdom characteristics
non-motile & motile
autotrophs and heterotrophs
some have walls and some do not
-decimal reduction time-time required for a 10-fold reduction in population density at a given temperature
Amphotericin B
example of a polyene
Example of ss (+) sense RNA
Viral meningitis
Aseptic meningitis
caused by enteroviruses
mild disease, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, fever, white cells in CNS
What's the most common manifestation of HBV
P-selectin expression
Constitutive on platelets, endo. cells, timing = within minutes
drift accounted for in yearly vaccines
use of chemical agents (antiseptics) to destroy/inhibit vegetative pathogens on body surfaces (skin, mucous membranes, wounds, surgical incisions).
molecules generated in central metabolic pathways that are used in the synthesis of macromolecules such as amino acids
precursor metabolites
E. Coli
Virulence Factors: Pathogenic strains have specialzed fimbriae that allows them to bind to certain intestinal epithelial cells can be ENTEROTOXIC or ENTEROINVASIVE
Enormous polymer composed of many identical subunits
Glycan - sugars N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) N-acetyl-muramic acid (NAM)  
Basic unit of peptidoglycan is formed by NAG and NAM Alternating NAG/NAM form sugar chians The cross-bridge between NAM’s tails link sugar chains together.  
differential media
growth media that allows identification of microorganisms based on phenotypic properties
contains Positively charged Protons & Neutral Neutrons.Protons + Neutrons = the weight of an Atom.
diaphragm lever
controlling extensions from the condenser system to increase or decrease the amount of light reaching the specimen
outer boundary of polysaccharides used for protection, adherence, and signal reception
Bacterial nucleoid
-single loop of double-stranded DNA-attach to cell envelope -replicates once for each cell division
inflammation of epiglottis and glottis narrowing airwaycaused by Hemophilus influenzae, and Strp and Staphcan be emergency
nonionizing radiation
longer wavelengthsUV lightUV light damages the DNA of exposed cellsnot very penetrating
Normal Flora - skin
Gm+ bacteria, Acinetobacter
blocks protein synthesis but causes problems for host --> last resort drug
What is low temperature useful for?
killing worms
stages of infection

incubation period, prodromal stage, period of invasion (height of infection), and convalescent period
What does Sporothrix schenckii cause?
1.  Nodular uclerations at the site of the prick 
2.  Heals and later more paplues develop along the lymphathics 
cells returns to its vegetative state in a medium with adequate nutrients-proteins, RNA, and DNA are synthesized
Nucleotide-oligomerization domain proteins (NOD's) recognize...
Microbial motifs from intracellular organisms
Analysis of lysed target cells (MHC experiments) was performed with what compound?
T/F: secondary treatment in a water treatmetn plant is microbilogical
DNA Helicase
unwinds the helix and separates (“unzips”) strands
What is the alternate for systemic mycosis?
FOOD AND MILK experiments
-quantitative-looking for 20-300 colonies X dilution-standard plate count and serial dilution for both food and water- FOOD NEEDS TO BE BLENDED IN A SANITARY BLENDER
Generation (Doubling)
each doubling of a parental cell
Brilliant green agar

Dye inhibits G+ bacteria; used to grow  G- bacteria selectively
a low molecular weight molecule that combines with specific antibodies but that is incapable of eliciting an immune resposne by itese.f
Microbes living in/on host without harmful effects (including oppurtunistic pathogens)
Normal/Resident Microflora
ETP produces ... ATP in eukaryotic cells
... ATP in prokaryotic cells
Robert Koch
Provided proof that bacteria causes anthrax. His postulates are a sequence of experimental steps to relate a specific microbe to a disease. 1st to use solid media (gelatin) to grow bacteria.
Variations in heavy chains in the classes IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
Suspense of infectious agents given to establish resistance to an infectious disease
trachomatis (STD)▪ Life cycle – includes two stages (Fig. 21.23)▪ elementary body (semi-resistant, infectious form)▪ reticulate body (growing, "vegetative" form grows intracellularly)▪ survives in phagosome
What are dermatophytes?
fungi that grow on keratin
WHat is teh carrier state of salmonella typhi?
Robert Hooke
concluded that the smallest structural units of life were 'little boxes' or 'cells' after observing cork
what kingdom would you place a single cell 70 ribosome and cell wall?
Explain transduction (lateral gene transfer)

Method of transferring genetic material from one bacterium to another using bacteriophages
Bacteriophage: a virus that can infect bacteria and overtakes the host bacteria to replicate its DNA inside the host cell.

Phages: composed of a core of nucleic acid covered by a protein coat

A page is capable of infecting the bacterium by attaching to a receptor site on the cell wall because they have high specificity

The phage enzyme weakens the cell wall and the phage nucleic acid then enters the cell

Once the nucleic acid is in the cell, there are two pathways that further describe the phage
Virulent phage: capable to causing the infection and then destruction and death of a bacterial cell
It infects the cell, then ‘kills’ the cell releasing the new formed phages

Because this cycle results in lysis or rupture it is called a lytic cycle

Temperate phage: capable of causing the infection but DOES NOT ‘kill’ the host
The phage’s DNA is incorporated into a bacterium’s DNA and is replicated with it.

Phage produces a repressor substance that prevents the destruction of bacterial DNA and the Phage’s DNA does not direct the synthesis of the ‘new phages’

Prophage: Phage DNA that is incorporated into the host DNA

Lysogeny: persistence of a prophage without phage replication and destruction of the bacterial cell

Lysogenic: cells containing a prophage
organisms which make their own food by reducing CO2
most probably number method
statistical method of measuring bacterial growth, used when samples contain too few organisms to give reliable measure by the plate count method
Humoral effector and transfer mech
Soluble Ab and serum
What is the major immunity function of IgA?
Warty little devil- but you know how oligotrophs are
Name the 2 types of polyene antibiotics
amphotericin B
Sanger method of sequencing
use dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPS) as chain terminators; 4 separate reactions (ddATP added to one, ddCTP to another, etc); terminates DNA strand elongation, resulting in DNA fragments of varying length which can be separated by gel electrophoresis and sequence obtained
Vaccine for Measles, Mumps, and German Measles (Rubella)
Attenuated virus
Show prokaryotic cell shape of
slide 9 lecture 2
secondary antibody response
antibody made on subsequent exposure to antigen, mostly of the IgG class
cytopathic effects
virus-induced damage to the cell that alters its microscopic appearance
lichens have minimal requirements for l..., a..., n...
light, air, nutrients
Heat Fixing
Heat will set protoplasm of the bacteria so the bacteria sticks to the slide, kills bacteria
patent T cell simulator producing an overwhelming response
super antigen
Human cytomegaloviruses (CMV)
Enveloped DNA▪ infection forms giant cells with nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions▪ latency: in white blood cellsubiquitous, prob for developing fetus, AIDS
how do you treat candidasis?
topical miconazole or clotrimazole
How is plaque formed?
dextran capsule produced, pellicle formation (film of protein from saliva that bacteria attach to), colonization (biofilm production)
Reverse DNA gyrase
-DNA topoisomerase produced by all hyperthermphiles-introduces positive supercoils into DNA-only happens above 80 degrees Celsius-indicating importance to DNA stability at high temperatures
herpes encephalitis
brain disease from herpes --> mental impairment, blindness, convulsions, possibly even death
Superoxide dismutase (SOD) enzyme converts
O2- to O2 and H2O2
What is anabolism?
-Anabolism is the set of metabolic pathways which construct molecules from smaller units. This requires energy.
How does malaria present?
1.  Fever of unknown origin
2.  episodes of high fever, shaking chills followed by periods of profuse swelling
3.  Anemia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly 
What's the vaccine for mumps called
M M & R
Ab-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity means what?
NK cells recognize Ig-coated cells through FcR's; Parasitic defense recognizes IgE coated parasites through FcR's
Denitrification of NO3-
-NO3- --> NO2- (NitrAte Reductase = Nar)-NO2- --> NO (NitrIte Reductase = NIR)-NO --> N2O (Nitric Oxide Reductase=NOR)-N20 --> N2(nitrous oxide reductase=N2or)-NO3- -> NO2- -> NO -> N2O -> N2
At which step do sulfonamides work in the PABA pathway?
1st step
HIV Life Cycle
1. Attach to host cell: THelper cell
spikes attach to CD4 receptor
2. release NA in cytoplasm
3. Reverse transcriptase makes 1 RNA and 1 DNA strand of viral, then makes 2 DNA strands
4. crosses into nucleus: viral DNA finds DNA ligase, cuts and inserts into chrom. (provirus)
Moves to a different chrom every time in each cell.
5. viral DNA --> viral RNA
6. Makes parts in cytoplasm
7. Assembles
8. Buds off host cell: has host cell membrane around it so immune system will recognize it as normal.
What are the adaptations? 

•Thermophiles = heat-loving

–Prefer 55-65 oC or higher

–Found in hot water lines, compost piles

Adaptations of thermophiles

•Protein structure stabilized by a variety of means

–e.g., more hydrogen bonds

–e.g., more prolines

–e.g., chaperones

•DNA stabilized by histone-like proteins

•Membrane stabilized by a variety of means

–e.g., more saturated, more branched and higher molecular weight lipids

–e.g., ether linkages (archaeal membranes)
enriched media
the use of selected culture media and incubation conditions to isolate microorganism from natural samples
unicellular algea comprise microbial population of p...
algea are classified into 6 d...
phytoplankton (generate most molecular oxygen available in atmosphere)
Hanging-Drop Technique Advantage
Less drifting and evaporation. True motility of organism can be observed.
Proviruses, unlike prophages
never excise themselves from the host DNA
How do you treat Listeria monocytogenes?
prevention (public health surveillance)
What is an indirect ELISA?
look for antibodies against bacteria
What is TSI agar?
Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar.
Prepared on slant - inoculated by streaking and then stabbing.
Contains glucose, lactose, sucrose, ferrous sulfate, phenol red and nutrient agar.
In what stage do you have potential to relapse?
convalescent stage
What is a Chemohetertroph?
-uses organic molecules for energy and carbon.-use organic compounds as a source of both carbon and energy-oxidize organic compounds to generate ATP-are ultimately dependent on autotrophs to procide their carbon and energy
What's the treatment for Polio
There is no treatment, it's supportive
How are knockouts generated?
Homologous regions "match up" and the intervening DNA is inserted from one section to another, disrupting the region where it has inserted (lack of homologous recombination = lack of knockout = no good for research)
How is Nitrogenase protected from O2?
Ans: O2 scavenging -Rhizobium-legume symbiosis-Leghemoglobin is protein similar to Hb, its found in legumes-produced by host plant-only present in N2 fixing tissue
What makes up iodine tincture?
iodine and alcohol at 1-2% concentration
volatile crystals!
Microbial Nutrition and Metabolism
Seeding of sterile media in the laboratory
How do you treat necrotizing facitis?
antibiotics (penicillin), scrub out the wound
What is hay fever?
aka allergic rhinitis - its localized anaphylaxis of the upper respiratory tract
Medium Power FOV = _____ μm
Medium Power = 2000 μm
What does C. trachmatis (L1-L3) cause and it's description?
1.  Lymphogranuloma Venereum
2.  Painless papules that lead to swelling & tenderness of lymph nodes
3.  Can lead to elephantiasis 
What are bacterial infections of the upper resp. tract?
tonsilitis, laryngitis, epiglottitis, sinusitis, pharyngitis, diptheria, otitis media
What happens during HDN?
During first pregnancy the fetus has no problems but transfers at birth and rupture or placenta Rh+ Ags into the Mother's blood.
The foreign Rh+ Ag stimulates production of specific Ag (IgG) that is a anti-Rh+.
During the second pregancy, Rh+ fetus recieves anti-Rh+ Abs across the placenta and starts hemolysis of RBCs in fetus.
Belirubin is released, gondace, and death can occur.
T/F: Viruses usually encode for metabolic genes
False, rarely encode for metabolic genes
Define the Pentose phosphate pathway:
-The Pentose phosphate pathway is a process that serves to generate NADPH and the synthesis of pentose(5-carbon) sugars.
-There are two distinct phases in this pathway: 
1) The first is the oxidative phase, in which NADPH is generated. 
2) The second is the non-oxidative phase, which synthesizes the pentose(5-carbon) sugars. 
-This apthway is an alternative to glycolysis; it's primary role is anabolic rather than catabolic.
Name the 3 types of polio in order
1.  Abortive Poliomyelities
2.  Nonparalytic Polio
3.  Paralytic Polio 
which mRNA contains exon 
marture mRNA is only one that contains exon regions becuase exons are coding regions meaning mRNA produces protein by coding this region; 
Classify fungus by their seuxal means of sporulation.
-Zygomycete: produce Zygospores (ex: Rhizopus; bread mold)
-Ascomycete: produce Ascospores (ex: Penicillium, Saccharomyces)
-Basidiomycete: produce Basidiospores (ex:mushrooms, Cryptococcus)
-Deuteromycete (anamorphs): asexual spores (ex: Stachybotrys, Pneumocystis, Reclassified using DNA technology
Virulence mechanisms of anthrax
1) Capsule - mimics self cells so immune system doesn't recognize.2) Spores3) Exotoxins -pa (protective antigens)-ef (edema factor)-lf (lethal factor)
What is cellulitis? boils?
somewhat on the surface (can see the pus through skin); deep, red, raised (can't see the pus it is so deep)
Mycorrhizae are m... a... between f... and v..p..
fungal cells supply plants with m..n..
plant supplies fungus with p... of p...
mutualistic associations between fungi and vascular plants
more nutrients
products of photosynthesis
Viral life cycle:using the enzyme reverse transcriptase
Retroviridae RNA viruses carrying s.s. (+) RNA HIV
How do you treat parasitic infections?
chemotherapies (not when CNS is involved) and eflornithine
How do you diagnose syphilis?
it cant be cultured, so non-triponemal screening test, antitreponemal confirmatory test
The speed of the enzyme is referred to as:
turnover rate/ conversion rate
What's the treatment in pregnancy for toxo?
Early pregancy use Spiramycin
Later in pregnay use Pyrimethamine
Use Sulfonamide if the fetus has toxo
Use sulfadiazine & folic acid for babies born w/ it 
3 general components of inflammatory reaction
Increase in blood supply, increase in vascular permeability, enhanced migration of leukos from circulation to tissues
CD8+ = Cytotoxic (Killer) T cells (TC or CTL)
▪ Antigen-specific – must “see” proper antigen signal on cell surface (MHC I complex)▪ Kill target cells: virus-infected host cells or cancer cells▪ Release perforins (punch holes in target membrane) and granzymes (attack target cell intracellular proteins)
How do you prevent newborn sepsis?
check pregnant women for group B (rectal and vaginal swab)
What does incompatible blood transfusion lead to? Why?
lysis of red blood cells; because your body makes antibodies against the opposite type of blood that you are cuz those are in the environment
WHat is the difference between the rash of measles and german measlse?
german measles rash bumps are finer
What are the symptoms of staphtococcal food poisoning?
nausea and vomiting (emetic toxin), diarrhea, chills
What are two different kinds of strips that test sterility?
temperature test strips and spore strips
How do you treat N. americanus
1.  Iron and folic acid for the anemia
2.  Mebendazole and  Albendazole
Nitrification is a low energy yield reaction. What is one mechanism nitrifiers use to overcome this problem and meet their energy needs?
they have membrane stacks that can contain large numbers of ETC's and thus maximize energy yield.
How is bubonic plague spread?
flea bites rat that has it and then human
common features of electron transport chains
the presence of a series of membrane associated electron carriers arranged in order of increasingly more positive E0'
an alternation in the chain of electron only and electron plus proton carriers
the generation of a proton motive force as a result of charge seperation across the membrane, acidicout and alkalinein
How do you diagnose tapeworms?
eggs or segments in stool (need to get the head out)
What are some optimal pHs in the human body?
in stomach-2 to 4in blood-approx. 7
Methods of Microbial Growth Control  
- Moist Heat -
Boiling 10 min kills vegetative cells Useful for sanitization
Will not kill bacterial spores


uses saturated steam under pressure to reach temps above boiling:
121oC at 15 lbs/in2 
will sterilize bacterial endospores killed in 10-12 min. Used to sterilize culture media, surgical instruments (Any items that can withstand heat)

What virus is capable of rapid genetic variation of outer antigens? What is the purpose of this?
hep C; evades immune system (since it's always changing it's hard for you to make antibodies against it)
Glucose + NAD+ --> CO2 + NADH. Which statment is correct?
NAD+ is being reduced to NADH
Can a male have OY?  (missing X chromosome)
Too many needed genes are on the X chromosome so “Y” cannot be missing
Epstein-Barr virus
incapacitating dysentery
What is yeast?
Shigella dysenteriae

gastrointestinal infection
incasion of interstinal cells w/ type III secretion system
exotoxins that inhibit protein synthesis

flat, colored lesion
insects (mosquitos) horizontal transmission
H. influenzae
gram ned rod
Microaerophiles are gram _
bacteria in the blood
Picornavirus(RNA, non-enveloped). Many URIs, gastroenteritis, hand food mouth disease.
In tertiary syphilis, granulomatous lesions from with a central necrotic mass surrounded by plasma cells, lymphocytes, and monocytes. These lesions are called _______.
gummas. 16-10
Are fungi prokaryotes or eukaryotes?
completely assembled virus particle ready for release
flies have mommies and daddies
Heat-resistant fungus that causes spoilage in acidic foods
What organism commonly causes UTIs?
unicellular, move rapidly through liquid responsible for red tides that occur in coastal waters of US and Canada in summer and early fall, reserve products are starches and oils, Algae
natural antibodies: tears, saliva, mucous membrane, etc.
eats off oil, opportunistic chemoorganotroph pathogen
Nocardia (epidemiology, pathological features it causes)
ubiquitous worldwide distribution
organisms acquired by:
cutaneous inoculation

infection can cause necrosis and abscess formation
most common cause of congenital infection...symptomatic infants may die or survive with neuro damage, asymptom infants may have hearing loss
Natural active?
had the disease, make antibodies
affect cell wall synthesis
mode of action: similiar to beta-lactams
Example: aztreonam
What dictates the complimentary arrangement of of DNA nitrogenous bases?
Pairing rule
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Acid fast. Respiratory droplet transmission. Survives for week in dried sputum. Chronic. Symptoms: fever, sweats, blood-streaked sputum, chronic cough, malaise and weight loss. **It takes multiple contacts to acquire it. Only one strain can be given in one shot (rare).
Chemical mutagens
Base-pair mutagen (nitrous acid), Base analogs, frameshift mutagen
A macromolecule found only in bacteria that provides rigidity to the cell wall
What endogenous factor blocks GBS ≤-hemolysin?
Membrane-bound sacks that are smaller than a cell.
complex life cycles, nonmotile, all cause infectious diseases, Protozoa
transfer of electrons or hydrogen atoms are one molecule to another -- lactic acid dehydrogenase -- oxidizes lactic acid to form pyruvic acid during fermentation
What is an Antigen-antibody reaction in which the harmful effects of a bacterial exotoxin or a virus are blocked by specific antibodies?
Prp protein
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, Mad cow disease, others.
dx of inhalation anthrax
chest X ray
widened mediastinum
relative sparing of lung tissue
can see even: mediastinum, pleural effusion

gram stain blood, blood culture on routine media or ELISA late
look for hemorrhagic meningitis
Which bacterium can obtain a pathogenicity island from a phage? Name the phage.
Vibrio cholerae
What is the causative agent of malaria?
bacteria nucleoid
condensed bacterial DNA. (30-50 loops of DNA)
define: Disinfection
eliminates most pathogens; used on inanimate objects
Phage Conversion
host cell may exhibit new propertiesProphage carries genesMany pathogens get toxins this way
toxic proteins that are secreted by living microbes
Foodborne and waterborne infections
Typhoid fever, Salmonellosis, Shigellosis, Cholera, Escherichia coli Diarrheas, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Grucellosis
True or false: a vaccine containing various N termini of M proteins may never be feasible for hear of causing autoimmune disease
Toxoid is...?
inactivated toxin used in a vaccine
how to cells resist antibiotics
destroy antibiotic
modify antibiotic
modify target
pump out the anitbiotic
what is an effective treatment for CDD?
broad-spectrum antimicrobial
an antimicrobial that is effective against a WIDE range of microogranisms often including both gram pos and neg bacteria
Stock Culture
A culture of a microorganism maintained solely to keep it viable for subculture into fresh medium
Carbon sources
Autotrophs- CO2 sole or principal biosynthetic carbon source
Sir Alexander Fleming- discovered penicillin by accident therefore saving his own life during a bout of pneuomonia.
What are Microorganisms?
What is A particle which infects organisms and causes their cells to die
Herpes simplex 2
(DNA, enveloped). Genitial lesions/vesicles.
What is the causative agent of anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
What proportion of untreated people who are infected with HIV will progress to AIDS and death?
Close to 100%.30-3
clean technique; goal is to exclude all pathogens
medical asepsis
How many chromosomes in a bacteria?
One circular chromosome
Does a GP cell wall have two layers?
Change in base pair leads to a different codon = different AA
water hyacinth lagoon (example in class at Epcot center)
tertiary waste treatment
Name some nosoccomia multi-drug resistant gram positive cocci
Vancomycin resistant enterococci (VRE)oxacillin resistant S. auereus (ORSA)vancomycin resistant S. aureus (VRSA)
Plant cells
Used to produce plants with new properties
60 to 80% isopropyl or evil alcohol rapidly kill vegetative bacteria and fungievaporates fast
What sets Burkholderia mallei apart from Pseudomonas?
it is non-motile
Bacillus cereus:

-gram stain?
-difference from B. anthracis?
gram + rods (boxcar). Catalase +

Beta hemolytic, Motile
Breaks the bilayer and makes the outer membrane of cell weak
Burst size
amount of new virus (100 per cell)
the substance that is catalyzed by the enzyme
What do aminoglycosides do?
Inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria
What bacteria can conjugate to plant cells?
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Formalin can inactivate...
Toxoid vaccines (subunit vaccines) (it basically creates them from a toxin).
1) bacteria and other pathogens enter wound2) platelets from blood release blood clotting proteins at wound site3) mast cells release factors that mediate vasodilation and vascular constriction. delivery of blood, plasma, and cells to injured area increa
the inflammatory response
What family does Rabies virus belong to: a. Rhabdoviridaeb. Flaviviridaec. Caliciviridaed. Poxviridae
a. Rhabdoviridae 17-5, 11-7
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What is the causative agent of primary atypical pneumonia?
Empty Magnification
Increases the size of the image but the resolution isn't changed, no new information about the picture can be seen
first to describe the cells as the "units of life" by observing tree bark and plants with magnifying lenses
Robert Hooke
What are some ways to diagnose CDAD?
Endoscopy (pseudomembranous colitis)
Anaerobic culture
Cell culture cytotoxin test
EIA toxin test
PCR toxin gene detection
what is an enzyme?
a protein molecule that assists reactions by acting as catalysts.
What are streptokinases and Hyaluronidase?
Invasive Group A Strep Infections--damage other enzymes
What is the common environmental habitat of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
plant pathogen (also nosocomial)
What 2 organisms from dog bites?
1. Pastuerella multocida
2. Capnocytophyga canimorsus
What is the name of the beef tapeworm?
Taenia saginata
Concept of species:
Related organisms that ca n freely breed, share a common gene pool. New species appear when some members of an existing species change or become geographically isolated (so they can no longer breed with the rest of the group) Does not apply to prokaryotes because they are asexual.
What is graves disease?
A cytotoxic autoimmune disease where antibodies attach to receptors on teh thyroid gland that are teh normal target cells of teh thyroid-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary gland
What is the terminator's stem made of?
complemntary base pairing
What substance are you testing if you are testing for the antibody?
the patient's serum
For the following pathogen, name the immune cell that it infects and destroys: HSV-2
Dorsal root ganglion neurons35-2
DNA polymerase 1
removes primers and fills in the gaps during replication
FtsZ in cell division
o FtsZ is a GTPase (homolog of tubulin) that forms a Z-ring at the cells centero This Z-ring constricts as division progresseso FtsZ ‘recruits’ a number of other proteins that are needed to coordinate membrane biogenesis, peptidoglycan rearrangements and ultimately cell separation (e.g. PBP3)o These proteins together are known as a ‘divisome’
Route of s. pneumoniae infection
1) spread by aerosols2) colonizes nasopharynx3) infection often follows lowered host defens (classic 2ry infection arfter viral URI)4) Inhaled into lung/enters auditory tube5)avoids phagocytosis6) in lung, triggers response that damages lung (complement activation, fluid accumulation, etc)7) may enter blood, cross BBB and cause meningitis
Who made the development of the 3-D model of the structure of DNA?
Watson and Crick.
what is ethanolic fermentation used to make?
food (yeast, wine, etc...)
what is a possible cause of meningitis in adults?
Streptococcus pneumoniae

possible cause of otitis media and sinusitis in children
Escherichia coli has an ETC that gives
2 ATP for every NADH
1 ATP for every FADH2

What is the maximum yield of ATP from glucose in aerobic respiration?
EMP Pathway of Glycolysis:
Substrate-level phosphorylation (ATP) - 2 ATP
Oxidative phosphorylation with 2 NADH - 4 ATP

2 Pyruvate to 2 Acetyl-CoA:
Oxidative phosphorylation with 2 NADH - 4 ATP

Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle:
Substrate-level phosphorylation (GTP) - 2 ATP
Oxidative phosphorylation with 6 NADH - 12 ATP
Oxidative phosphorylation with 2 FADH2 - 2 ATP

dry heat
air acts as an insulator so a larger exposure time and higher temp as needed
What must the DNA polymerase bind to to begin DNA synthesis?
an RNA primer
Causes of health care associated outbreaks and pseudooutbreaks in the rapid mycobact.
health care outbreaks: surgical wound infections, prosthetic joints, prosthetic valves, lens implants, LASIK, central catheters
pseudo outbreaks
usually due to water contamination (showers, ice machines, bronchoscopes, lab samples)
How long must a tick feed on a human to transfer Borrelia organisms?
>48 hours 17-12
What is a Primary infection?
Acute infection caused by an initial illness
Main disease caused by Samonella subspecies 1 are? (3)
1) Typhoid fever (S. typhi)2) Paratyphoid fever (S. paratyphi A and B)3) Gasteroenteritis (S. typhimurium)
How do we diagnose H. pylori infection?
1. endoscopy and test antral biopsy for urease activity
1. look for IgG antibodies
2. urea breath test
Describe the termite-protozoan mutualistic relationship.
A protozoan lives in the gut of termites. The termite ingests cellulose and lignin, which it cannot digest; the protozoan digests them and releases acetate (fermentation) which the termite lives off of.
Where is exotoxin A (P. aeruginosa) encoded?
chromosomally encoded, under control of las R
granuloma forming ifns

(idiotic mnemonic)
(Fran Likes My Pal Bruce And His Blasted Cockerspaniel (in) Blessed SLC)

T. (P)allidium
(L)ymphogranuloma venrum
(C)at scratch fever
What is a technique by which small samples of DNA can be quickly amplified for analysis?
PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
What type of tests are RIA and ELISA tests?
Immunoassays, extremely sensitive testing that permits rapid and accurate measurement of trace antigens or antibodies
Which of the following is NOT an enterotoxin producer?
a. E coli
b. Shigella
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium perfringens
c. Clostridium bolulinum
Botulin toxin is a neurotoxin
HEPA - High Efficiency Particulate Air
Machine used in hospitals to filter out bacteria and viruses depending on the filter used, especially for patients in isolation unit.
What was Anton van Leeuwenhoek observation?
He used a microscope to observe living microbes. He also believed in spontaneous generation.
Why are CF patients susceptible to respiratory tract infections by P. aeruginosa?
blocking Abs made against the alginate, ciliary clearance is inhibited, CF cells lack the receptor and do not engulf Pseudomonas
what type of parasites spend at least some of their lifecycle in or on a host?
obligate parasites

e.g. protozoa that cause malaria invade RBC's
Why are Baciullus subtilis more readily used in genetic modification?
they secrete protein products that are needed
Is there a vaccine for N. meningitidis?
Yes. It is effective in reducing carriage for serotypes A, C, Y and W135. However, there is no capsular vaccine for serotype B (problem for infants).
What can travel across the cell membrane without help from a protein transporter?
Small uncharged molecules, such as O2 and CO2 easily permeate the membrane by diffusion.Water can diffuse across the membrane through osmosisWeak acids and weak bases can also diffuse across the membrane and change the pH of the cell.
How is the virulence of staph aureus controlled?
1. with accessory gene regulation (Agr)
-quorum sensing stimulates agr to make RNAIII that regulates the txn of virulence genes
-upregulate toxins
-downregulate surface proteins
What are two good E. coli toxins?
Labile Toxin (LT) and Stable Toxin (ST)
What are the 4 types of chemical mutagens?
nitrous acid, alkylating agents, base analogs, and intercalating agents
why is good hand-washing imp with RSV?
can last for 24 h on contaminated surfaces
Methods for microbial control
1. phenol 2. alcohol 3. halogen 4. oxidizing agent 5. surfactants 6. heavy metals 7. aldehydes 8. gaseous agents 9. antimicrobic
What are the steps to making cheese?
1. Curdling - Lactic bacteria is added to milk. The milk separates into a solid and liquid. 2. Draining - Whey drains, curd contracts. 3. Moulding - Shapes the cheese. 4. Salting - added to control microbial growth. 5. Maturing - Where fermentation happens. 6. Packaging - preserves the quality of the cheese.
i) Transition = A mutation in which a
DNA level
purine is replaced by another purine or a pyrimidine is replaced by another pyrimidine
What does a + mean in bergeys and what does a - mean
90% or more of the test react=+90% or more dont react= -
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