Microbiology Review Flashcards

Terms Definitions
etiology
cause
sacchar-, saccharo-
sugar
phase variation
generates heterogeneity
Diptheria
toxemia, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
interferons drug is
alpha-interferon
Genus that is:
Gram positive
Bacillus
Spore-forming
Aerobic
Bacillus
flagella surrounding the body
peritrichous
Tularemia
Also called rabbit fever.
name the microaerophilic bacteria
Campylobacter

Helicobacter
phagocytosis
-process of "cell eating"
Vancomycin
Vancomycin
MOA: Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding D-ala D-ala portion of cell wall precursors.  Bactericidal.  Resistance occurs with amino acid change of D-ala D-ala to D-ala  D-lac
Use:  serious gram positive multidrug resistant organisms including S. aureus, S. epidermidis, and Clostridium difficile.
Toxicity:   Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Thromboplebitis, diffuse flushing ("red man syndrome"  prevent by pretreatment with antihistamines and slow infusion rate)  Well-tolerated in general.
recombination
-entering DNA replaces chromosomal DNA(if sequence is overall very similar)-used to repair damaged DNA
Fats(lipids)
-structure


simple: fatty acids plus triglyceride
complex: can have other elements (P and N)
has polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic) parts
Toxin
Substance that contributes to pathogenicity.
Cure rate for MTB therapy?
85%
Viral Life Cycle
attachment, entry/uncoating, replications, make coat proteins, assemble capsids and package genome, release progeny
What microogranisms derive their energy from sunlight which tranform light rays into chemical energy and are primary producers of oxygen?
Photoautotrophs
nitrogen
-synthesis of proteins (amino acids)-synthesis of nucleotides (DNA, RNA, ATP) (CHONPS)-14% of the cell
Trichomonas vaginalis
Protozoa. Vaginal/urethral discharge.
Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, Famciclovir
MOA:  Guanosine analog. Monophosphorylated by HSV/VZV thymidine kinase.  Triphosphate formed by host cellular enzymes.  Preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase by chain termination.  
Use:  HSV, VZV, EBV. Most effective for HSV and VZV then EBV and CMV.  Used for HSV induced mucocutaneous and genital lesions as well as encephalitis.  Prophylaxis in immunocompromised pts.  Herpes zoster use famciclovir.
Resistance:  lack of thymidine kinase 
complex process where microorg reproduces inside arthropod; human infected when bitten
biological transmission
Confocal Microscopy
confocal laser scanning microscopy, both excitation light and emitted light are focused together-can visualize cells in 3 dimensions-allows observation of live microbes in real time
Anton von Leeewnhoek


1684
improved on the microscope


Diffusion
Facilitated Diffusion
Osmosis
Name the 3 passive processes.
size of typical viroid
hecto(1000) base pairs
True or false: plasmid carrying antibiotic resistance can spread to different bacterial populations via conjgation
true
long thin cellular appendage capable of ratation in prokaryotic cells and responsible for swimming motility
flagellum
Heat - high temperatureradiation - chemical changesfiltration - physical removal
Heat
the mysterious complication of Guillan-berret syndrome causes progressive paralysis from the feet up. what organism causes this?
campylobacter jejuni
Enzyme
A protein catalyst that facilitates specific chemical or metabolic reactions necessary for cell growth and reproduction
T/F: Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.
true
ex) wound, bite, tears, cut
Infection Control
What control mechanism inhibits gene expression and decreases the synthesis of enzymes?
Repressor
Helicobacter pylori
Name the bacteria:
causes gastritis & up to 90% of duodenal ulcers. Risk factor for peptic ulcer, gastric adenocarcinoma, and lymphoma
-gram-neg rod, urease positive, creates alkaline environment
-treat w/ triple therapy:
1. metronidazole + bismuth (Pepto-Bismol) + either tetracycline or amoxicillin OR
2. metronidazole + omeprazole + clarithromycin
What antigen is commonly expressed on patients cells that acquire Reiter's syndrome?
HLA-B27 16-8
group of signs and symptoms that accompany particular disease
syndrome
Who identified the cause of Anthrax?
Robert Koch
toxic forms of oxygen:
1.singlet oxygen (photosynthesis)2. superoxide radicals (aerobic and anaerobic resp)3. peroxides (superoxide dismutase)4. hydroxides (ionizing radiation or incomplete reduction of hydrogen peroxide)
 
 
 
What is a Mesosome?
Intracellular component in cytosol
invagination of cytoplasmic membrane
attached to nucleoid
Associated with division septa
Mutation
A permanent inheritable change in the genetic material; mutations may be neutral, beneficial or harmful
Scomboid Food Poisoning
Histamine substance produced by PROTEUS--fish such as tuna. Cause headache, cramps, hives, shock that lasts 24 hours. Caused by DYNOGLAGELLATES
What is chemistry?
the science of atomic interactions
Do prokaryotes or eukaryotes have DNA that is found in the cell's nucleus?
Eukaryotes
common warts- which papilloma type?
2 & 4
What is the structure of Enterobacteriaceae?
Gram- rods
name the org:
G+
NON-spore forming rods
aerobic
club-shaped arranged in V or L

found in throat
MOC: respiratory droplet

causes diptheria
Corynebacterium dipheriae
What organism must obtain its carbon in an organic form?
Heterotroph
Fomite
inanimate object from which a microbe may be contracted
agar
-a carbohydrate found in red sea weeds*no microorganism can break down agar*it melts at 100*C/212*F*incubation is 37*C*hardens at 45*C (warm but still melted agar won't kill heat-sensitive microorganisms)
What is used To identify microorganisms in clinical specimens and can detect the presence of a specific antibody in serum?
Fluorescent-antibody techniques
What helps map where restriction enzymes might be cutting?
Gel electrophoresis
Toxic shock syndrome-description-organism-Treatment
Erythroderma: deep red, total body sunburn with palm/sole flaking in 1-2 weeks, fever, vomiting, myalgias, progress to hypotension, shock confusionOrganism: S aureus TSST toxinTreatment: IV fluids
Name the gram positive rod that produces an exogenous heat-labile neurotoxin.
Clostridium botulinum
 
15-5
Does immunity follow Group A strep? is there vaccine?
NONO
What was the first vaccine? What was it for? Who discovered it?
a)cowpoxb)Smallpoxc)Jenner
plague
pandemic occurrences of ( ) have been directly responsible for more human deaths than any other infectious disease except for tuberculosis and malaria.
These cells will now produce another protein called
antiviral protein.
Mx pathway
proyteins are GTPases that inhibit RNA polymerase activity
Describe Staphylococcus epidermis
-normal bacterial flora found widely on body
-gram positive cocci
-catalase positive
-coagulase negative
-Novobiocin sensitive
-Glycerol in teichoic acid
-Slime is its virulence factor
-one of 3 pathogenic forms of staph
-facultative anaerobe
Disease
An abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally
Lambda Lysogenic
as soon as dna injected into cytoplasmPRE is active - promotes transcription of RNAencoded on rna is c1 protein (binding protein)c1 binds to pl and pr - shuts them off - no transcription or lysisc1 activates prm - short message in high amounts
what is known as an association in which one organism, the parasite derives benefit at the expense of the other organism, the host
parasitism
All the covering layers of a bacterium, including the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall.
Cell Envelope
Mixture
a substance consisting of two or more substances mixed together (not in fixed proportions and not with chemical bonding)
mechanism of antibiotic resistance
- enzymatic destruction of drug-prevention of penetration of drug-alteration of drug's target site-rapid ejection of the drug
pathogenic potential
ability to form toxins or induce immune pathology
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Gram: n/a
Shape: rods
Location: respiratory tract
Disease: tuberculosis
Misc: contains waxy lipids
Type I topoisomerase
Unwinds negative supercoils (needs ADP because this is an energy releasing process)
infections of neutropenic hosts: septicemia/bacteremia clinical approach
high mortality
outcome correlate to neutrophil count and control of underlying disease
fever may be only symptom
consider fungemia in pts already on antibacterials
What two events usually occur during colonization of a host?
Adherence to tissueMultiplication21-2
orgs commonly indicated in nosocomial infections
staph aureus, E. coli...
Name the two types of adaptive immunity
Humoral and cellular
Thermal Death Point
The temperature at which all bacteria are killed within 10 minutes
Development of Immune System Specificity


Development of Immune System Specificity

nImmune System:


qseries of cells, factors, and processes that provide a specific adaptive response to Ag


qspecificity is dependent on lymphocytes


nT-lymphocytes  cellular immunity


nB-lymphocytes  humoral immunity
General transimsision route of enteric pathogens
Fecal-oral. Often thru contaminated food or water; also person-person, animal-person
Bioremidiation of oil sills
Enhanced by adding fertilizer w/ nitrogen and phosphorus
How transposons work:
insert transposon into a genecauses a mutation by interrupting the gene's codon reading frame
what is the most common habitat for salmonella typhi?
a. Skin
b. Colon
c. Vagina
d. Throat
b. Colon
name the E. Coli strain associated with a capsule
K1 (meningeal strain)
Transient Organisms
Organisms that can be picked up by hosts
endotoxins
-part of the outer cell wall of Gram- bacteria
-liberated when bacteria die or divide and the cell wall breaks down
What are systematics?
the study of the evolutionary history of organisms
German botanist Matthias Schleiden
formulated the cell theory, which states that cells are the fundamental units of life and carry out all the basic functions of living things.
For the following anti-viral, name its drug class, and viruses for which it is indicated: pleconaril?
Class??? Indicated for enterovirus.13-3
How are viruses cultivated?
A host is required which makes culturing more difficult
Fructose 6 Phosphate in Anabolic reactions
UDPNA (Uridine Diphosphate Nacetyl Acid) synthesizes severl subunits using UTP to produce peptidoglycan (Bacteria)
 
What are the virulence factors of Clostridium botulinum?
Spore formation
Botulinum toxin (prevents release of Acetylcholine)
Binary toxin
All of the following are found in the periplasmic space of gram negative bacteria EXCEPT:
1.penicillin binding proteins
2. membrane derived oligosaccharide
3. Beta lactamases
4. petidoglycan
5. lipid A
lipid A
Endotoxin is...?
Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteriaThey are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell wall breaks apart
What is the important phase for antibiotics to be used against Bordetella pertussis?
during the catarrhal phase
name the organism that presents with these diseases:
strep throat
necrotizing fascitis
scarlet fever
rheumatic fever
impetigo
ersipelas
cellulitis
glomerulonephritis
otitis media
sinusitis
TSS
Group A Strep. pyogenes
What kind of toxin is LPS(lipopolysaccharide)? In what kind of bacteria do you find LPS?
Lipopolysaccharide is an endotoxin found in the gram-negative bacterial lipid A
What are fusobacteria?
Pointed bacteria that are found in the gingival crevice of the gums
Hematogenous Osteomyelitis of the Adult
Body Region: In adults this most often affects the spine.Most common isolates: S. aureus and coagulase negative StaphylococciSigns and Symptoms: Insidious pain and tenderness in the spine (90%); Fever(50%); Motor and sensory deficits (15%)
Name the 2 cephalosporins that have activity against pseudomonas and their generation.
Ceftazidime (3rd gen)Cefepime (4th gen)4-16
how are fungal infections detected in lab?
fungal culture, fungal stains/India Ink
what are the differences between cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes?
cestodes and trematodes are flatworms, while nematodes are round worms. all cestodes are hermaphodites, while no nematodes are hermaphodites, and trematodes can be either or.
MTB infection of a healthy individual (versus HIV)
1) PRIMARY TUBERCULOSIS: iusually self limiting and undiagnosed. Infection goes to lower lung.2) 10% go on to get CLINICAL/SECONDARY/REACTIVATION tuberculosis within 2+ years. HIV patients have a 10% YEARLY risk.
what is ane exchange reaction?
a chemical reaction that has both synthesis and decomposition components
What is an adhesin?
any of a group of macromolecules on the exterior cell envelope of bacteria that is involved in adherence
the test to distinguish between staphylococcus epidermidis and staph. aureus is what test??
coagulase test.
staph epi is coagulase -
staph aureus is coagulase +
Living plant or animal may be single celled or many celled. Bacteria and viruses are 2 most familiar types of microorganisms.
-Microorganisms are living entities.-An organism only visible under a microscope referred to as germs.-Exist in the air, soil, and water on everything and everyone.
What are virus envelopes made of?
lipids (or at least they are lipid-containing). Also have proteins
What are the 2 symptoms associated with cystitis?
Dysuria (burning or stinging on passing urine)Increased frequency of passing of urineCC 3-3
Which organ or cell is not a part of the lymphatic system?
red blood cells
What is a contagious disease?
a disease that is EASILY spread from one host to another
What is the reason for Inflammation
Swelling & fever increase blood flow to infected area,where it fights infection temp increase also hurts antigen's
How do you treat Strep. pneumoniae?
used to be uniformly PCN sensitive; now you have to test
How does Rheumatic fever cause heart disease?
Antibody-mediated. Heart has antigens similar to strep, which causes an immunological attack on heart tissue.Pts complain of chest pain and may develop arrhythmias or heart failure.Mitral valve most often damaged.
Which organs may be affected by TB?
Majority of cases (85%) are pulmonary but can occur in any organ of the body
What are 3 things that you can do to avoid mosquito bites?
Use DEET repellantProtective clothingPermethrin impregnated bednettingCC 6-2
What does virulence of enteroinvasive enteric pathogens depend on?
Ability to penetrate and grow in host cells (though they CAN survive outside)
What is the treatment of choice for S. pyogenes?
penicillin, also clindamycin and erythromycin; clindamycin cuts down protein synthesis/toxin production; finally, IV Ig as adjunctive therapy
-translation of mRNA begins at the start codon: AUG
-translation ends at a STOP codon: UAA, UAG, UGA
What type of regimen is this: Atazanavir, Ritonavir, Lamivudine, Zidovudine?
PI-based regimen. Contains 2 PI, and 2 NRTIs.Slide 34
Name some features found in all steptococci
1. gram positive cocci that grow in chains or pairs
-cell division in single plane resulting in chains
2. unable to synthesize heme
-no etc; ferment glucose to lactic acid ALWAYS
-catalase negative
3. auxotrophic
4. grouped by hemolysis on blood agar plates
Q: There are four forms of Plasmodium we discussed. What are they?
A: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae.
Describe the pH scale that measures the Acid / Base balance.
<7 = acidic 7 = neutral - pure water(# protons = # base molecule)>7 = basic
What is the first test you would do on Gram+ catalase+ cocci?
coagulase test (S. aureus is coagulase positive, other Staph is not)
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Term:
Definition:
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