86. Which of the following is used to determine the exact...

86. Which of the following is used to determine the exact measurement of angles around the joint?

1.  Graded exercise test
2.  Passive ROM testing
3.  Goniometer
4.  Bioelectrical impedance

87. What exercise is most appropriate for testing muscular endurance?

1.  Push-up
2.  Bench press
3.  Back squat
4.  Bicep curl

88. All activities begin in which energy pathway?

1.  ATP/CP
2.  Oxidative
3.  Glycolytic
4.  Aerobic

89. Which of the following states that energy is never created nor destroyed, it's just transferred between entities?

1.  Newton's 1st law
2.  Law of thermodynamics
3.  Newton's 3rd law
4.  General adaptation syndrome

90. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?

1.  Stop the workout, offer her water
2.  Ask another trainer what to do
3.  Refer her to her doctor
4.  Ask the training manager what to do

91. What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn't immediately meet the demands?

1.  Oxygen deficit
2.  Oxygen debt
3.  Aerobic fitness
4.  Anaerobic fitness

92. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Latissimus dorsi
4.  Gastrocnemius

93. Which of the following measures exercise intensity?

1.  Rate of perceived exertion
2.  Daily caloric intake
3.  Basal metabolic rate
4.  Heinneman's Size Principle

94. Which type of contraction requires the muscles to "activate" but have no movement or change in muscle length?

1.  Concentric
2.  Isometric
3.  Eccentric
4.  Isotonic

95. During training, clients with hypertension should avoid which of the following?

1.  Seated resistance exercises
2.  Squat jumps
3.  Rising slowly from seated exercises
4.  Flexibility training

96. Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production?

1.  Fats
2.  Leucine
3.  Carbohydrates
4.  Valine

97. What should a cool-down include?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Dynamic balance
3.  Dynamic stretching
4.  Contract-relax method

98. Protein is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and which of the following?

1.  Calcium
2.  Sodium
3.  Potassium
4.  Nitrogen

99. A conditioned client's resting heart rate will be which of the following?

1.  Less than 60 BPM
2.  61-70 BPM
3.  71-80 BPM
4.  More than 81 BPM

100. A client with celiac disease asks for a nutrition plan, what should the trainer recommend?

1.  Refer to a dietician
2.  3-day food log to prescribe meal plan
3.  A templated meal plan
4.  Give a breakdown of macronutrients

101. Which of the following is part of stage 1 of the drawing-in phase?

1.  Demonstrating sincerity
2.  Data collection
3.  Feeling the water
4.  Goal setting

102. What are the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables per day?

1.  11-15 servings per day
2.  3-4 servings per day
3.  1-2 servings per day
4.  5-10 servings per day

103. A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe?

1.  Individual differences
2.  Progressive overload
3.  SAID
4.  GAS

104. When levels of sodium in the blood are too low, which condition can occur?

1.  Hyponatremia
2.  Dehydration
3.  Proteinuria
4.  Decreased blood sugar

105. "Keep shoulder blades down and together throughout the entire movement" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Dumbbell incline bench press
2.  Chin-up
3.  Hanging leg raise
4.  Squat

106. In which of the following is the soleus considered the prime mover?

1.  Leg extension
2.  Hamstring curl
3.  Seated calf raise
4.  Standing calf raise

107. Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from:

1.  100
2.  180
3.  220
4.  200

108. Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal?

1.  Lose 10 pounds
2.  Increase back squat by 10 pounds
3.  Workout 3 days a week
4.  Decrease mile run time by 1 minute

109. Which body type has a slower metabolic rate and does not tolerate carbohydrates well?

1.  Endomorph
2.  Mesomorph
3.  Ectomorph
4.  Endo-mesomorph

110. A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Superset training principle
2.  Set-system training principle
3.  Split system training principle
4.  Staggered sets training principle

111. Which of the following is the prime mover used in the lunge?

1.  Quadriceps
2.  Soleus
3.  Psoas
4.  Gastrocnemius

112. What bone runs parallel to the fibula?

1.  Radius
2.  Femur
3.  Tibia
4.  Ulna

113. If a client is in a hypertrophy-based phase, how many repetitions should be programmed?

1.  2-4 reps
2.  12-15 reps
3.  1-6 reps
4.  8-10 reps

114. Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and which of the following?

1.  B
2.  C
3.  K
4.  H

115. Which of the following is required for weight loss and can also result in loss of lean body mass?

1.  Positive energy balance
2.  Excess calories
3.  Negative energy balance
4.  Total energy expenditure

116. In order to calculate lean and fat mass, you must multiply the body fat percentage by which of the following?

1.  Height
2.  Age
3.  Activity level modifier
4.  Total body weight

117. Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint?

1.  Knee
2.  Ankle
3.  Thumb
4.  Atlanto-axial

118. Programming tempo runs for a client who wishes to compete in a race represents which training principle?

1.  Progressive overload
2.  SAID principle
3.  Henneman's size principle
4.  2-for-2 rule

119. A client says they have a headache, what should the trainer do?

1.  Recommend they drink water, then stop the training session
2.  Give them Advil, then stop the training session
3.  Give them a prescription medication, then continue training session
4.  Give them Advil, then continue training session

120. A client thinks they injured their shoulder, what should the trainer do?

1.  Check out the issue
2.  Have another trainer check out the issue
3.  Continue training the client
4.  Refer them to a doctor

121. Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal?

1.  Lose 10 pounds
2.  Eat out only once a week
3.  Workout 3 days a week
4.  Go for a walk daily

122. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle?

1.  Progressive overload
2.  GAS
3.  Quality training
4.  Individual differences

123. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?

1.  Increase in body weight
2.  Decreased number of infections
3.  Lowered heart rate during exercise
4.  Decrease in performance

124. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day?

1.  The trainer's discretion
2.  Client preference
3.  According to how the client's body responds
4.  It should always be 5 meals per day

125. Which of the following populations is most at risk for Osgood Schlatter's disease?

1.  Pregnant
2.  Senior
3.  Youth
4.  Disabled

126. Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff?

1.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
2.  Supraspinatus, teres major, teres pectoralis minor, subscapularis
3.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, levator scapulae

127. Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle?

1.  SAID
2.  GAS
3.  Use/disuse
4.  Individual differences

128. The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities?

1.  Running a marathon
2.  100m sprint
3.  30 minutes steady state cardio
4.  Tabata workout

129. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?

1.  Gluteus
2.  Soleus
3.  Hamstrings
4.  Quadriceps

130. Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?

1.  6-9%
2.  10-13%
3.  14-18%
4.  19-23%

131. Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?

1.  Core integration
2.  Postural development
3.  Dynamic balance
4.  Neuromuscular strength

132. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?

1.  Oxygen deficit
2.  Oxygen debt
3.  Aerobic fitness
4.  Anaerobic fitness

133. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?

1.  Asthma
2.  Hypertension
3.  Arthritis
4.  Coronary heart disease

134. A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into?

1.  Normal
2.  Overweight
3.  Obesity Class 1
4.  Underweight

135. Which of the following is the maximum arterial pressure occurring during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?

1.  Systolic pressure
2.  Diastolic pressure
3.  Heart rate
4.  Pulse

136. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?

1.  Spine
2.  Shoulder
3.  Knee
4.  Ankle

137. The "hunchback", or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation?

1.  Kyphosis
2.  Lordosis
3.  Forward head
4.  Swayback

138. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest?

1.  Increase k/cal by 250
2.  Decrease k/cal by 100
3.  Increase k/cal 100
4.  Decrease k/cal by 250

139. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?

1.  Left
2.  Front
3.  Right
4.  Back

140. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength?

1.  Bench press
2.  Push-up
3.  Zipper stretch
4.  Bicep curl

141. Which of the following is an acceptable body fat range for a male client?

1.  6-9%
2.  10-14%
3.  15-18%
4.  19-23%

142. Which of the following is the antagonist in the dumbbell curl?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Rhomboid
4.  Biceps

143. Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?

1.  Nutrient density
2.  Caloric density
3.  Phyto-density
4.  Zoo-nutrient density

144. Which type of stretching is beneficial for sports performance and involves momentum?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Self-myofascial release
3.  Contract-antagonist relax method
4.  Dynamic stretching

145. If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following?

1.  Fat mass
2.  Water weight
3.  Bone density
4.  Lean mass

146. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?

1.  Job problems
2.  Allergies
3.  Overuse stress
4.  Schedule conflicts

147. Which of the following are the four elements of fitness programs?

1.  Strength, cardio, flexibility, body composition
2.  Warm-up, cardio, strength, power
3.  Strength, power, cardio, flexibility
4.  Warm-up, strength, cardio, flexibility

148. When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer?

1.  If both parties consent to it
2.  Never
3.  If the trainer's manager knows about it
4.  Always

149. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?

1.  Tight shoulders
2.  Swayback
3.  Kyphosis
4.  Forward head

150. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?

1.  20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
2.  45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
3.  20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
4.  45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week

151. How is strength usually measured?

1.  12-minute run walk assessment
2.  Push-up test
3.  Zipper stretch test
4.  1RM test

152. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates?

1.  4
2.  3
3.  5
4.  6

153. Which of the following is an example of a polyunsaturated fatty acid?

1.  Omega-6
2.  Oleic acid
3.  Amino acids
4.  Vitamin K

154. Utilizing the FITT principle, how many times per week should a beginner client workout?

1.  2
2.  4
3.  3
4.  5

155. What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise?

1.  Crunches
2.  Straight arm pulldown
3.  Pushups
4.  Cable crossover

156. How often does an ISSA personal trainer have to renew their certification?

1.  Every year
2.  Every 2 years
3.  Every 3 years
4.  Every 4 years

157. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?

1.  Moderate aerobic training
2.  Lying in the supine position
3.  Stretching before and after exercise
4.  Consuming additional calories

158. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal?

1.  2 palm portions
2.  2 cupped handfuls
3.  1 cupped handful
4.  1 palm portion

159. Which of the following detects the magnitude of mechanical stress at the musculotendinous junction?

1.  Nociceptors
2.  Muscle spindles
3.  Golgi tendon organ
4.  Chemoreceptors

160. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?

1.  Progressively increase over a period to time
2.  Progressively decrease over a period of time
3.  Remain the same
4.  Acute decrease over a period of time

161. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the trainer discuss the client's goals?

1.  Stage 4
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 1
4.  Stage 5

162. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?

1.  Proteins
2.  Magnesium
3.  Potassium
4.  Fats

163. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber?

1.  Fast twitch
2.  Slow twitch
3.  Type-I
4.  Type-a

164. "Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Hanging leg raise
2.  Tube walking
3.  Dumbbell incline bench press
4.  Lunge

165. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?

1.  Refer to a dietician
2.  Offer a templated meal plan
3.  Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
4.  Give a breakdown of macronutrients

166. Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition?

1.  Stroke
2.  Heart attack
3.  Diabetes
4.  Pancreatitis

167. Which type of mover is MOST powerful during the contraction?

1.  Assistant mover
2.  Agonist
3.  Stabilizer
4.  Proprioceptor

168. Metabolism can be categorized in which of the following phases?

1.  Symbiosis and anabolism
2.  Morphosis and catabolism
3.  Symbiosis and catabolism
4.  Catabolism and anabolism

169. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?

1.  Actin
2.  Myosin
3.  Type II
4.  Type I

170. A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?

1.  12 min run/ walk test
2.  Medical clearance
3.  Signed waiver
4.  PAR-Q form

171. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following?

1.  Salt
2.  Fiber
3.  Water
4.  Fruit

172. The need for different phases of training helps to prevent which of the following?

1.  Peak performance
2.  Rest and recovery
3.  Enhanced performance
4.  Overtraining

173. High impact exercise could be problematic for diabetics due to which of the following?

1.  Muscle cramps
2.  Nerve damage
3.  Headaches
4.  Dehydration

174. High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following?

1.  140-159/90-99
2.  120/80
3.  130-139/85-89
4.  160/100

175. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?

1.  1-3
2.  2-4
3.  7-8
4.  5-6

176. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Macrocycle
2.  Mesocycle
3.  Microcycle
4.  Foundational

177. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass?

1.  Body fat calculation
2.  Girth measurements
3.  Scale weight
4.  Photographs

178. Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar?

1.  Protein powder
2.  Fish oil
3.  Vitamin D
4.  Magnesium

179. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?

1.  Heimlich maneuver
2.  Valsalva maneuver
3.  Mueller maneuver
4.  Diaphragmatic maneuver

180. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?

1.  Rest-pause
2.  Pyramid
3.  Occlusion
4.  Superset

181. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?

1.  Type I
2.  Type II
3.  Type IIA
4.  Type III

182. Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?

1.  Extremely thin
2.  Extremely muscular
3.  Ectomorph
4.  Mesomorph

183. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?

1.  Mesocycle
2.  Macrocycle
3.  Recovery cycle
4.  Microcycle

184. In an endurance mesocycle of a beginner's program, which rep and set scheme would be most appropriate?

1.  12-15 reps, 3 sets
2.  4-6 reps, 1 set
3.  8-10 reps, 4 sets
4.  2-5 reps, 5 sets

185. Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates?

1.  Sugar, animal proteins, starch
2.  Fiber, sugar, starch
3.  Starch, fiber, animal proteins
4.  Fiber, sugar, animal proteins

186. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

1.  Vitamin H
2.  Reservatrol
3.  Beta Alanine
4.  Vitamin C

187. How often should information be collected when working with a client?

1.  Only on the initial assessment
2.  Once a month
3.  Every time a trainer meets with them
4.  Only at reassessments

188. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?

1.  Actin and tropomyosin
2.  Tropin and myosin
3.  Tropoactin and myosin
4.  Actin and myosin

189. In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data?

1.  Stage 1
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 2
4.  Stage 4

190. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?

1.  Trainer
2.  Client
3.  Nutritionist
4.  Physician

191. Which of the following does HIT stand for?

1.  Healthy integrated training
2.  High integrated technique
3.  High intensity training
4.  Hyper-integrated technique

192. What is the daily water consumption recommendation?

1.  1 Liter
2.  4 Liters
3.  3 Liters
4.  2 Liters

193. The incorporation of which of the following in a program can help reduce the extent of DOMS?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Warm-up
3.  Cool-down
4.  HIIT

194. A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%?

1.  145
2.  155
3.  165
4.  135

195. Which of the following describes a mesomorphic body type?

1.  Slim and linear
2.  Muscular
3.  Short and stout
4.  Round

196. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client?

1.  1 thumb
2.  2 thumbs
3.  1 fist
4.  2 fists

197. Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart?

1.  Systolic pressure
2.  Heart rate
3.  Diastolic pressure
4.  Pulse

198. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?

1.  Anaerobic exercise
2.  Aerobic exercise
3.  Energy metabolism
4.  ATP/CP pathway

199. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?

1.  Type IIx
2.  Type II
3.  Fast twitch
4.  Slow twitch

200. What percentage of your total body weight is made up of water?

1.  70
2.  60
3.  35
4.  25