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In terms of the immune system - what explains the difference in reactions.

For example, the

first exposure to a foreign substance with a bee sting or nut allergy is generally mild. It is the second encounter, when antibodies should have been formed to recognize the substance and respond accordingly. Why wasn't an adaptive immunity formed meaning the body would more effectively combat the substance, eliminating the need for pen and alike.

Also, under the same line of thinking, why does chicken pox (example) present in full force on the first exposure, but develops an adapted response on later exposures (exception of shingles

These two examples contradict themselves, any clarification?

Thank you!

Top Answer

The virus remains in the latent phase of infection within the nerves in the case of chickenpox. The... View the full answer

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