122. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing...

122. Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle?

1.  Progressive overload
2.  GAS
3.  Quality training
4.  Individual differences

123. Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?

1.  Increase in body weight
2.  Decreased number of infections
3.  Lowered heart rate during exercise
4.  Decrease in performance

124. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day?

1.  The trainer's discretion
2.  Client preference
3.  According to how the client's body responds
4.  It should always be 5 meals per day

125. Which of the following populations is most at risk for Osgood Schlatter's disease?

1.  Pregnant
2.  Senior
3.  Youth
4.  Disabled

126. Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff?

1.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
2.  Supraspinatus, teres major, teres pectoralis minor, subscapularis
3.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, levator scapulae

127. Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle?

1.  SAID
2.  GAS
3.  Use/disuse
4.  Individual differences

128. The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities?

1.  Running a marathon
2.  100m sprint
3.  30 minutes steady state cardio
4.  Tabata workout

129. The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?

1.  Gluteus
2.  Soleus
3.  Hamstrings
4.  Quadriceps

130. Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?

1.  6-9%
2.  10-13%
3.  14-18%
4.  19-23%

131. Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?

1.  Core integration
2.  Postural development
3.  Dynamic balance
4.  Neuromuscular strength

132. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?

1.  Oxygen deficit
2.  Oxygen debt
3.  Aerobic fitness
4.  Anaerobic fitness

133. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?

1.  Asthma
2.  Hypertension
3.  Arthritis
4.  Coronary heart disease

134. A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into?

1.  Normal
2.  Overweight
3.  Obesity Class 1
4.  Underweight

135. Which of the following is the maximum arterial pressure occurring during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart?

1.  Systolic pressure
2.  Diastolic pressure
3.  Heart rate
4.  Pulse

136. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?

1.  Spine
2.  Shoulder
3.  Knee
4.  Ankle

137. The "hunchback", or rounded appearance of the upper back is known as which postural deviation?

1.  Kyphosis
2.  Lordosis
3.  Forward head
4.  Swayback

138. A weight loss client is currently exercising 5+ hours a week and hits a plateau. What adjustments should a trainer suggest?

1.  Increase k/cal by 250
2.  Decrease k/cal by 100
3.  Increase k/cal 100
4.  Decrease k/cal by 250

139. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?

1.  Left
2.  Front
3.  Right
4.  Back

140. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength?

1.  Bench press
2.  Push-up
3.  Zipper stretch
4.  Bicep curl

141. Which of the following is an acceptable body fat range for a male client?

1.  6-9%
2.  10-14%
3.  15-18%
4.  19-23%

142. Which of the following is the antagonist in the dumbbell curl?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Rhomboid
4.  Biceps

143. Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?

1.  Nutrient density
2.  Caloric density
3.  Phyto-density
4.  Zoo-nutrient density

144. Which type of stretching is beneficial for sports performance and involves momentum?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Self-myofascial release
3.  Contract-antagonist relax method
4.  Dynamic stretching

145. If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following?

1.  Fat mass
2.  Water weight
3.  Bone density
4.  Lean mass

146. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?

1.  Job problems
2.  Allergies
3.  Overuse stress
4.  Schedule conflicts

147. Which of the following are the four elements of fitness programs?

1.  Strength, cardio, flexibility, body composition
2.  Warm-up, cardio, strength, power
3.  Strength, power, cardio, flexibility
4.  Warm-up, strength, cardio, flexibility

148. When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer?

1.  If both parties consent to it
2.  Never
3.  If the trainer's manager knows about it
4.  Always

149. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?

1.  Tight shoulders
2.  Swayback
3.  Kyphosis
4.  Forward head

150. Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?

1.  20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
2.  45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
3.  20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
4.  45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week

151. How is strength usually measured?

1.  12-minute run walk assessment
2.  Push-up test
3.  Zipper stretch test
4.  1RM test

152. Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates?

1.  4
2.  3
3.  5
4.  6

153. Which of the following is an example of a polyunsaturated fatty acid?

1.  Omega-6
2.  Oleic acid
3.  Amino acids
4.  Vitamin K

154. Utilizing the FITT principle, how many times per week should a beginner client workout?

1.  2
2.  4
3.  3
4.  5

155. What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise?

1.  Crunches
2.  Straight arm pulldown
3.  Pushups
4.  Cable crossover

156. How often does an ISSA personal trainer have to renew their certification?

1.  Every year
2.  Every 2 years
3.  Every 3 years
4.  Every 4 years

157. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?

1.  Moderate aerobic training
2.  Lying in the supine position
3.  Stretching before and after exercise
4.  Consuming additional calories

158. What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal?

1.  2 palm portions
2.  2 cupped handfuls
3.  1 cupped handful
4.  1 palm portion

159. Which of the following detects the magnitude of mechanical stress at the musculotendinous junction?

1.  Nociceptors
2.  Muscle spindles
3.  Golgi tendon organ
4.  Chemoreceptors

160. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?

1.  Progressively increase over a period to time
2.  Progressively decrease over a period of time
3.  Remain the same
4.  Acute decrease over a period of time

161. During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the trainer discuss the client's goals?

1.  Stage 4
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 1
4.  Stage 5

162. Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?

1.  Proteins
2.  Magnesium
3.  Potassium
4.  Fats

163. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber?

1.  Fast twitch
2.  Slow twitch
3.  Type I
4.  Type-A

164. "Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Hanging leg raise
2.  Tube walking
3.  Dumbbell incline bench press
4.  Lunge

165. A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?

1.  Refer to a dietician
2.  Offer a templated meal plan
3.  Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
4.  Give a breakdown of macronutrients

166. Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition?

1.  Stroke
2.  Heart attack
3.  Diabetes
4.  Pancreatitis

167. Which type of mover is MOST powerful during the contraction?

1.  Assistant mover
2.  Agonist
3.  Stabilizer
4.  Proprioceptor

168. Metabolism can be categorized in which of the following phases?

1.  Symbiosis and anabolism
2.  Morphosis and catabolism
3.  Symbiosis and catabolism
4.  Catabolism and anabolism

169. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?

1.  Actin
2.  Myosin
3.  Type II
4.  Type I

170. A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?

1.  12 min run/ walk test
2.  Medical clearance
3.  Signed waiver
4.  PAR-Q form

171. Individuals with hypertension should moderate their intake of which of the following?

1.  Salt
2.  Fiber
3.  Water
4.  Fruit

172. The need for different phases of training helps to prevent which of the following?

1.  Peak performance
2.  Rest and recovery
3.  Enhanced performance
4.  Overtraining

173. High impact exercise could be problematic for diabetics due to which of the following?

1.  Muscle cramps
2.  Nerve damage
3.  Headaches
4.  Dehydration

174. High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following?

1.  140-159/90-99
2.  120/80
3.  130-139/85-89
4.  160/100

175. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?

1.  1-3
2.  2-4
3.  7-8
4.  5-6

176. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Macrocycle
2.  Mesocycle
3.  Microcycle
4.  Foundational

177. Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass?

1.  Body fat calculation
2.  Girth measurements
3.  Scale weight
4.  Photographs

178. Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar?

1.  Protein powder
2.  Fish oil
3.  Vitamin D
4.  Magnesium

179. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?

1.  Heimlich maneuver
2.  Valsalva maneuver
3.  Mueller maneuver
4.  Diaphragmatic maneuver

180. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?

1.  Rest-pause
2.  Pyramid
3.  Occlusion
4.  Superset

181. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?

1.  Type I
2.  Type II
3.  Type IIA
4.  Type III

182. Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?

1.  Extremely thin
2.  Extremely muscular
3.  Ectomorph
4.  Mesomorph

183. Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?

1.  Mesocycle
2.  Macrocycle
3.  Recovery cycle
4.  Microcycle

184. In an endurance mesocycle of a beginner's program, which rep and set scheme would be most appropriate?

1.  12-15 reps, 3 sets
2.  4-6 reps, 1 set
3.  8-10 reps, 4 sets
4.  2-5 reps, 5 sets

185. Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates?

1.  Sugar, animal proteins, starch
2.  Fiber, sugar, starch
3.  Starch, fiber, animal proteins
4.  Fiber, sugar, animal proteins

186. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

1.  Vitamin H
2.  Reservatrol
3.  Beta Alanine
4.  Vitamin C

187. How often should information be collected when working with a client?

1.  Only on the initial assessment
2.  Once a month
3.  Every time a trainer meets with them
4.  Only at reassessments

188. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?

1.  Actin and tropomyosin
2.  Tropin and myosin
3.  Tropoactin and myosin
4.  Actin and myosin

189. In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data?

1.  Stage 1
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 2
4.  Stage 4

190. Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?

1.  Trainer
2.  Client
3.  Nutritionist
4.  Physician

191. Which of the following does HIT stand for?

1.  Healthy integrated training
2.  High integrated technique
3.  High intensity training
4.  Hyper-integrated technique

192. What is the daily water consumption recommendation?

1.  1 Liter
2.  4 Liters
3.  3 Liters
4.  2 Liters

193. The incorporation of which of the following in a program can help reduce the extent of DOMS?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Warm-up
3.  Cool-down
4.  HIIT

194. A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%?

1.  145
2.  155
3.  165
4.  135

195. Which of the following describes a mesomorphic body type?

1.  Slim and linear
2.  Muscular
3.  Short and stout
4.  Round

196. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client?

1.  1 thumb
2.  2 thumbs
3.  1 fist
4.  2 fists

197. Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart?

1.  Systolic pressure
2.  Heart rate
3.  Diastolic pressure
4.  Pulse

198. How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?

1.  Anaerobic exercise
2.  Aerobic exercise
3.  Energy metabolism
4.  ATP/CP pathway

199. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?

1.  Type IIx
2.  Type II
3.  Fast twitch
4.  Slow twitch

200. What percentage of your total body weight is made up of water?

1.  70
2.  60
3.  35
4.  25