Pharmacology test Flashcards

Terms Definitions
Streptococcus DOC
Nitro Stat
catecholamines are_____________________
Vaproic acid
local anaestegesics
Endocrine (Androgens)17α-alkylated derivativeMOA: Anabolic - increase in overall body growth, muscle mass, and red blood cell production. Androgenic - growth of the larynx and skeleton, development of facial hair, darkening of the skinMET: Alkylated Oral preparation; More hepatotoxicSE: Behavioral effects - excessive rage or hostility; Increased LDL/HDL ratio; Stunted growth due to premature closure of the epiphyseal plates; Women - hirsutism, depression of menss, acne, and clitoral enlargement; Males - decreased spermatogenesis, gynecomastia, acne, testicular atrophy, prostatic hypertrophyTX: Replacement therapy in male hypogonadism. Growth in pre-pubertal boys
AntiinfectiveTetracyclineExotics, tick dzs
Local anesthetics
pg 313
Bupropion, imepenem/cilastatin -->
tx cn toxicyt
Antimuscarinics for ophthalmology

shorter duration than atropine (a few hours or less); cause cycloplegia and mydriasis
Triptan contraindication
CV disease
ct1 - nitrosureases
Enterococcus DOC
-Penicillin w/ aminoglycoside
1st successful volatile anesthetic
nonflammable, halogenated alkane
pleasant on inspiration
ADR: may trigger malignant hyperthermia, 20% metabolized, which leads to halothane hepatitis, tachyarrhythmia due to histamine release
not used in adults
Behavioral PharmAnti-Anxiety - Benzodiazepine "Xanax"
gentamicin (Garamycin)
Aminoglycosides Gentamicin (Garamycin) is a broad-spectrum aminoglycoside usually used to treat serious urinary, respiratory, nervous system, or GI infections.
first synthetic local anesthetic
relatively slow onset and short duration
side effects of colchicine
Drugs ending with:
ACE inhibitor

effective against CMV; requires bioactivation via thymidine kinase.

myelosuppression, nephrotoxicity
Gi inhibits ______
Adenylate Cyclase
nasal rhinocort, pulmicort inh
betaloc (white), lopressor (pink,blue)
Schedule II
Written Prescription RequiredHigh Abuse PotentialCodeine/Morphine/MeperidineAmphetamines/Phenmetrazine
Endocrine (Androgens)MOA: Anabolic - increase in overall body growth, muscle mass, and red blood cell production. Androgenic - growth of the larynx and skeleton, development of facial hair, darkening of the skinMET: Sig. first pass metabolism; IV or IM best. Oral agents more hepatotoxic and less effectiveSE: Behavioral effects - excessive rage or hostility; Increased LDL/HDL ratio; Stunted growth due to premature closure of the epiphyseal plates; Women - hirsutism, depression of menss, acne, and clitoral enlargement; Males - decreased spermatogenesis, gynecomastia, acne, testicular atrophy, prostatic hypertrophyTX: Replacement therapy in male hypogonadism. Growth in pre-pubertal boys
Cardiac Medication - Antiarrhythmic (or Antidysrhythmic)
ticlopidine (Pentothal)
Antiplatelets Ticlopidine (Pentothal) is an antiplatelet that is used to reduce the risk of stroke due to thrombi.

1. Adrenal insuff.
2. Infection
3. PUD
4. Osteoporosis
5. Growth retardation
6. Glucose intol.
7. Myopathy
8. Cataracts
9. Psychological
10. Cutaneous changes
11. Neg. Nit. Balance
12. Iatrogenic cushings syndrome
13. Fluid and lyte imbalances
beta 2 agonist (albuterol, salmeterol)
which one causes cynide toxicity?
Type of drug?
alpha non-selective antagonist
Antihistamine H1 blocker prototype

sedation, antimuscarinic
Name some teratogenic agents:
-metabolic imbalances
human lys-plasminogen + inactive streptokinase activated by hydrolytic deacylation in blood
The unuseful Alpha-1 receptor agonist. Sometimes can treat hypotension and shock.
-30S, blocks initiation and causes premature termination
-Acetyl, phosphoryl, or adenylyl conjugation
GI Drug (Mucosal Protectant) MOA: Aluminum salt of sucrose sulfate → binds plasma proteins in crater → protective barrier Short acting Drug interax: blocks tetracycline & PO4 absorption SE: Constipation Nausea Additionally: inhibits pepsin & bile aciton Also: ↑ prostaglandin release TX: Duodenal ulcer
Dopamine (DA) 
catecholamine activating B1 receptors in the heart, dopamine receptors in the kidney & A1 receptors in blood vessels
action entirely depends on dose admin:1-3mcg/kg/min: stim mainly dop. receptors in renal vasculature causing increased contractility, HR, and CO
4-10: stim B1 receptors in heart causing increased contractility, HR, CO & thus BP
>10: stim A1 receptors in periphery causing vasoconstriction & SVP increase which will increase BP

50% of action due to endogenous NE
many pts respond poorly or fail to respond (so not widely used anymore)
Gentocin Spray/Dermacool HC
SkinTopical Antipuritics - CorticosteroidsRelieve pruritis secondary to allergic reactions/ hot spots
kindney tansplant ab block IL2 receptor
sodium bicarbonate
Acid-base agents Sodium bicarbonate is an acid-base agent used to treat acidosis.
– Volatile liquid, faster onset and quicker recovery
IM- Allows slower absorption than IV
not active until metabolized by liver
covalently binds AchE
In infected ________ tissue, anesthetics are charged and cannot penetrate membrane. Therefore, ______ anesthetics are needed.
acidic; more
which cholesterol agents affect endogenous production of cholesterol?
Type of drug?
Anti-inflammatory mast cell stabilizer- asthma drug
Alpha2 agonist

acts centrally to reduce SANS outflow, lowers BP.

rebound HTN if stopped suddenly
phases of pharmokinetics
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
ectosone, betaderm - topical steroid medium potency
Inhibits lipoxygenase in addition to COX-1&-2. Available slow release for 1/d admin.
Opiate antagonist that blocks alcohol reinforcement that may involve endogenous opioids
is used to treat major depressive disorder. It is a Mono-Amine Oxidase inhibitor.
Regular Insulin
Endocrine MOA: Zinc insulin crystals in a neutral, unbuffered suspensionMET: Short-acting Admin: IV or subQ (30-60 min before meal)SE: Hypoglycemia (Counter-reg. often impaired) Mild: juice/glucose Severe: glucagon ~ Allergy (insulin or protamine) ~ Insulin resistance (IgG) ~ LipohypertrophyOTH: Insulin requirements ↑ during 2nd half of pregnancy ~ If impaired renal fx: ↓insulin clearanceTX: Type 1 diabetes
hydrocodone is what kind of drug?
opiod agonist
particular type of psychosis, that is mental disorder caused by some inherent dysfunction of the brain
characterized by delusions, hallucinations (often in form of voices), and thinking/speech disturbances
common affliction, occuring in 1% of population, or at about the same incidence as DM
most commonly affects young adults
strong genetic predisposition & reflects some fundamental biochemical abnormality, maybe overactivity of the mesolimbic dopaminergic neurons
What is the main mediator for peripheral vascular resistance?
FACT:The magnitude of the end plate potential is proportional to the amount of released ACh
Drug Quality
ensures that the consumer receives drugs meeting the standards published in the National Formulary
– Extract from dried poppy seeds
	- 20 active compounds: Morphine, codeine, thebaine (used to make heroin)
Drug that acts directly through the thrombi to break them down
least toxic to mammals because they have ensymes to rapidly metabolize it
antidote for CO =
100% O2, hyperbaric O2
anti gout drug that acts on microtubules
MOA guanethidine
inhiits release of NorE from noraderenergic neurons
other "− triptans"
5−HT1D receptor agonists

used to abort migraine attacks
Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome?
Treat LDL?
Any single drug
Any combo except statin + Gemfib
first COX-2 selective agent, but the least potent,doesn't prevent platelet aggregation. Few GI effects,can interfer with antihypertensive therapy and produce edema.
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
syndrome of pre-excitation of the ventricles of the heart due to an accessory pathway known as the bundle of Kent. Shows up on EKG as a shortened PR interval (sometimes with delta wave (slurred upstroke)). AV node can behave as a unidirectional block du
What side effect may be seen with allopurinol?
What are the signs/symptoms for hyperglycemia?
Hyperglycemia signs/symptoms include:
blurred vision
abd. pain
bacteriostatic actions
arrest the growth & replication of bacteria, thus giving the body's immune system a chance to destroy & remove the pathogens
depend on the host having an intact immune status (so immune system can finish the job)
cannot be used in life-threatening situations; too slow to act
e.g. erythromycin, tetracyclines, sulfonamides 
Determinants of cardiac output
Average adult, 5 L/min
 Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume
What are the major toxicities?
addiction, respiratory depression, constipation, miosis, additive CNS depression wth other drugs
What are some prescription anti-diarrheals?
Opioids(most effective), Lomotil, Motofen, ParegoricSome OTC are Loperamide (Immodium), Kaopectate and Pepto-bismol
enhancing cholinergic transmission in alzheimers: AChE inhibitiors: rivastigmine (exelon)
-no liver damage-less SE
What are the 2 neurotransmitters within the neurons of the striatum of the brain that have opposing effects?
Dopamine and Ach
Define blood-brain barrier
Tight junctions of the capillary endothelial cells in the CNS vasculature through which only non-protein-bound, highly lipud-soluble drugs can pass.
What is keratin?
a tough insoluble protein substance found in hair and nails
what catecholamines are used to treat shock
doapmine, dobutamine
Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning may be caused by ---------.
Parathion and other organophosphates.
which cholesterol drug --> GI discomfort
bile acid resins
Name the targets of the combination contraceptive:
-higher brain
-ripe follicle
-ovum/capacitated sperm
-zygote implantation
....many targets!
ACE Inhibitors Indications
HTN, MI (reduces mortality), HF, Diabetic NEPHRopathy,
What are the most common cause of dental infections?
All sulfa drugs are derivatives of...
PABA (para-aminobenzene sulfonamide)
is a benzodiazepine. It is used in the treatment of anxiety. It enhances the inhibitory effect of GABA on neuronal excitability.
Flurazepam is what kind of drug?
BDZ long half life
examples of first generation cephalosporins
cefazolin (Ancef, Kefzol) prototype: IV/IM (most commonly used)
cephalexin (Keflex) PO (#1 PO) 
Hypermagnesemia is most common in ...
patients with renal insufficiency
Blockade of normal end plate function can occur by two mechanisms and these are the two classes of drugs...
nondepolarizing (competitive blocker)and Depolarizing drugs
Controlled Substance
drugs with a high potential for abuse that are controlled by special regulations/may cause physical or psycological dependence
DOC. Has levodopa in it as well as carbidopa, which inhibits decarboxylases in periphery. By suppressing decarb. in periphery it makes more levodopa available in the CNS. Can give less levodopa with this combination. Carbidopa doesn't cross the b/b barrier.
S/E: Similar to levodopa. Advantage to sinemet dose of levodopa is smaller, single dose, increased compliance, lower s/e, better balance between dopamine & Ach.
NI: There are different strengths.
Define diffusion
Movement of a solute in a solution from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
What is standard concentration for serum iodine?
280 to 370 mg/ml
what is the clinical application of phenytoin
grand mal seizures
which cholinomimetics are used to treat glaucoma
pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate
What does Vitamin E do?
-e- donor in redox rxs
AE of phentolamine (Regitine)
tachycardia, dizziness, GI upset, nose bleeds
Kefauver-Harris Amendment
Passed in 1962. Required safety and efficacy of a new drug be proved prior to being approved for use
3 oral preparations for fentanyl
Oxycodone, MS-Contin, and Actiq (lozenge form)
an oxidized drug product
After the CYP oxidation reaction, what type of product do you end up with?
most OTC bronchodilators contain epinephrine or ephedrine as the main active ingredient
they are potent, short-acting w/ almost immediate onset of action (< 1 min) & short duration of action (1-3 hrs)
effective for acute symptoms in the early phase; nave no effect in the late phase of asthma
pts who have frequent asthma exacerbations may overuse their inhaler, leading to systemic absorption sufficient to cause cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension,anxiety attacks, insomnia 
b/c of their nonselective actions, side effects, and tolerance develop't, inhaled forms of these drugs are seldom used in the ambulatory/impatient settings 
should inhaled coticosteroids be used PRN or on a regular basis?
used on a regular basis
Clonidine: Class of drug, use
Alpha-2 Adrenergic Stimulant - treats hypertension
1. Buffalo hump, moon facies, truncal obesity and peptic ulcers characterize what syndrome? 2. What other Si/Sx(in muscle, skin, bone and adrenal gland) are found in this syndrome?
1.Cushing's Syndrome 2.Muscles wasting, thin skin, easy bruisability, osteoporosis, adrenocortical atrophy,
Definition of hypertension
Increase b/p (140/90). Need to take at least 3 readings at least 1 week apart.
What does the abbreviation stand for: OTC
non-prescription, over the counter
what is the action of ephedrine
indirect general adrenergic agonist, releases stored catecholamines
what drugs are used to treat pheo?
phenoxybenzamine (irreversible alpha blocker)
phentolamine (reversible alpha blocker)
Direct Acting Skeletal Muscle Relaxants interfere with?
release of calcium from muscle tubules
Levarterenol bitartrate (and dosage)
Similar to EPI and is a vasoconstrictor used to treat hypotension and shock. 1-2 micrograms/minute diluted in 1L of water.
c.- Myocardial infarction
- a complete blockage of one of the vessels supplying blood and nutrients to the muscle of the heart
haloperidol is what kind of drug (what level potency)?
high potency, classical anti-psychotic
Fibric Acid Derivatives (Fibrates) (gemfibrozil, Lopid)
Therpeutic uses:
Adverse effects:
th. uses: reduces levels of plasma triglycerides (VLDLs)
adverse effects:
hepatoxicity (works through the liver)
MAOIs: Is this reaction Phase I or Phase II? Is it Non or Microsomal? Is it Hydrolysis, Reduction, or Oxidation?
Phase I, Non-microsomal, Oxidation
What information will a drug profile include?
Names, classification, mechanism of action, indications, pharmacokinetics, side effects/adverse reactions, contraindications, dosage, how supplied, and special considerations
Foxglove Plant
Grows in Canada and can kill you as it contains lethal poison
Mechanim considering bradykinin and renin release?
reduce lvels of ang II, prevent inactivation of bradykinin, renin release is increased to to loss of feedback inhibition
uses for class IC anti-arrhythmics
VT --&gt; FV
inretractable SVT
LAST resort
When not to give Digoxin
when apical pulse is lower than 60
3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase SNPs
linked to the degree of lipid lowering after statin treatment and the increase in HDL in women on estrogen replacement therapy.
ACC/AHA Stages of Heart Failure
1 High Risk for HF, without symptoms or structural disease.
2 Structural heart disease without symptoms of HF.
3 Structural heart disease with symptoms
4 Severe structural heart disease and marked symptoms of HF
What is the most important organ for elimination of drugs.
KidneysAlso include, lungs, biliary system and intestines.
Opiate Agonists - MOA and Uses
Capability to relieve mod. to severe pain without loss of consciousness.
MOA: Stimulation of opiate receptors in the CNS (binds to it). Changes patient's perception of pain. Decreases transmission of the pain response. Drecreases production and release of Substance P - mediator of pain (the messenger).
1. Relieve acute and chronic pain
2. decrease anxiety
3. Increase sedation (increase effectiveness of anathesia)
4. Vasodilation around the heart.
5. decrease cough reflex/center.
why is curare not used much?
tendency to release histamine in the patient and a block of the autonomic ganglia, both of which lead to hypotension.
types of drugs used as IV anesthetics
BB King on optiates proposes foolishly
Ketamine (arylclohxamines)
Effective Dose 50% (ED 50%)
The mid dosage amount to be effective for the intended treatment.
  8. Define, explain, and differentiate action potential.
All changes that occur in the transmembrane potential during an entire cycle of contraction and relaxation, as a unit.    
What do toxic levels of class 1A drugs cause? 2
- SA/AV block
- Arrhythmogenic (causes arrhythmias)
What are the adverse effects of sodium bicarbonate?
Extravation of IV sodium bicarbonate can lead to cellulitis, tissue necrosis, ulceration, &amp; tissue sloughing.
Considerations that can affect how the body responds to a drug
Age, Weight, Body Surface Area (BSA), Method of Administration, Tolerance, Allergies, Time, Interaction
drugs used to treat HIV & AIDS
HIV is a retrovirus; ater entering the host cell, it undergoes reverse transcription & is then incorporated into the host cell's DNA
AIDS, caused by HIV, is characterized by a CD4 count of less than 200 (CD4 is the immune system cell targeted) & the presence of 2 opportunistic infections
tx of HIV infections has been radically modified during the past 10 yrs by the introduction of powerful antiretroviral drugs & by the development of methods to determine the viral load in plasma
introduction of HIV protease inhibitors & non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors has made the breakthrough possible
long-term benefits & saftely profiles of these agents are still being evaluated
for all pts,  regular monitoring of viral load & CD4 cell count should be used to guide therapy
effect of long term malnutrition on protein binding meds
more drug circulates in blood due to lack of binding sites, increases serum level, has a stronger effect on the patient
The ratio of the ionized and non-ionized form of drugs at a particular site influences the rate of drug absorption, distribution, or elimination.
The protonated form of a weak acid is nonionized, whereas the protonated form of a weak base is he's a pro (tonated) at taking acid, so he's NOt(non-ionized) going anywhere.-- WAPNeg: he's a pro (tonated) at BASEball so he's ionized.-- WBPI
what is the "rule of 4" with EPS side effects from antipsychotic drugs
evolution of EPS side effects: 4 hours -- acite dystonia, 4 days -- akinesia, 4 weeks -- akasthesia, 4 months -- tardvie dyskinesia
alpha nonselective antagonist
quinine caps
Direct agonists:
Antihyperlipidemic Agent
fomoterol fumerate
reminyl er
Endocrine (Calcium Homeostasis)Vitamine DBinds VitD receptor + RXR → ↑calbindins & ↑osteocalcin & ↑osteoclast formation & ↑Ca2+Stored for prolonged periods in fat SE: Hypervitaminosis D: hypercalcemiaTX: HypoPTH, pseudohypoPTHRickets, osteomalacia Osteoporosis
AntiinfectivesQuinolones - "Baytril"Broad, gm-/+, cidal, very fast acting, seizures w/NSAIDS, articular damage w/ young/pregs, Blindness in cats, IM pain/tissue necrosis, pasturella infex
nothing by mouth
pituitary hormone. Somatotropin
class clozapine
atypical antipsych

large polymeric molecule with antithrombin, and anti−factor X activity. Primary rapid onset, in vitro and in vivo anticoagulation. Antidote: protamine. See also enoxaparin
United States Pharmacopeia
selective H3 antagonists
Mechanism: cholinomimetic alkaloid (acts like acetylcholine); quaternary amine; derived from mushroom
Treatment: parasympathetic action
Side effects: ingestion of mushroom will induce salivation, sweating, and lacrimation within 15-30 minutes and systemic action within 2 hours
Antidote: atropine 
common Leukotriene Modifier:
montelukest (Singulair)
verapamil adverse effects
facial flushing
adema of ankles/feet
gingiva hyperplasia
Oral (PO), orogastric/nasogastric (OG?NG), sublingual (SL), buccal, and rectal (PR) are ______________ routes of medication administration.
Amnistic properties of propofol
toxicity of tetracyclines
gi discomfort
discoloration of teeth
inhibits bone growth in kids
Phenothiazine antipsychotic drug prototype

blocks most dopamine receptors in the CNS.

atropine−like, EPS dysfunction, hyperprolactinemia, postural hypotension, sedation, seizures (in overdose), additive effects with other CNS depressants
Antimuscarinic agent

aerosol for asthma, COPD. Good bronchodilator in 20−30% of patients. Not as effective as β2 agonists
Bignanide administration
with meals BID
glucophage (glumetza long acting)
only increases systolic BP
Cytochrome P450
What mediates oxidation reactions?
MAOI/tyrmine interaction reversal
Calcium channel blockers
second generation sulfonylurea need ndecrease dose in hepatic dysfunction
Allergic Reactions
antigen-antibody reaction causing hypersensitvity e.g. itching , rash
Medication intended to increase producticvity of cough
critical pathway
measurable path to healing
contraindication of spironolactone
acute renal failure
What drug causes:
Cardiac toxicity
Doxorubicin(Adriamycin), Daunorubicin
Thiazide diuretic prototype

acts in distal convoluted tubule; blocks Na+/Cl− transporter; used in HTN, CHF, chronic renal stone syndrome.

increased serum lipids, uric acid, glucose; K+ wasting
what is dystonia
painful muscle spasms
inhib DOPA decarboxylase therefore prevents DA formation from L-DOPA, don't cross BBB gets rid og L-DOPA effects in perifery
partially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor ,ocd treatment, triclyclic antidepressant, also for trichotillomania.
Used to treat complex partial seizures. Inhibits the GABA-transaminase enzyme, thus preventing the breakdown of GABA.
Gout MOA: recombinant enzyme which catalyzes uric acid → allantoin which is 5x-10x more soluable than uric acid i.e. More effective renal clearance of uric acid SE: Methmegloginemia Anaphylaxis Expense OTH: catalyzes conversion of existing uric acid TX: Gout
first generation cephalosporins
preg. category B
oldest cephalosporins; all  have similar spectrum of action
possess excellent activity against gram-pos bacteria & poor activity against gram-neg organisms

spectrum: gram-pos cocci, including pneumococci, staphylococci, streptococci (group A is the strep group we worry about)
enterococci & MRSA not covered
Side Effects of ß-blockers:
Prolongs hypoglycemia, BradycardiaMental dullness, fatigue, decreased HDL cholesterol, Bronchospasms...use with caution in persons with diabetes b/c some B-blockers cause an increase in blood glucose, Not for Asthmatics or people with COPD, Not for people with peripheral vascular disease
Examples of heterocyclics?
trazodone, buproprion, venlafaxine, mirtazapine, maprotiline
abdominal wall; operation through the abdominal wall
Least toxic. Classified as a beta-lactam antibiotic; beta-lactam ring. Interferes with cell wall synthesis.
Binds to PBP (Penicillin binding proteins) on the bacteria.
Allergic Reactions
Type II
Cytotoxic reactions
Delayed reactions that involve certain cytotox antibodies of the IgG class. Capable of lysing cells and commonly cause hemolytic reactions and destruction of platelets.
St. John's wort
mild to moderate depression
which epileptic drug --&gt; diplopia, ataxia?
MOA metformin
unknown, but might decrease gluconeogenesis, increase glycolysis and decrease serum glucose levels
Type of drug?
Class III antiarrhythmic
Potassium channel blocker
Important cytokine for the treatment of hepatitis B and C infection.
Mechanism: GABAa binding to increase frequency of chloride channel opening. No GABA mimetic activity.
Uses: Muscle relaxation, withdrawal states (cross-dependence), status epilepticus
ct3- breaks phosphate backbone -> fragments DNA
Blocks Nm receptors at neuromuscular junctions.
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Acute manifestation of thiamine deficiency related to alcohol ingestion (confusion, ataxia, oculomotor distrubances and immediate thiamine admin.)
trade name
Name copyrighted by the manufacturer for a particular version of a drug.
GI Drug (H2 Blocker) MOA: Competitive inhibitor of histamine (H2)- stimulated gastric HCl secretion MET: Inhibits P450 system Drug interax: ↑chlordiazepoxide, EtOH propranolol, theophylline, warfarin SE: Diarrhea, muscle pain Headache, dizziness Gynecomastia, impotence TX: Gastric/duodenal ulcers ZE syndrome GERD
when two solutions are mixed together resulting in chemical deterioration of the drug
What is an unusal response called? What usually causes it?
quinidine use
antiarrhythemia class 1 (na channel blocker block open or active state channels)
What type of drug administration is usually used for rabies and hemodialysis?
Name 3 types of Macrolide
Erythromycin, Zithromax, Biaxin
Stimulating Alpha 1 receptors
Causes vasoconstriction and mydriases
Benign prstatic Hyperplasia is known as
Enlarged Prostate
Which induction agents can cause burst suppression
other metabolism sites
blood, lungs, and GI mucosa
which anti-epileptic drugs cause CYP induction
phenobarbital, carbamazepine
contraindications of captopril
renal insufficiency
bilateral renal artery stenosis
Type of Drug?
IV anesthetic
Used for rapid anesthesia inductions &amp; short procedures
Which drugs can cause tooth discolouration as a side-effect?
tetracycline antibiotics
risperidone (Risperdal) AE
increased prolactin levels, abnormal dreams, seizures, dykinesia
What is the brand name for metronidazole?
Alpha -2A agonist like clonidine, but with less potency to lower blood pressure. Treats spasticity in MS patients.
Dont patients with hep. B infection cause it could cause hypersensitivity reaction.
Phase III trial
compare new therapy with current therapy
What two drugs can tx obesity?
orlistat and sibutramine
antifungal agents:
fluconazole (Diflucan) 
greater activity & spectrum than others - including aspergillus
lifetime maintenance anti-cryptococcal meningitis therapy in AIDS
penetrates CSF - prophylaxis in immonocompromised pts
available oral or IV (very safe, 2nd drug of choice for kids although no FDA approval)
single dose possible (vaginal yeast) due to long half-life & high activity (drug of choice) 

well absorbed, but take 2-4 weeks for antidepressant activity

enzyme regeneration varies, but takes several weeks

when switching antidepressants, must wait a min. of 2 weeks
Drugs in this group include:ACh, syntetic ester of choline, naturally occurring alkaloids such as pilcarpine.
Direct-Acting Cholinergic drugs
Glucocorticoids decrease the production of what two important inflammatory molecules? Used to treat what clincal illness?
1.Leukotrienes and prostanglandins 2. Addison's Asthma, inflammation, immune suppression
blockade of D2 in hypothalamus
-via tuberoinfundibular pathway -endocrine side effects
MOst common cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease
H. Pylori
Receptors that can be fast or slow. After ganglion. Moves the nerve impulse from the nerve pathway to the target.
What does the abbreviation stand for: TO
telephone order
what causes malignant hyperthermia
use inhalation anesthetics and succinylcholine together
Which H2 blocker is a potent inhibitor of P-450?
what is the receptor preference for pirbuterol?
beta 2
Mechanism: BZ1 receptor agonist with less effect on BZ2 mediated functions.
Uses: Sleep disorders. Less tolerance and abuse liability.
Overdose reversed by flumazenil
arthrotec 50,75
diclofenace 50 or 75 mg with misprostol
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
presents with muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic instability and cognitive changes such as delirium, and is proven on a raised creatine phosphokinase (CPK).
Warning with chloramphenicol?
may cause aplastic anemia (gray baby) and is only used for severe infections such as typhoid fever and salmonellosis
Examples of drugs that saturate or inhibit P450 enzymes are?
Cimetidine, Ciprofloxacin, Ketoconazole, Clarithromycin, Quinidine & grapefruit juice
pharmacodynamics of quinolones & fluoroquinolones
interfere w/ bacterial DNA synthesis
post antibiotic effect (may not see effects for 12 days) 
types of quick relief asthma meds
when are these drugs not enough to control asthma?
short acting beta-agonists
systemic corticosteroids (IV/Pill/inhale)
anticholinergic agents
the drugs are not enough to control asthma if they are used more than 3 times per week.
Vecuronium: Class of drug, length of duration, and use.
Non-depolarizing/Competitive skeletal muscle relaxant - lasts for 45 minutes - used to relax muscles for surgery, electroshock, tetanus treatment
Medical Devices Act
Requires proof of safety and efficacy of medical devices before marketing
Cytoprotective Agents (Carafate)
MOA: w/ mild acid conditions, reacts with HCL acid to form a paste-like substance that adheres to gastric mucosa. Creates a barrier. Likes to bind to ulcer site. Promotes healing by creating barriers.
S/E: Constipation
NI: Not absorbed systemically, interactions with antacids (can’t create paste b/c there’s low acid). Give 30 min. apart. Best on stomach.
Bronchodilators may be classified as:
Sympathomimetic drugs-acting on alpha and beta receptors.
Xanthine dirivates specific actions of relaxing smooth muscle, stimulating cardiac muscle and CNS, etc.
Dobutamine =
b1 &gt; b2 - for shock, heart failure
Packaging and assembly of new viron is blocked by --------.
Rifampin (vaccinia).
side effects of mannitol
can cause pulmonary edema d/t extracellular volume expansion, pulling water out of cells
Name some side effects of oral contraceptives:
-breast tenderness
-mid-cycle bleeding (first month)
-weight gain
-increased appertive
-mood swings
Antihistamines patient teaching
don't take with apple, grapefruit, or orange juice, and St Johns Wort (may exessively potentiate) Do Not Take With alcohol, MAOI's, erythomycin, and CNS depreseants (may increase CNS depresant effects). Can cause drowsiness. Increase fluid intake.
In OTC doses of 2400 mg/d isimilar to anti-inflammatory effectiveness of ASA (4g), but with less GI irritation. At lower doses,effective analgesic but loses its anti-inflammatory effectiveness
What kind of dependecies does alcohol cause?
Physical and psychological
What is the serotonin syndrome?
basically excessive 5HT leads to hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, myoclonus
inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis
affect bacterial protein synthesis w/ relative selectivity
target the bacterial ribosome (smaller than the mammalian ribosome)
mammalian mitochondrial ribosome more closely resembles the bacterial chromosome; although drugs usually spare the host cells, high levels of drugs may cause toxic effects as a result of interaction w/ the mitochondrial ribosomes (relative selectivity)
What type of channels do class 1C drugs target?
Sodium channels (blocker)
Reserpine: Class of drug, use, mechanism
indirect adrenergic receptor blockers - treats hypertension - *can’t store NE in vesicles, causes depression (no EPI, how sad)
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act[Controlled Substances Act]
1. established rehab programs for users2. established control (registration) and enforcement DEA3. regulates export & import of controlled substances
Function of Centrally Acting Adrenergic Inhibitors
reduce hypertension by inhibiting the CNS stimulation of adrnergic receptors
Drug reaction causing cutaneous flushing? (&quot;V CAN&quot;)
- vancomycin (red man)
- calcium channel blockers
- adenosine
- niacin
what are the clinical applications of benzodiazepines
anxiety, spasticity, status epilepticus (diazepam), detoxification (alcohol withdrawal, DT's)
What is Ginkgo used for?
Herbal agent used for intermittent claudication
buspirone (Buspar), and antianxiety agent, action
binds to serotonin and dopamine receptors and increase norepinephrine metabolism in the brain
4 2nd and 3rd generation antidepressants
Bupropion, venlafaxine, trazodone, and nefazodone.
Individual risks for surgical wound infections?
>3 underlying medical diagnosis, abd operations >2 hours, contaminated or dirty procedures, ASA pre-op assessment score >=3
Pharmacotherapeutics of resins:
can be used in pts w/ active liver disease (b/c not metabolized by liver)
can be used in children & in pregnancy
modestly lower LDL (15-30%); no effect on HDL; may increase triglycerides 
What are the chronic syptoms associated with hypertension? 5
- Congestive heart failure
- Ischemic heart disease (inadequate blood supply to the heart caused blockage of an artery) -> angina (chest pain)
- Myocardial infarction
- Renal damage ( ↑ BP -> scaring in nepron -> ↓ kidney function)
- Stroke
In general, what do Cholinergic Blockers do to the body?
Prevent drowning in saliva, inhibits “voiding” of bladder and GI tract
Left side of the heart pumps blood where?
to the whole body
What does the abbreviation stand for: SL
sub linguam, under the tongue
Name three of the symptoms of amiodarone toxicity.
Pulmonary fibrosis, corneal deposits, hepatoxicity, skin deposits resulting in photodermatitis, neurologic effects, constipation, bradychardia, heart block, CHF, hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism. (Therefore, should check PFTs, LFTs, and TFTs)
which drug is used to treat seizures in eclampsia
MgSO4 (1st line)
What is the MOA of loop diuretics?
Block Na/K/2Cl transporter in ascending loop of Henle
If you administer procainamide what must you watch for in the patients plasma levels?
For procainamide and its metabolite with bigger half-life (especially in patients with circulatory or renal problems)
general info about thyroid replacement hormones
levothyroxine = drug of choice for thyroid hormone replacement & thyroid-stimulating hormone supression therapy
someevidence suggests that some pts (especially those who still feel tired or depressed even w/ normal TSH & T4 levels) may feel better if they are given both levothyroxine (T4) & triiodothyronine (T3); the combo seems to improve mood, energy & mental alertness for some hypothyroid pts
researchers suggest lowering the levothyroxine dose by 50 mcg & adding 10-12.5 mcg of triiodothyronine (Cytomel)
too much T3 can cause palpitations & tremors
In general, what do "all alpha" adrenergic stimulants do to the body?
Increase heart rate and contractile force, Vasoconstrict
What happens after renin is released?
It stimulates AI, ACE transforms it into AII, which causes vasoconstriction and aldosterone to be released, which causes Na and H2O to be reabsorbed which increases b/p.
What the most basic asthma treatment strategy?
avoidance of exposure to antingen (dust, pollen, etc)
What receptor is found inside the cell cytoplasm? thus, the ligand must be hydrophillic or lipophillic?
Nuclear Hormone Receptors

Ligand is lipophillic
Lowdown on eicosanoids and the uterus
PGFs and TXA2 contract the uterus, while PGEs and PGIs relax, but both PGF and PGE2 stimulate oxytocin secretion, which contracts the uterus.
Do Hepatic microsomal enzymes ever make a larger molecule?
yes, they can make a molecule larger than the parent drug.
Why is propranolol an oddball “All Beta” Adrenergic Receptor Blocker?
It increases insulin release and can cause hypoglycemia
Which population of pt. is this drug good for?
The PCN-allergic patient that can't take aminoglycosides b/c of renal insufficiency
What drugs are used to treat mysathenia gravis?
Neostygmine - has strong influence at neuromuscular junction
Pyridostygmine - longer duration than neostygmine
Ambenonium - Oral form only
Edrophonium - diagnostic agent for myasthenia gravis
How do class IA drugs effect sodium levels?
Block sodium flux (entering into the cell)
What is the effect of radioactive iodine?
It is taken up by thyroid follicular cells and emits beta particle destroying thyroid follicular cells.
It is common for a track hand to administer a nasogastric drench the day of the race? T/F
False. Barn personnel are not allowed to possess nasogastric tubes
Which drugs block protein synth at the 50S subunit?
&quot;There are MICE IN LINE to see 50 year-old GRANdma make MACRoni and CHLORide&quot;
left eye
sustained release
Sinemet generic
Gantrisin generic
Ventolin generic
Tagamet generic
Loop Diuretics
Amphetamine/DextroamphADHD/ narcolepsy
clindamycin AE
1 kg=
2.2 pounds
Ganstrin what class?
Theodur class
respirator agent
OXYCODONE preperations
Calcium Channel Blockers
Insulin lisproblood sugar
s.c., s.q., or subq
Dilantin/phenytoin implications
assess oral hygiene
What is antirheumatoid?
sulfasalazine/azulfidine (antiinflamatory)
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
Side effects of Pyrazinamide 
how is Ivermectin metabolized?
Treatment of benzodiazepine overdose
Neuropathic pain, bipolar, anticonvulsant, depressive episodesSodium channel blocker
Ace inhibitors produce dry unproductive cough, which of the following is responsible?
Claritin/loratadine action
blocks effects of histamine
barbituatereduction of the nerve impulses in brain stem, potentiates GABAprevention-tonic clonic seizures and fever induced convulsions; used as hypnotics, sedatives, and anticonvulsants, reduction of ICP in neuro pts, NICU hyperbilirubimeniasever liver disease, significant resp dificultieshabit-forming deprive of REM, enzyme induction=increase drug metabolism and breakdowninteraction w/ additive CNS depression with other CNS depressants; interaction d/t hepatic enzyme induction
binds to receptor site
causes response
Mucokinetic Drugs
acetylcysteine [mucomyst]
breaks mucoproteins in mucus into smaller strands, administered by inhalation, also given orally for treatment of tylenol overdose, have suction equipment at bedside to maintain open airway.
which anhelmintic is OTC?
pyrantel pamoate
anesthesia that combines decreased sensation of pain with amnesia while the patient remains conscious
brand names Xylocaine and Octocaine

xylidine derivative
anesthetic standard by which all others are measured
rapid onset (2-3 min)
medium duration (pulpal 60 min, soft tissue 3-5 hrs)
no cross allergenicity with esters or other amides
toxic reaction: CNS depression rather than stimulation as with other LAs
topical, infiltration, block, spinal, epidural, and caudal use
IV to treat cardiac arrhythmias
available as 2% with 1:50,000 (used for excessive bleeding) ; 1:100,000; 1:200,000 and plain.

available as 5% ointment, 10% spray, 2% viscous solution
Tegretol (carbamazepine
Anticonvulsant. Decreases polysynaptic responses and block post-tetanic potentiation. Used for tonic-clonic seizure, complex-partial, mixed seizures; trigeminal neuralgia, bipolar disorder. Side effects: drowsiness, paralysis, worsening of seizures, HTN, CHF, dysrhythmias, AV block; nausea, constipation, diarrhea, hepatitis, renal failure; thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, agranulocytosis, leukocytosis, aplastic anemia, eosinophilia, rash, Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Nursing considerations: Assess for seizures – character, location, duration, intensity, frequency, presence of aura; for trigeminal neuralgia – facial pain including location, duration, intensity, character, activity that stimulates pain; assess renal studies – urinalysis, BUN, urine creatinine q3 mo; Blood studies: RBC, Hct, Hgb, reticulocytes; Hepatic studies – ALT, AST, bilirubin; Drug levels – should remain at 4-12 mcg/ml; anorexia may indicate increased blood levels.; Mental status; eye problems; allergic reaction; blood dyscrasias; toxicity. Report immediately chills, light colored stools, dark urine, jaundice; abdominal pain, sore throat, mouth ulcers, bruising, blurred vision, dizziness.
which drugs are opioid antagonists?
Cardiac Glycoside.For HT failure.Makes HT pump faster, increases contractility of HT, inhibits sodium potassium pump in HT. Many side effects (seeing yellow)
what does SA stand for?
sustained action
Syphilis is highly responsive to:
Penicillin G
Aspirin and other salicylates are _______ than opioids in pain with inflammation involved.
Maalox/aluminum (mag) hydroxide action
neutralizes gastric acid
Antivert/meclazine HCL action
central anticholinergic, CNS depressant and antihistamine properties. lowers excitability of middle ear
Antagonist of opioid
Narcan (Nalaxone)
A pure opioid>displace narcotic @ receptor site
do not need dr. order
will bring out of respiratory depression
Pharmacotherapeutics of Valproic acid (Depakene)
absence seizures
myoclonic seizures
generalized tonic-clonic seizures
atonic seizures 
SEs of metronidazole
unpleasant metallic taste
darkens urine
less common: stomatitis, V/D, vertigo
which anhelmintic is rapidly absorbed and rapidly metabolized by the liver?
test to ascertain a drug's availability in a biological model
low doses of dopamine stimulate...
b1 receptors
Drug distribution 
Subtype of parmacokinetics (movement of drugs)
Proton pump inhibitor. Take with NSAIDS if Peptic Ulcer Disease.Stops pumping acid into ST.For HT burn, peptic ulcer disease.
normal saline solution is AKA:
sodium chloride (NaCl)
Which epileptic condition is life threatening where victims do not regain consciousness?
Status epilepticus
NS (0.9 NaCL)
osmolality: isotonic (308 mOsm/L)uses: replaced extracellular fluid (ECF) volume, hyponatremia, mild metabolic acidosis, mild metabolic alkalosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, hypovolemia, diluent for medications, flush intravascular accesses, maintain patency of intracenous access devicepotiental complications: fluid overload, increased ICP, hypokalemia, hyperchloremia, hypernatremia, caution in elderly.
ultralente onset peak duration
onset 2-4hrpeak 10-30hrduration 20-36hr
nrsng implications w/ NSAIDS
take w meals/food
monitor clottin/renal function
Isoniazide (INH)
Inhibits cell wall synthesis, effects growth of dormant organisms, used prophylactically and active treatment against TB, monitor for theuraputic effectiveness in first 2-3 wks, monitor hepatic function, administer vit b6 supps to prevent neurotoxic effects, AVOID ALCOHOL,
which drugs treat ancylostomiasis and necatoriasis?
pyrantal paramoate
second messenger
chemical that participates in complex cascading reactions that eventually cause a drug's desired effect
classification of IV anesthetic agents
IVopiodsmorphine, fentanyl
prolonged resiratory depression is a disadvantage of these

ultra short acting barbituratesrapid onset
may have prolonged recovery due to build up in tissues
no analgesia produced- must use additional anesthetic

benzodiazapinesmidazolam (Versed) used for induction of anesthesai
water soluable
short duration

ketamine (also used IM)
Allopurinol  (Zyloprim) 
antigout – Long termUsual dosage: PO- 200-800 mg/day IV- 200-400 mg/m2/day Keep urine slightly alkaline to prevent uric acid stones from forming. IV dose should be given as a single infusion.Side effects- Pruritic, maculopapular rash, fever, malaise.Fluid intake is encourages. Avoid foods high in purines – anchovies, bacon, beer, codfish, goose, haddock, herring, mackerel, mussels, organs meats, salmon, sardines, scallops, smelts, trout, turkey, veal, venison. Avoid high fat diet and thiazide diuretics.
Phenytoin (Dilantin) Mechanism of action 
Sodium channel blocker
Occurs when body can't metabolize one dose of a drug before another dose is administered
which antibiotic is the DOC for enterococcus, listeria, most URTIs, otits, and dental prophylaxis?
also known as nonproprietary or shorter name for drugs:
generic name
a small slender glass container with a narrow neck which houses injectable liquids is called?
Which drug would counteract an accelerated pulse rate?
Propranolol (a beta-blocker)
D50W- 50% dextrose in water
osmolality: hypertonic (2520 mOsm/L)uses: base for total parenteral nutrition (TPN), 1700 kcal/LPotiental complications: fluid overload, must induse via Central venous access device, sepsis, incompatibilities:sme as D5W, high risk for line sepsis, hypergylcemia
Humulin N action
stimulates glucose uptake in skeletal muscle and fat
Drug preperations for NSAIDS
Ibpofen( motrin, advil, nuprin) 200-400q4-6h
naproxen( naprosyn, aleve) <1000mg/day
oxaprozin (daypro)
indomethacin( indocin)
ketorolac (toradol) use < 5 days
Xanthine Bronchodilators
Increases cAMP - exact the mechanism unkown
Cerebral stimulation, skeletal muscle stimulation, bronchodilation, pulmonary vasodilation, cardiac stimulation, diuresis 
where else can pubic lice be found?
facial hair
prodrug(parent drug)
medication that is not active when administered, but whose biotransformation converts it into active metabolites
Vasoconstrictors uses

decrease blood flow to the injection site

decrease absorption into the CVS

prolong and increase depth of anesthesia

reduce toxic effect by delaying absorption

reduce hemorrhage at injection site
Vasoconstrictors are S+ drugs
Fluid overload:
An overload of the circulatory system that may be due to the excessive or too rapid infusion of fluid. Most common in children and clients with impaired cardiovascular or renal systems. If this occurs, slow the infusion and call someone to evaluate the patient. Signs of this complication include moist respirations, dyspnea, cough.
Partial Agonist 
An agonist that has only moderate intrinsic activity 
study of the effect of substances on living systems
which tetracyclines can be used topically to fix periodontal disease?
doxycycline and minocycline
1 L=
1000 mL (move to the right three spaces)
Drugs that treat epilepsy have mechanisms directed at
Stabilizing overexcited nerve membranes and/or increase neurotransmitter GABA
verbal order
must contain the same components as a written order or else it is invalid; may be taken only in an emergency
morphine & demerol nursing implications
monitor respirations and vitalsprovide safety
Affects of Benzodiazepines
can cause several levels of CNS depression, ranging from sedation to general anesthesia (dose related)
These agents act on the CNS to produce varying degrees of depression 
what are the SEs of capreomycin?
similar to aminoglycosides
like nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
What is Oraverse?
an injectable drug that helps the numbness wear off quicker. It is an alpha blocker, so it causes the smooth muscle of the blood vessel walls to relax, thus dialating the vessels and allowing the anesthetic to difuse away from the injection site.
It's very expensive so normally only used for pts who are at risk for biting themselves, such as little kids and those with inadequate muscle control. 
a2 receptors are located...
presynaptically and in the pancreas
GI sphincters
which of the drugs used to treat mild to moderate pain has been shown to not be of much use and is so easily obtained it is often used in suicides?
why would you use clarithromycin?
Resp Tract Infs
prevention of disseminated mycobacterium avium in pts with HIV
H. pylori
Propafenone (Rhythmol) is classified in the Vaughn Williams as a Class IC antidysrhythmic drugs which means it works by:
Blocking NA+ (sodium) channels and altering phase 0
Mediators of inflammation include _______, _______, _______, and _______.
Lipids; Amines; Small peptides; Large peptides
What  is a sedative
inhibitory effect of the CNS reducing nervousness, excitability, or irritability.
what is pyrantel pamoate's MOA?
it is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
it paralyzes the worms which are then excreted in feces
duration of action
length of time the amount of drug remains above its minimum effective concentration
Anesthetics administered by inhalationSemiclosed method
A gas mixture from a reservoir containing the anesthetic is provided through a mask that is connected to it. Gas escapes through valves, preventing rebreathing of air. This can create a hazardous situation.
what are the 2nd generation cephalosporins?
what do they treat?
same as gen 1, plus H. flu, neisseria, sinusitis, otitis and CAP
1 g=
1000 mg (g to mg move three spaces to the right)
A patient has been taking Lasix for 6 months and the patient has been taking digoxin. What do you want to know before administering digoxin?
Serum postassium levels.
who should not take aspirin
children (reyes), history of gi bleed, if on anticoags
how do you get diphyllobothriasis?
ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater fish
Once we experience problems with lidocaine what drugs would we give to correct those problems 
Equipment for resuscitation should be available as well as convulsions can be managed with diazepam or phenytoin 
whats an example of potentiation and why?
anticoagulants and aspirin because both drugs together increase the risk for bleeding
Combinations of antibiotics should be used:
When the patient has been diagnosed with TB
Length of Treatment for TB
4 drugs for 2 months
2 drugs for the next 4 months
what are the additional SEs of methylnaltrexone and alvimopan?
methyl - abd pain, NVD, dizziness
Alv - constipation, flatulence, back pain, hypokalemia, urinary retention
Patients who will be taking a tetracycline antibiotic should be adequately informed about which of the following interactions?
Milk and cheese products result in decreased levels of tetracycline
when would you use lindane shampoo?
when there is a history of resistance to other lice treatments
or for scabies
not first line in either case
which opioid used for mod to severe pain has a toxic metabolite?
(also can't be used with MAOIs)
extensively Drug Resistant TB is a less common form of multidrug-resistant TB in which...
the TB bacteria have changed enough to circumvent the two best antibiotics, isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF), as well as most of the alternative drugs used against MDR TB.
administering N20 to a pt with a nasal hood
start pt with 100% 02
adjust slowly adding N20 by 20% per min
usual flow of N20 in dentistry is 30-50%
have pt breath 100%02 for 3-5 min at the end
evaluate pt before dismissing
    MED calculations and gtts per minute      
1000 g = 1 kg 1 mL = 15 gtt1000 mg = 1 mg 1 minim = 1 gtt1000 ng = 1 mcg 1 t = 60 gtt1000 mcg = 1 mg 3 t = 1 T1000 mL= 1 L 1 oz = 2 T100 mL = 1 dL 1 dram = 50 grains1 kg = 2.2 lbsTo calculate the flow rate using the ratio and proportion method:1. Determine the number of ml the client will receive in an hour2. Determine the number of ml the client will receive in a minute3. Determine the drops per minute that will equal the number of ml computed in step 2. The drop rate specified for the IV set being used must be considered in this step. The drop is expressed as a ratio of gtt/mL. Example: The HCP prescribes 3000 mL of D5W IV over a 24 hr period. If the IV set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtt/mL, how many drops must be administered per minute?Calculate mL/hr 3000 mL = x mL 24 hr 1 hr X = 125 mL/hr Calculate mL/min 125 mL = x mL 60 min 1 min x = 2 ml/minCalculate gtt/min 15 gtt = x gtt 1 mL 2 mL/min x = 30 gtt/minExample: How long will it take to complete an IV infusion of 1.t L of D5W being administered at the rate of 45 gtt/min? The IV set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtt/mL. 1. Determine mL /min being infused: Drop rate of IV set = 15 gtt = 45 gtt 1 ml x mL 15x = 45 X = 3 mL/minCalculate mL/hr:3 mL/min X 60 min/hr = 180 mL/hrCalculate hrs required to administer total volume of solution. If 180 mL are delivered each hr, then how many hrs are required to administer 1500 mL? 180 mL = 1500 mL 1 hr X hr 180 x = 1500 X = 8.3 hr or 8 hr 20 min
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