Microbiology final exam part Flashcards

Terms Definitions
pro-, photo-
fluconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole
MOA: inhibit fungal sterol (ergosterol) synthesis
Use:  systemic mycosis.  Fluconazole for cryptooccal meningitis in AIDS patients b/c can cross blood-brain barrier and candidial infections.  Clotrimazole and miconazole for topical fungal infections.
Tox:  hormone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia).  Liver dysfunction b/c inhibits cytochrome P-450
Brucella Suis
Swine--destructive abscesses
macrolides drug is
Gram -
Lactose fermenting
Indole +
E. Coli
flagella on each end
Sheep shearer’s disease
Oxygen-producing, free-floating masses found in the worlds saline waters; the basis for the marine food chain.
Gram staining reagents
-crystal violet
Block nucleotide synthesis
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
Streptococci that are ____hemolytic are most commonly associated with human disease.
Bacterial inclusions
reserve deposits in cells
produce cytokines that activate macrophages, stimulate production of antibodies that promote phagocytosis & enhance complement; activates eosinophils.
Enteropathogenic E. Coli1) associated with infant diarrhea2) adhere tightly to epithelial cells3) destroy brush border microvilli but no overt invasion like with Shigella
Streptococcus pyogenes
rheumatic fever, necrotizing fascilitis, afimbrial adhesins (M proteins), toxins, enzymes M proteins induce autoimmunity (rheumatic fever)
Are all cutaneous mycosis pathogenic?
green flourescent protein; marker protein
Entamoeba histolytica.
Protozoa. Gastroenteritis, liver abscess.
MOA:  Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds to the pyrophophate-binding site of the enzyme.  Does not require activation by viral kinase. 
Use:  CMV retinitis in immunocompromised pts, when ganciclovir fails, acyclovir-resistant HSV.
Tox: Nephrotoxicity
Mech of Resist:  Mutated DNA polymerase
virulence factor - some pathogens excrete this to enable them to evade host defense mechanisms, invade or cause damage to body tissues
Facilitated Diffusion
Permease required (transport protein), no energy required, goes down concentration gradient
The destrcution of the vegetative pathogens (all the bacteria except endospores) using a disinfecting agent
Higher concentration of solute vs. water.
No ETS, Na-ATPase, Na extruding decarboxylase, heterotroph - What's this about Dr. Mitchell?
Describe S. pneumoniae
-gram positive cocci
-alpha hemolytic
-optochin sensitive (bile salt sensitive)
-lancet-shaped diplocci
-no animal reservoir
-autolytic (can destroy itself)
-capsule most impt virulence factor
-penicillin sensitive
How frequently agent is transmitted to susceptible person
Provides ATP and metabolic intermediatesThree pathways: glycolysis, krebs cycle and electron transportGlucose - most common substrate up to 38 molecules of ATP
Glycolytic Pathway
bacillus anthracis causes what disease in humans?
non-protein component(s) needed by an enzyme to be functional; some cofactors are metal ions, others are coenzymes
Koch’s Postulates:
1.Causative micro-organism must be present in every case of disease, but absent from healthy organisms2.Suspected micro-organism must be isolated & grown in pure culture3.Cultured micro-organism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy host4.Same micro-organism must be isolated again from diseased host
poisonous waste produced by some bacteria
Are DNA strands complementary or different from each other?
HaEMOPhilus influenzae
Name the bacteria:
Causes "cherry red" epiglottitis in kids, meningitis, otitis, media, & penumonia
-aerosol transmission
-most invasive disease from capsular type B
-produces IgA protease
-culture on chocolate agar requires factors V & X
Tx meningitis = ceftriaxone, prophylaxis = rifampin
What are the 6 common respiratory viruses?
AdenovirusInfluenzaParainfluenzaRhinovirusHuman metapneumovirusCoronavirus20-4
objective changes that can be observed or measured
What causes chlamydia often a co-disease with gonorrhea. 
chlamydia trachomatis
What types of organisms fall under Archeae?
Staphylococcus strains (3 types)
S. aureus (coagulase +)
S. epidermidis (coagulase -)
S. saprophyticus (coagulase -)
Describe nonproteobacteria
Gram negativeNot closely related to gram - proteobacteriaInclude cyanobacteria
they are ubiquitous (they are found everywhere)
Nutrients: Essential Elements.
Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulfur, Hydrogen, Phosphorus.Used in compounds...Oxidized to create ATP, Reduced to build cellular structures.
What does Spirochete mean?
Flexible with spiral shape
The use of living organisms to degrade environmental pollutants
What Bacteroides species is bile resistant?
B. fragilis
name the organism:
G- enteric
grows at 42C
MOT: fecal oral

responsible for 5-14% of worldwide diarrhea
2.1-2.4 million USA cases/year

natural hosts: wild birds and ducks

disease: traveler's diarrhea and waterborne illness, enterocolitis
campylobacter jejuni
What are protein particles with no nucleic acid, no envelope, and no capsid called?
Ziehl-Neelson Acid-Fast Stain Ingredients
Carbolfucshin, Acid-Fast decolorizer, Methylene Blue,
stationary phase
-occurs when microorganisms begin to use up the nutrients in the media-the accumulation of metabolic wastes are beginning to affect bacterial growth-the phase of the bacterial growth where # of new cells = # of dying cells
What vaccine is used for mumps?
Attenuated virus
Do plasmids have an origin of replication?
Clinical Meningitis
-description (with labs) -organism -Treatment 
Inflammation of membranes surrounding brain and spinal cord
Description: Meningismus (stiff neck) as demonstrated by Brudzinski's sign (flexion of neck produces flexion of hips), Kernig sign (pain on knee extension when hip is flexed), opisthotonos (arched back)--> all stretch meninges.
Also: fever, altered mental status, photophobia, vomiting due to increased ICP. Young and old likely to have atypical presentation. Host cytokines (TNFa and IL-1 exacerbate symptoms. Risk of death: 20%. Triad: fever, stiff neck, altered mental status
-Bacterial: ↑WBC (PMNs), ↑ protein, ↓↓glucose
-Viral: ↑WBC (lymphs), ↑protein, normal glucose
-TB/Fungi: ↑WBC (lymphs), ↑protein, ↓glucose
-S. pneumo, most common overall, high frequency in young and old
-N. meningitidis: older children and young adults overwhelming sepsis
-L. monocytogenes: Newborns, T-cell deficient, food borne, old people
-GBS (Streptococcus agalactiae): common cause of neonatal meningitis 1st week of life, assoc w/infection from genital tract of mother
-H Influenzae:formerly common in kids but eradicated w/Hib vaccine
-S aureus: Neurosurgery or endocarditis
GNB: rare except newborns or post neurosurg. salmonella bacterermia in newborns
Viral: Enterovirus, HSV-2, HIV, mumps
Granulomatous: TB, Crypto, coccidiomycosis
Syphilis, lyme Dz, 
noninfections: ibuprophen, casinomatous, vasculitis
Treament: Ceftriaxone. Prophylaxis for N. meningitidis and H. influenzae for household contacts (Rifampin)
Where in the respiratory tract will infection more likely lead to bacteremia?a. Pharynxb. Tracheac. Alveolid. Nasal passage
c. Alveoli20-4
Name 5 bacteria that produce hemolysins.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Listeria monocytogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Uropathogenic E coli
Clostridium perfringens
fever producing erythrogenic toxin produces
symptoms of scarlet fever
The term used to define bacteria that are prokaryotic single-celled organisms of primitive origin that have unusual anatomy, physiology, and genetics and live in harsh habitats.
Borrelia spp
causes relapsing fever: high fever, jaundice, rose-colored skin spots; macular rashspirocete, doesn't gram stain, microaerophilicvector: soft tickmain reservoir: micetransovarian transmission - pathogen is in the tick eggs; a female pregnant tick will pass the pathogen to the host through the egg3 or 4 relapses may occur, each shorter and less severe. why? the body develops memory cells and specific antibodies, however the pathogen evades some phagocytosis by immune cells and changes cell surface antigens
Second line of defense
Phagocytes, such as neutrophils, eosinophils, dendritic cells and macrophagesInflammationFeverAntimicrobial substances
ability to bind and take up exogenous naked DNA. DNA is fragmented during uptake. results in transformation
Define invasins.
=proteins that act locally in invasion of host cell
-bind beta-1 integrins on cell surface
What types of virus would be most likely to pack a transcriptase in the capsid?
no antigen is producedturning on and off
Antigenic Variation
what is any living organism that can carry disease-causing microbe from one host to another host
The organelle of motility present in many bacteria.
Proteinaceous Flagella
the protoplasm of a cell excluding the nucleus; is full of proteins that control cell metabolism
antibicrobial peptides
broad spectum abt from plants & animals
a protein required for listeria to use host actin to spread form cell to cell without becoming extracellular
Treponema pallidum
Gram: N/A
Shape: very thin spirals
Location: genital tract
Disease: syphillus
What are the characteristics of Algae
single celled microorganisms-eukaryotic-photosynthetic
HIV related infections: PML (clinical features, dx, causative agent)
clinical features
rapidly progressive focal neurological deficits, most commonly hemiparesis, visual field defects, cognitive impairments

causative agent- polyomavirus (JC virus)
dx- CSF JC virus PCR, MRI
What is used to treat vancomycin resistant Enterococci?
Linezolid and daptomycin22-4
Name the gram reaction and morphology of Clostridium botulinum
Gram positive rod
bacteria can't ___ in air, but can be transported via airborne particles to warm nutrient site for growth
Antibodies introduced into a host is what type of immunity?
Artificially acquired: Passive
Function of the Plasma Membrane
Selective permeability and degredative enzymes that degrade nutrients. Also protects prokaryote by stopping certain antibodies from entering.
Cell Membrane (plasma membrane)

nboundary layer of cell, located inside cell wall


  1)  transport of nutrients in, waste out 2)  energy production

ndissolving of lipid bilayer leads to cell death

qdetergents, ethanol, and certain antibiotics
Y. pestis pathogenesis
1) Bacilli injected into host by fleas2) most ingested by PMNs and killed3) bugs ingested by MONOCYTES will SURVIVE.4) Fraction 1 + bugs resist lysis and are released from monocytes5) bug dissiminates6) causes pneumonia and DIC (disseminated intraascular coagulation)7) the hemorrhagic changes in the skin (DIC, hypoxia, cyanosis) give name "black death)
what is a lipid?
a non-water soluble organic molecule, including triglycerides, phospholipids and sterols
160 degrees Celsius - two hours - kills sporessterilization of glasswaredisad: high temp, chars organic materials
Moist Heat
what hymolysis group would you find Enterococcus faecalis and E. faecium?
a. group A
b. group B
c. group C
d. group D
d. group D
ETEC toxin mech
ADP ribosylation of Gs leads to elevated cAMP and subsequent secretion
Q: How do protozoa feed?
A: Via phagocytosis or pinocytosis.
infectious dose 50
number of pathogens that will infect 50% of an experimental group of hosts
What type of bacteria is salmonella species? How does it get energy? How do you obtain it? What are its virulence factors? What is the clinical manifestation?
Gram negative enterobacteriaceae
Facultative anaerobe
Turtles, chicken, uncooked eggs
Flagella, capsule, siderophore
Paratyphoid fever, gastroenteritis, sepsis, osteromyelitis
What were the scientific contributions of JENNER, METCHNIKOFF, EHRLICH, FLEMING, McCLINTOCK AND VENTER.
Immunology(vaccination for cowpox); Immunology discovered (cell eating) phagocytes; Father of chemotherapy; Discovered

How do complement proteins enhance: cytolysis?
Activated proteins bind to pathogens and poke holes in membranes
Gram Negative Bacteria Cell Wall
Formed of peptidoglycan and outer membrane
What are the virulence factors for Clostridium difficile?
Enterotoxin (toxin A)
Cytotoxin (toxin B)
Adhesin factor
Spore formation
What are 3 types of storage granules and what do they store?
1. Poly-beta-hydoxybutyrate
-stores lipids
2. Glycogen or starch
-store sugars
3. polymetaphosphate
-store phosphate
coliform test in which a minimum of 100ml water sample flows through a sterile membrane filter which removes the bacteria. the filter is then placed on the surface of a plate of EMB culture medium, which is selective for coliforms.
MF. membrane filter
What is the leading cause of pneumonia, septicemia, and meningitis in newborns?
group B strep (GBS)
Beta hemolysis of organisms such as Strep. pyogenes and S. agalactiae are ________ (color) and ________ hemolysis.
lightened/transparent and complete hemolysis
When do sequelae occur?
after the initial infection has run its course
What book Classifies bacteria based upon criteria such as cell wall composition, morphology, differential staining, oxygen requirements, and biochemical tests?
Bergeys Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
What family of viruses cause SARS?
Coronaviridae (ss +, enveloped RNA viruses)
Name the 4(5) major mechanisms of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
Enzymes that destroy antibioticTarget modificationChange membrane permeability to antibioticEfflux pump expels antibiotic(Biofilm formation)7-2
Naegleria fowleri & Acanthamoeba
What is the causative agent of ameobic brain infection?
how do fungi obtain their nutrition?
all are heterotrophs, most are sabrobes, some are parasites, and few are obligate parasites (they can release enzymes into the enviroment to breakdown certain organic material that the cells can then absorb and utilize as nutrients)
Diseases E. coli can cause OTHER than gastroenteritis
1) bacteremia2) UTI3) meningitis
what is an isotope?
form of a chemical element where the number of neutrons in the nucleus is different from the other forms of that element
What organism causes Pneumonic plague?
Y. pestis, mainly from transfer via respiratory route; Sx include HA, weakness, cough, pneumonia and rapid cyanosis
name the species (2 species)
that are:
facultative anaerobic
non-lactose fermenter

found in human colon
MOT: fecal-oral transmission

causes enterocolitis (dystentery)
Shigella species: (S. dysenteriae, S. sonnei)
Acute post-strep GN pathophysiology
Occurs ~ 1 week following throat OR skin strep infection.Only a few stains can cause itAg-Ab complexes travel to and deposit in glomerular BMLeads to glomerular destruction
T/F. Only unenveloped viruses enter the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis.
F. Both enveloped and unenveloped can enter this way.11-9
Ugh, I don't want hepatitis! I'll get every vaccine available. Doing so will protect me against which types of Hepatitis?
A, B, and D.
(Syllabus: 19-3)
What are the signs and symptoms of sepsis?
fever and decreased blood pressure
In regards to vehicle transmission, what is foodborne transmission?
normally the result of foods being undercooked, poorly stored/refrigerated or handled in unsanitary ways.
When a gene reverts to its original base it is?
A back Mutation, DNA polymerase
What are some good exotoxins made by Pseudomonas?
Pyocins (bacteriocins), exotoxin A (inhibits protein synthesis), exotoxin S (modifies GTP-binding proteins, stimulates inflammatory cytokines)
criteria for a useful medium
1) must supply all the physical and chemical requirements for microbial growth2) able to be sterilized (without breakdown)3) able to be incubated
What are some contraindications to PPD testing?
previous + reactions, history of BCG vaccine
What is the best way to administer time dependent antibiotics?
Continuous infusion or multiple daily doses. This may optimize the time above the MIC.CC 2-4
What is the disease mechanism for typhoid fever?
1) bug ingested2) proliferates in GI tract3) penetrates and crosses epithelium4) taken up by macrophages, where they multiply and are taken to mesenteric lymph nodes5) enter blood and are filtered by mononuclear phagocyte sytem (aka RES - reticuloendothelial system)6) continued growthh in these cells7) after 1-2 weeks incubation in phages, emerge and invade bloodstream, causing clinical illness8) usual course untreated: 4-6 weeks
What are the major diseases caused by C. trachomatis?
trachoma is leading cause of preventable blindness, main vector is common house fly; clinical course is chronic follicular conjuctivitis of childhood that progresses to conjunctival scarring, in-turned eyelashes may occur and constant rubbing can cause abrasions of the cornea; also cause STDs: persistent and recurrent genital infections that lead to scarring
What virulent effect does LPS have on its host?
host recognizes lipid A--tries to destroy infection by cooking it with higher and higher body temp (fever)--if host overreacts-brain damage, cardiovascular shock, and hemorrhaging can occur
Name 4 (of the 8) components of an effective strategy for preventing nosocomial infections.
Hand hygiene before and after contactIsolation for patients with transmissible diseaseCleaning of hospital roomsAdequate cleaning of equipmentPerioperative antibioticsRational antibiotic useScreen blood supplyVaccinate healthcare workers22-622-5
What are some of the key differences in virulence factors between N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis?
1. N. gon no capsule
2. Surface proteins that block Abs
-N. g: block IgG
-N. m: block IgA
3. Adherence surface proteins
-N. g has opa protein
4. LOS has different effects
Q: What is the definitive host of Cryptosporidium parvum?
A: A range of domestic animals including dogs, pigs, and cattle.
what type of dyes are used to view bacteria and why?
basic dyes because bacteria have a negative surface charge.ex: Crystal violet, Saffranin, Methylene blue
How does Protein A of S. aureus affect our immune system?
-protein A has binding sites that can bind the Fc portion of IgG
-can protect S. aureus from opsonization and phagocytosis
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