1. Why is cost accumulation simpler in a process costing system than it is in a job-order costing system?
Why aren't actual overhead costs traced to jobs just as direct materials and direct labor costs are traced to jobs?
2. Why do companies use a predetermined overhead rate rather than actual overhead costs to apply overhead to jobs?
Would a company ever use both type of systems?
Your thoughts? Anyone?
This question was asked on May 13, 2011 and answered on May 14, 2011.
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