Terms Definitions
single flagellum
Avian Flu
-chemolithoptrophic-strong acidophile-not a thermophile, optimally grows at 35 degrees celsius-lives off of the oxidation of iron in the environment
Diacylated lipopeptides
Food Borne Illness
Common Sense
Animal/Plant control
Scanning Electron Microscope
Extreme Thermophiles
Heat lovers
viruses in blood
Motility of PMN's
Very high
Ferredoxin is very electropositive
Symptoms: extensive diarrhea, rice-water stools, sudden loss of fluid and electrolytes causes shock, collapse, and often death.
1. nonhalophile
2. halotolerant
3. halophile
4. extreme halophile
Endosymbiont Theory
-Mitochondria were bacteria-chloroplasts were cyanobacteria-bacteria internalized into larger cells and lived together
avirulent/ virulent
not strong/ strong
liquid of cheese fermentation
Staphylococci  gram +
produce extracellular enzyme
faculative anaerobe
Termite Gut (genius name)
Trichomal protozoa
Knoblike structure downstream of chemotaxins
flies have mommies and daddies
transported substances move in opposite directions
Organic Mercurials (mercurochrome)
used on skin
denatures enzymes 
mammalian viruses capable of initiating tomors
compound light microscope
two magnifying lenses
nutrophil, eosinophil, and macrophage that extract info from foreign matter
Enveloped, ssRNA, + sense, nonsegmented1. Rubella virus (German measles)▪ MMR vaccine; STORCH2. WEE, EEE (equine encephalitis viruses)3. St. Louis encephalitis virus [arbovirus]
What is tinea cruris?
jock itch
protis that moves usin flagella
antibiotic produced by Lactococcus lactis; inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
Pseudomonas and Micrococcus are: A) faculatative anaerobes B) obligate aerobes
Rubella virus
RNA virus that doesnt mutate
milder than rubeola, often undetected
TORCH in first trimester
spread by resp droplets
MMR vaccine
traumatic agent damages spore coat (low pH or heat)
What stimulates TNFalpha?
LPS/TLR4/CD14, enhanced by IFNgamma
removes H2S from rice rhizosphere- ain't that nice, for the rice?
special epithelial cells in thymus that provide signals for T cell development
endosymbiotic theory

origin of Eukaryotic cells is due to engulfment of bacteria by ancestral eukaryote; these bacteria became dependent on the host eukaryote and evolved into mitochondria and chloroplasts
M protein
Streptococcus pyogenes produces a protein that, anchored in the cell wall and cell membrane, allows bacterial cells to adhere to teh pharyngeal tissue. This protein is called:
Luis Pasteur
Proved biogenesis of microorganisms with swan neck flasks
in an immunological context, the quantity of antibody present in a solution
Hydrogen Bond
(Attracted Forces). A hydrogen covalent bond is very attracted to oxygen or nitrogen. The positively charged hydrogen in the covalent bond attracts negatively charged atoms near by, mostly attracted to Oxygen.
Sticks to each other and surfaces
depends on other viruses for replication
Enteric Gamma Proteobacteria
-facultative anaerobic rods-aerobic rods-found in stomach-e. coli
How is C. trachomatis (L1-L3) contracted?
organisms that depend on oxidation reduction reactions of inorganic or organic compounds for energy
control of microorganisms by limiting their growth but not killing them
cements bacteria together to form plaque
What is a viruses protein coat called?
process allowing microbes to attach to host cells; requires interactions between the microbe and the host cell that are highly specific; may be mediated by fimbriae, surface proteins, or the glycocalyx
Are AI- 2 Gram-Postive, negative, or both?
enrichment medium
contains special nutrients that allow growth of particular organisms that might not otherwise be present in sufficient numbersdoes not suppress growth of others
E-selectin expression
Inducible in endo. cells, peak expression within 4 hours
What regions have B cell epitopes?
Flexible regions
WHo discovered the first first antibiotic? penecillin
Alexander Flemming
completed test
coliform+ from green lactose bile broth is streaked on Levine's EMB or LES Endo agar. this is to isolate and characterize individual bacteria
Give an example of an injectable aminoglycocides
non-ionizing radiation
-low energy particles with long wavelengths-not very penetrating: blocked by water, paper, glass-EX. UV light, damages DNA of cells
Enrichment (selective) media
No source of nitrogen
selects for nitrogen fixers 
Prokaryotic cell sizes
Nanobacteria less than 0.2um
E coli 2um
Epulopiscium fishelsoni size of hypen

Thimargarita namibiensis head of fruit fly 750um
Smallest bacteria about the size of largest virus
a molecule capable of eliciting an immune response
This type of reservoir is impossible to eliminate
Antiviral chemical for Herpes simplex type I
Acylovir (zovirax)
Long tubes that go through cell envelope (found in G- bacteria). Allow for conjugation.
recall the first encounter with an antigen and respond to subsequent encounters
lymph nodes contain high concentrations of __ and __
lymphocytes and phagocytes
mycobacterium tuberculosis
lung infection via tubercles (central core of bacteria surrounded lymphocytes), TB test by PPD injection
what is a bacteriophage?
virus that infects bacteria
How do you diagnose hep A?
indirect ELISA
The use of recombinant DNA technology in the treatment of genetic diseases is currently only theoretical
Spread Plate method
Liquid bacterial sample is spread evenly over the surface using “hockey stick”
Describe phenolics
-Phenolics cause damage to the cell membrane as their main mode of action
-Triclosan is widely used butthere are many resistances
What is transcription?
the synthesis of a complementary strand of messenger RNA from a DNA template
How is feedback inhibition different from other types of noncompetitive inhibitions?
it is reversible
synthetic medium
medium prepared in lab from materials of precise or reasonable well-defined composition
Reg T cell effector function
Suppression of immune response
Describe epdiermodysplasia veruciformis
wart leading to malignant conversion due to exposure to the sun
any rise beyond what is expected for frequency within a population
Discuss which spectrum cephalothin has
what it affects
and one fact about it
Narrow spectrum
affects G+: staphylococcus and streptococcus
chemo prophylactic
pan genome
complete gene repertoire of a taxon; all of the different genes found in all the strains of a given species; all the genes transferred in by HGT
capabale of growth over a wide range of T
Counting chambers as measurement of bacteria growth
“determination of microbial number through direct counting”  
- easy, inexpensive, and quick
-useful for counting both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
- cannot distinguish living from dead cells
anoxic secondary wastewater treatment
digestive and fermentative reactions carried out by microorganisms under anoxic conditions to treat wastewater containing high levels of insoluble organic materials
During food and water transmission of disease,  Salmonella and E.Coli occur during what stage
Food Processing
method of s.... r.. n.. i
group includes many p...
sexual reproduction not identified
Chromatin body
Long, circular strand. Contains all minimal instructions for survival.
pathogens that cause disease when the host's defenses are compromised or with they grow in part of the body that is not natural to them. Ex: candida and psudemonas
oppurtunistic pathogens
α (alpha) hemolysis
incomplete (hemoglobin turns media greenish)
plant virus's have mostly what type of nucleic acid?
What is urease's role?
neutralizes acid to allow helicobacteri pylori to live and survive in low pH of stomach
the autoclave
a sealed heating device that allows the entrance of steam un pressure generally 10-15 minutes
burst time
time from attachment to release of virus from host cell
The phase in which cells lyse and die
Death phase
Describe an Obligate anaerobe!
-cannot used O2 for energyyielding reactions, most killed by O2 presence-if inoculated into a tube will all be at the bottom
What's the symptoms of Chagas disease?
Primary lesion
1.  Erythematous plaque surrounded by hard edema
2.  Chagoma on site of bite
Acute state
1.  Fever, chills, malaise, restlessness
This is the only arbo virus transmitted by tick
Coloraldo tick virus
What stimulates IFN-1 family?
Viral NA that bind receptors/sensors and stimulate IRF transcription factors
three domains of life
bacteria, archaea, eukarya. The first two are all single celled.
Unique features of outer membrane of gram negative bacteria
Braun's lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides (LPSs), and porins
Growth Curve
Stationary Phase
cells metabolically active but do no divide
no increase in cell numbers
depletion of essential nutrients
essential gasses (limited to top layer)
accumulation of metabolic waste 
What are symptoms of endocarditis?
fatigue, malaise (general discomfort), headache, night sweats, splinter hemorrhages
negative selection
in T cell selection, T cells that interact with self antigens in the thymus are deleted.
What induces symptoms of the hypersensitivity response?
release of inflammatory mediators
Streptococcus thermophilus does what to milk
Bring pH down to 5.5
A(-) strand is synthesized form...
the (+)strand by the RDRP
How do you treat bacterial meningitis?
antibiotics (also for family)
What is the normal flora of the periodontal pocket?
most gram-positive
Robert Koch
first to prove that bacteria can cause disease. isolated Bacillus anthracis from blood of cows with anthrax, injected healthy cattle, recovered bacteria from their blood after death. developed a sequence of experimental steps for linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease called Koch's Postulates
Cryptic virus
If a prophage is not able to excise from bacterial genome and is maintained permenantly
Describe Hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic
hypertonic- water moves out of cellhypotonic- water moves into cellisotonic -no net movement of water
Name 4 Nucleoside Analog inhibitors of Reverse transcriptase
AZT, ddl, ddC, D4T
How many VDJ segments does delta have?
10V, 3D, 4J, 1C
ETS proper order
NADH, Quinones, cyt BC, cyt C, cyt AA3, O2
brief metabolic purpose/physiological purpose of lipogenesis
build up fatty acids from acetyl-SCoA molecules
Isolation of Microorganisms
Slant culture
roughly 10mL of agar, slanted on tube
"deep" does not apply here even though it is a test tube culture
what is the treatment for group A strep?
quarantine and antibiotics
when o.. is insufficient, k... c... comes to a halt and yeast cells begin to f...
yeast change p... a.. into c..d.. and e..a..
oxygen, krebs cycle, fermentation
pyruvic acid, carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol
Low Power FOV = _____ μm
Low Power = 5000 μm
What is the characteristic symptom of 5ths disease?
butterfly rash on face
What is the gram stain of strep pneumo?
gram positive diplococci
What is degranulization?
Pollens (foreign Ag) bind to IgE on the basophils, mast cells or eosinphil and lysis, and release granules causing anaphylaxis.
What parts of the bacterial cell are used for adherence?
fimbrae, capsules, and spikes
describe Acids and Bases
Acids - dissociate into whater into H+ ions and anions(Negative)Base- dissociate into Oh- ions and cations (Cats have paws so its Paws-itive)pH = concentration of H= ions in a colution ( pH 7 = neutral and less than 7 is acidid. More than 7 is basic)
What are the symptoms of Filovirus
1.  Hemorrhagic fever
2.  Bleed from every orifice 
What type of nucleotides does TdT add?
N nucleotides (template independent) (at the same time, exonucleases can cut away nt's)
(Using diagram 3) all eukaryotes except for plants rely on organic carbon compounds to use for their energy needs. Plants use the sun's energy to convert CO2 to organic carbon compounds, which can be used by other eukaryotes. Bassed on this information
-chemolithotrophs use the reduced inorganic compounds abundant in these environmetns as enrgy sources; these organisms can also convert CO2 to organic carbon which then serves as food for the eukaryotes.
Microbial Nutrition and Metabolism
A solution that contains, at the very least, those nutrients required for the growth of a microbe
What is pseudomonas dermatitis?
rash from swimming pool or hot tub (pseudomonas aeruginoas like it hot and dont mind chlorine)
metabolism: all c... c.. occurring in a microbe during g... and d...
biosynthesis reactions, aka a....
digestive reactions, aka c...
chemical changes, growth and development
biosythesis: anabolism
digestive: catabolism
What's the treatment for lyme diesase?
Doxycycline and for later stagesc ceftriaxone
pH and microbial growth
-low (acid) and high (base) pH can denature enzymes-cultured bacteria in labs produce acid that interferes with growth= need for buffers in growth medium
Protein Folding and Thermostability
-it is the folding of they protein itself that most affects its heat resistance-subtle changes in amino acid sequence are often sufficient to affect a significant change in folding in a portion of a molecule that renders heat stable an otherwise heat-labile protein
whats a lytic virus do?
get in, takes over, get out by lyse
What's the host for H. nana?
No host, repliactes and matures in humans
protein encoding genes in Euka often split to ____ by _____
exons ( coding regions)  introns (non-coding regions)
What are the bad effects of phenols as a disinfectant?

Very caustic
Not reliably sporicidal
Not effective against hepatitis B
Accumulates in the environment
How do you diagnose sepsis and endocarditis?
inoculation of blood culture bottles (sepecepmia uses 1 or 2 sets, endocarditis uses 3-4 sets)
What is DiGeorges Syndrome?
where a human doesnt have a thymus so there is a severe defects in the number of mature T cells (don't have T cell mediated responses)
How do you prevent warts?
none (dont feel a need because they dont cause cancer)
How do you diagnose endemic dysentery?
culture stool, serotype, test for O antigen (in cell wall), antibiogram
What is the point of DNA chips?
allows the screening of humdreds of bacteria or genes at a time
What are the symptoms of Hep A virus
1.  Acute onset of fever
2.  Rash
3.  Ab. Pain
4.  Loss of appettite
5.  Jaundance 
Name the 4 ways of dosing

topically - on skin
oral - blood and organs
IM - intramuscular
IV - intravenous (most optimal therapy)
What are the virulence factors of scalded skin syndrome?
exfolative toxin A and B (destruction of intracellular connective tissue, skin peels off in sheets)
What is the function of the spleen?
collect cells and fluid from the blood
What are the symptoms of urethritis due to coliforms?
painful urination and burning (due to inflammation), cloudy/pink urine due to blood or WBC
When does the mump virus shed?
1 to 2 days prior to onset of symptoms
What it the gram stain for pseudomonas aeruginoas?
aerobic gram negative rod found in soil or water
How do you diagnose staphtococcal food poisoning?
hard to get a diagnosis, stool culture (salt tolerant, mannitol fermentor, catalase +, coagulase +)agglintination test to detect staph enterotoxin
What does it mean for proteins to have redundant functions?
many of the proteins have similar function to achieve the same results
How is E. coli able to achieve a 20 minute replication time, even though it takes 40 minutes to replicate its chromosome?
E. coli daughter cells inherit DNA that is already undergoing the replication process.
fungal infections
kills viruses
hermetically sealed flasks
high pressure
denatures proteins
Enveloped or naked Poxvirus.
process of endospore formation
target - cell membrane
pulmonary anthrax
inhalation of spores
chemically wastable molecules extensive lethal cellular damage (cause oxydation; electrons)
Cytomegalovirus Infection
CMV (pharyngitis)
Largest human herpes virus (Herpesviridae)
Acquired most from bodily secretions  and blood
Persistant and latent infections --> remains latent in neutrophils, T-cells, monocytes
Often asymptomatic but can spread to lymphoid tissue (agranulocytes in spleen, lymph nodes), then salivary glands, kidneys, reproductive organs
Dangerous to babies (mental retardation, congenital abnormalities), immune impaired
complications of untreated GAS infections referred to as
Actinomycetes; AKA: largest group, 20-60% of all bacteria, produces geosin (causes dirt to smell like "dirt")
Eubacteria Domain
Unicellular prokaryotes with peptidoglycan cell walls
inactive form of a toxin
Single-celled Prokaryotes with no nucleus-- multiply by binary fission-- rigid cell walls-- DO NOT HAVE PETIDOGLYCAN-- ability to grow in extreme environments: extreme hot/cold, presence of large amounts of salt
name the facultative intracellular fungi
Undulating membrane, transmitted by vectors
What does Bordetella cause?
Whooping cough
Cryptococcus neoformans
Name the fungi:
-heavily encapsulated yeast
-not dimorphic
-found in soil, pigeon droppings
-culture on Sabouraud's agar
-stains w/ India ink
-Latex agglutination test detects polysaccharide capsular antigen
-"soap bubble" lesions in brain
Contact with non-visually contaminated skin of a patient could transfer this GNR that colonizes patients skin, and colonize our hands for about 15 minutes.
K. pneumoniae
DNA Repair
-Mismatch Repair:mispaired base cut out of strand -Thymidine dimers:induced by UV-Damaged bases:excised by specific enzymes-Recombinational repair:occurs just after strand has replicated, undamages strand is copied and replaces damaged one-SOS repair:extensive DNA damage inactivates LexA, activation of many repair genes, rapid polmerization of DNA
Chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydias, Intracellular; AKA: STD, infantile conjunctivitis
Genetically different cells within a clone
What contains a cell's genome?
The chromosome
GAS extracellular products
(S. pyogenes)1) Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spe A, B, C): causes red rash of scarlet fever. Causes STSS rash/fever/shock symtomes; involved in necrotizing fasciitis. Spe is a SUPERANTIGEN (nonspecifically stimulates T cells). Spe A and C are on lysogenic phage.2) Streptolysin: responsible for RBC lysis. Streptolysin S not involved in virulence. Streptolysin O lyses cells including cardiac cells; may contribute to rheumatic fever3) hydrolytic enzymes: -ases that damage tissue and cause inflammation.
What is one studying in virology?
make RNA from DNARequire promoterSigma factor binds to promoterRNA polymerase makes new RNA strand
pathogenic bacteria belong to the nutritional type known as;
a. photoheterotrophs
b. chemoheterotrophs
c. chemoautotrophs
d. photoautotrophs
aka lipoglycans, are large molecules consisting of a lipid and a polysaccharide joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
enrichment media
encourages growth of desired microbe
Alpha hemolyticNormal bowel flora - grow well in bile or NaCLCommon infecting agents in UTIs, biliary tract infections, bacteremia, and SBECommon nosocomial infection sourcesResistant to most drugs used for Gram +
Non specific lines of Defense
Chapter 15
Echinococcus granulosus
Name the helminth/worm:
-Eggs in dog feces when ingested can cause cysts in liver
-causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal Antigens are released from cysts (surgeons inject ethanol before removing)
Tx = -bendazoles
What 2 agents are used to HCV?
level of precautions used for influenza, meningitis, pneumonia, pharyngeal diphtheria, acute viral in infants and young child, 5th disease
droplet precautions
inoculating from an original pure culture into new medium (broth or plate)
Define Subculture.
Which is longer lasting, active or passive?
scarring of the cornealeading cause of blindness in the worldspread by hands, fomites, birth canals, flieslong-term abrasion by scars, turned in eyelashes
Optimum growth temperature
usually reflects the environmental niche of the organism, where the dominant forces of evolution have pushed the efficiency of the organism
in the 1976 convention, 182 contracted this disease - 29 died - you know who did it, they didn't
Virulence factors of samonella
1) facultative intracellular pathogens: ability to livev inside macrophage is ESSENTIAL for virulence2) Smoothe (complete) LPS also NECESSARY for virulence3) Flagella (H antigen) synthesis also has role in intracellular survival. On/off switch regulated by DNA rearrangement. Switching off may help evade immune responses4) May also be able to turn off other genes in coordinate fashion
what is DNA?
Deoxyribonucleic acid; a double strand nucleic acid. double helix. contains the nucleotides thymine, adenine, cytosine and guanine.
The process of delaying spoilage of foods or other perishable products-- inhibiting the growth of microorganisms
Is P. aeruginosa common in healthy individuals?
bacteria that can absorb light energy and convert it into ATP are commonly called.
a. cytochromes
b. lysosomes
c. chemotrophs
d. phototrophs
d. A and C
Cannot grow in the presence of oxygen
regular gram positive rods
obligate or facultative anaerobes;complex nutritional requirements vagina, yogurt, pickles, Bacteria
technique for separation of nucleic acid molecules by passing an electric current through a gel made of agarose or polyacrylamide
gene fusion
What are Flesh-eating bacteria that attack solid tissue?
Necrotizing fascitis
What "allows" the transciption of the structural genes in the lac operon?
What are antibiotics?
Antibiotics are compounds, usually of low molecular weight and produced by microorganisms, that inhibit or kill other microorganisms
secretion of immunoglobulins occurs only after antigenic stimulation of membrane-anchored immunoglobulins on the surface of the B-celldifferentiation occurs in the germinal centers of lymph nodes, spleen, or MALT (tonsils, Peyer's patches)this requires an
mechanism of humoral immunity
The 2 most important anti-phagocytic factors for Group A strep.
M proteinHyaluronic capsule
What is the causative agent of German Measles (Rubella)?
Carl Zeiss
built microscopes that had lenses that corrected for chromatic and spherical abberation and provided good images at up to 1000x magnification
Eukaryotic Endoplasmic Reticulum
Flattened sacks known as 'cisternae' whose function is lipid synthesis. Consists of the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER, many ribosomes) and the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER, no ribosomes)
A segment of DNA that encodes a functional product, usually a protein
Hepatitis B
Second major type of hepatitis known as serum hepatitis
What is the pathogen that causes Anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
What is nodular cystic acne?
Deep scarring infectionsIsotretinoin treatment(acutane)
Missense point mutation
change in a single amino acid
what are some characteristics of Enterococcus faecalis?
gram-positive chains
catalase negative
gamma hemolysis
Describe tetracycline
inhibits protein synthesis at the 30S subunit
Plaque assay
A widely used approach for determining the quantity of infectious virus
Actions of microbial control agents
-Alternation of membrane permeability-Damage to proteins-Damage to nucleic acids
a collection of bacteria in a culture
Communicable Agent
What is A soil bacteria that fixes nitrogen from the atmosphere?
Which step in PCR does primers anneal to complementary sequence of target DNA and DNA synthesis occurs with heat stable DNA polymerase?
Are penicillins effective against staph infections? Why?
No – they produce penicillinase
The infectious form of Chlamydiae is called _____________, while the form that is capable of producing more organisms is called ______________.
Elementary body is infectious
Reticulate body is replicative
One way to remember is Elementery is Extracellular. And the extracellular must be the infectious form because it gets around. Reticulate is Replicative and intracellular.
Name the two forms of Chlamydiae bacteria in their life cycle.
Reticulate bodiesElementary bodies2-11
facultative anaerobe
prefers no air but can grow with oxygen
What can an endospore survive?
dehydration, heat, chemicals, improper canning(toxins=>food poisoning), etc.
(2) main point of Enterohemorrhagic.
-4th leading cause of diarrhea-Hemolytic uremic syndrome -> kidney failure in old and young-H7
Other staphylococcus characteristics
Hardy: can survive hi saltcan survive at 65 deg CCan survive on inanimate objests
Where can you find algae?
water, soil and on plants.
Dry heat
Not as efficient as wet heat and killing microorganisms-- requires longer times and higher temperatures-- incineration, dry heat oven
what is the 1 known type of cilophora?
balantidium coli
Describe Reverse mutation
A second mutation that makes the mutant appear to be a wild-type organism again
Gases used in chemical control?
Ethylene Oxide, Chlorine Dioxide, crosslinks proteins, kills spores
Teaching Prevention of Infection
-Daily bathing and personal hygiene- Immunization- Healthy lifestyle- Avoid sharing personal care items- Cook foods thoroughly- Avoid crowds and public places during flu outbreaks- Use disposable tissues rather than cloth for secretions- Use of soap and disinfectants such as bleach and alcohol
What is the prefered cell culture for viruses?
Embyoted eggs
2 type II topoisomerases
DNA gyrase (causes negative super coiling) and topo IV (causes decatenation...separating the two rings that are the original and duplicated circular bacterial chromosomes).
What determines the severity of the nosocomial infection from the patient perspective (not from the microbe property perspective)
severity of underlying disease
invasive medical interventions
What are the MSCRAMMs of Staph?
Microbial Surface Component Reacting with Adherence Matrix Molecules.Protein AClumping factors (fibrinogen)Collagen Binding ProteinsFibronectin binding proteinsPlasma-sensitive protein (nasal epithelial cells)
caused by N. meningitidis, gram neg aerobic capsule*begins as throat infection, rash10% ppl are healthy carriers
Neisseria Meningitis (Meningococcal Meningitis)
light, fluorescent1. Background2. Resolution3. Magnitude4. Microbes
1. dark2. 0.2µm3. 2000x4. bright and fluorescing
Describe the bacterial chromosome
Single circular strand of DNA1 per cellContained in nucleoid due to a lack of a nuclear membrane NOT associated with histone proteins
Name 3 types of infections strep viridans causes
1. Dental infections
2. endocarditis
3. abscesses
What the high weight characters of bacteria
Gram stain #1shapearangementoxigen requirementspore productionfirmation test
What does the coagulase test do?
tests whether bacteria coagulate plasma around them; put the bacteria into rabbit plasma and see if it forms a clot
Swarming on agar. Which organism?

2 species. what are they and what sugar will tell them apart?
Swarming on agar. Which organism?
P. vulgaris (indole +)
P. mirabilis (indole -)
Bread molds & peach mold
Zygomycota - true fungus (chiten, hyphae, etc), sexual reproduction = two hyphae fuse form a zygospore which gives off new spores
What are endo toxins?
Poisonous substances made of Lipid A of the polysaccharide layer that are released into the host when the bacteria dies
Enrichment culture
Allows one type of cell to grow better than others, and so organism is enriched
For the following anti-viral, name its drug class, and viruses for which it is indicated: cidofovir?
Nucleoside analogue. Indicated for resistant CMV.13-2
normal flora varies in response to life - these factors:
age, size, activities, environment, hormones in body
What type of bacteria is a lysozyme most effective against? (GN/GP)
GP:it hydrolyzed peptide bonds
What are emerging infectious diseases?
disease that are new or changing, increasing in incidence or shoing a potential to increase in the near future.
What are the 3 mechanisms of genetic exchange between bacteria?
1. phage-mediated transfer (transduction)
2. conjugation
3. transformation
What structure on Gram+ bacteria causes them to stain the way they do?
thick PDG cell wall inhibits decolorization
what are some diseases in which men contract from Mastigophora- trichomonas vaginalis
occasional urethritis, prostatitis, and other urinary tract problems
Toxin description: C. botulinum
(exo) blocks release of Ach; cuases anti-cholinergic symptoms, CNS paralysis, esp cranial nerves; spores found in canned food, honey (causes floppy baby)
Periplasmic space is found on what types of bacteria?
Gram negative.(its where degradative enzymes are)
Name the four steps of the gram stain procedure.
Stain (Crystal violet)Mordant (Iodine)Decolorize (Ethanol or Acetone)Counterstain (Safranin)2-7
humans have high resistance to fungal infections - T or Fwhat lowers resistance?
TRUEdefects in cell mediated immunity, those on steroid therapy, immunosuppressed
What are the important features of TSS?
Caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Gram + cocci arranged in clusters
Facultative anaerobe
Capsule and slime layer
Initiated with the localized growth of toxin-producing strains of S. aureus in the vagina or a wound, followed by release of toxin into blood.
Fever, hypotension, diffuse macular erythematous rash
Multiple organs affected
High mortality without prompt anibiotic therapy and elimination of focus of infection.
what is a synthesis reaction?
chemical reaction in which 2 or more atoms combine to form a new, larger molecule.
When does serum not kill Neisseria meningitidis?
production of IgA blocking Ab, sialylation of LOS which decreases binding of MBL and prevents complement activation
how does it work? Acids
Lowers the pH, most bacteria are neutaphiles, vineger, benzoic acid: acne
What are the two ways that newly synthesized enveloped viruses can exit the cell?
Budding through the plasma membrane. Fusion of secretory vesicles containing the virions with the plasma membrane. 11-10
If you are a traveller and have about 8 loose stools a day accompanied by fever and/or bloody stools, what should you do?
Take antibiotics and ORS.CC 6-4
What are the 7 challenges of pathogens?
1. maintain reservoir2. gain access to new host3.adhere to body surface4. invade deeper tissue5. establish infection and invade host defenses6. multiplying in host tissue7. exit host
Describe the mutualistic association of the rumen.
This occurs in the rumen of cows and some other animals; The ruminants ingest complex carbs which mix in the rumen with a complex microbial community. Bacterial fermentation occurs resulting in short-chain fatty acids, CO2, CH4, and vitamins, which the host utilizes.
q. Are Eucarya single or multicellular?
a. they can be either single or multicellular.
Which of the following is FALSE about Salmonella?
a. It exists intracellularly in the endosome
b. It enters the epithelium through M cells and enterocytes
c. It primarily invades through the colon epithelium
d. Its invasion genes are encoded in a chro
c. It primarily invades through the colon epithelium
Salmonella invades through the ileum.
Shigella invade through the colon.
Rheumatic fever: relevance to s. pyogenes
This may be a sequelae of s. pyogenes infection1) can occur 1-4 wks after resolution of untreated strep throat2) Autimmune reaction to epitopes shared by s. pyogenes and eart tissue. Damage llikely due to autoreactive T cell attack o fheart cells.3) the shared epitope likely in the M protein of S. pyogenes4) SLO (STREPTOLYSIN O), secreted by s. pyogenes, may also cause direct damage to heart via lysis5) Fever may leed to inflammation/subsequent scarring of heart valves leading to lifelong endocarditis or heart failure risk
i) Silent mutation =
At the protein level
i) Silent mutation = The resulting triplet codes for the same amino acid
- AAA (Lysine) → AAG (Lysine)
What can be a sort of imunity to malaria?
Heterozygous or people who have sickle cell anemia
Where in the body would an organism that is otherwise susceptible to penicillin be unaffected by IV penicillin?
CSF because it does not cross the BBB. And kidney because the osmotic pressure is high.4-11
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