16) A consensus sequence
A) is a hypothetical sequence.
B) indicates the nucleotides most commonly found at each position.
C) describes the most efficient promoter sequence for the RNA polymerase holoenzyme.
D) All of the above
35) The correct order for the formation of the prokaryotic 70S initiation complex is
A) 50S IF-1, IF-2 mRNA fMet-tRNAfmet 30S
B) 30S IF-1, IF-3 fMet-tRNAfmet IF-2 mRNA 50S
C) 30S IF-1, IF-3 IF-2 fMet-tRNAfmet mRNA 50S
D) 30S IF-1, IF-2 IF-3 fMet-tRNAfmet
77) More energy is used to form a single peptide bond than is required for the bond formation
78) Streptomycin can be used clinically because it inhibits bacterial protein synthesis but not
eukaryotic protein synthesis
51) Puromycin is an antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis because
A) it binds a ribosomal protein.
B) it inhibits peptidyl transferase.
C) it binds to the 50S subunit preventing translocation.
D) it looks like aminoacyl-tRNA and binds to the A site.
43) The role of GTP in the elongation phase of protein synthesis is to supply energy for
A) peptide bond formation.
B) formation of aminoacyl-tRNA molecules.
C) movement of mRNA along the ribosome.
D) changing the configuration of EF-Tu-GTP.
E) All of the
1) How many possible codons (of normal size) are possible using the bases found in DNA?
2) Of all the possible triplet codons, _ do not code for an amino acid.
37) In packaging the eukaryotic DNA into nucleosomes, it is thought that the requirement for
_ and their synthesis is a cause of the slower rate of movement of the replication fork.
A) Okazaki fragments
B) larger DNA molecules
C) increase number of access
30) A molecule that specifically recognizes the desired piece of DNA in a large library is known as
31) Which of the following may function as a labeled probe?