A 26-year-old, otherwise healthy male presents limping into the examination room, holding his right shoe in his hand. He grimaces with partial weight-bearing of the affected foot. He has local ecchymosis and 1+ edema over the anterolateral ligaments of the right ankle. Capillary refill, pulses, and sensation of the foot and toes are intact. There is no lateral or anterior instability of the joint or tendons. X-ray of the ankle and foot are negative for fracture or dislocation. He has a grade I lateral ankle sprain.
- What pain relieving medications would you prescribe? Defend your choice.
- How would your prescribe them?
- What side effects should you educate the patient about?
- Does the age of the patient influence what your choice?