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In this experiment, you are working with available planter pots from the laboratory.
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In this experiment, you are working with available planter pots from

the laboratory. You have choices of clay pots of different sizes, as well as biodegradable peat pots and others within lab equipment provided. To establish a standardized variable, you would 
A. 
monitor the strawberry growth rates and determine a mathematical correction to account for the a typeand size of pot used.
 
B. 
report the pot type used, though recognizing the pot is not as important as fertilizer and light to the strawberries.
 
C. 
select all sixteen pots to be of the same material and size for the experiment.
 
D. 
choose clay pots for the fertilized plants, and biodegradable pots for the unfertilized plants.
 
Group of answer choices




A


D


C


B


E
 
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Question 2
2 pts
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory 
A. 
has predictive power for similar phenomena that haven't been observed yet.
 
B. 
ties together many existing observations.
 
C. 
has more supportive research evidence than a hypothesis.
 
D. 
is broader in scope than a hypothesis.
 
E. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
Group of answer choices




C


B


E


D


A
 
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Question 3
2 pts
Homeostasis means that 
A. 
conditions inside a cell or organism remain within a constant range.
 
B. 
environmental conditions are held constant and do not change.
 
C. 
cells have enough water.
 
D. 
a population changes over time.
 
E. 
all organisms require an energy source.
Group of answer choices




A


E


C


D


B
 
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Question 4
2 pts
Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond the individual? 
A. 
population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
 
B. 
community - population - ecosystem - biosphere
 
C. 
population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
 
D. 
community - population - biosphere - ecosystem
 
E. 
ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
Group of answer choices




C


B


A


D


E
 
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Question 5
2 pts
A major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes 
A. 
have a nucleus in their cells, while eukaryotes do not.
 
B. 
do not have a nucleus in their cells, though eukaryotes do.
 
C. 
do not have DNA, as eukaryotes do.
 
D. 
have cell walls, while eukaryotes do not.
Group of answer choices




C


A


D


B
 
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Question 6
2 pts
Which of the following would not be a "control" in an experimental procedure? 
A. 
a "zero-value" group
 
B. 
an experimental group
 
C. 
a placebo group
 
D. 
a known standard of comparison
 
E. 
a normal group
Group of answer choices




B


A


D


E


C
 
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Question 7
2 pts
The mass number is defined as the total number of __________ of an atom. 
A. 
neutrons and electrons
 
B. 
protons
 
C. 
protons, neutrons, and electrons
 
D. 
protons and neutrons
 
E. 
protons and electrons
Group of answer choices




A


D


C


B
 
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Question 8
2 pts
In an ionic bond,  
A. 
two atoms both become strongly electronegative and attract each other.
 
B. 
atoms attract each other by sharing electrons to fill their valence shells.
 
C. 
atoms, having gained or lost electrons, attract one another with opposite charges.
 
D. 
two atoms are attracted by partial positive and negative charges.
Group of answer choices




C


D


A


B
 
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Question 9
2 pts
An acid 
A. 
has a value above seven on the pH scale.
 
B. 
is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution.
 
C. 
has a value of seven on the pH scale.
 
D. 
is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution.
 
E. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
Group of answer choices




B


C


A


D
 
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Question 10
2 pts
The atomic number of an element is the number of 
A. 
protons in the orbitals.
 
B. 
neutrons in the orbitals.
 
C. 
neutrons in the nucleus.
 
D. 
protons in the nucleus.
 
E. 
electrons in the nucleus.
Group of answer choices




E


A


B


D


C
 
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Question 11
2 pts
A phospholipid molecule has 
A. 
hydrophilic tails that are repelled by water.
 
B. 
a hydrophobic head that is repelled by water.
 
C. 
hydrophobic tails that are attracted to water.
 
D. 
a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water.
 
E. 
a hydrophilic head that is repelled by water.
Group of answer choices




D


E


B


C


A
 
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Question 12
2 pts
The four major groups of organic compounds are 
A. 
carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides.
 
B. 
lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids.
 
C. 
carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
 
D. 
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
 
E. 
fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
Group of answer choices




E


B


A


C


D
 
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Question 13
2 pts
Which are recycling centers for the cell? 
A. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
B. 
ribosome and Golgi apparatus
 
C. 
mitochondria and nucleus
 
D. 
central vacuole and lysosome
 
E. 
endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplast
Group of answer choices




B


E


D


A


C
 
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Question 14
2 pts
Chloroplasts are not 
A. 
responsible for cellular respiration.
 
B. 
organelles that carry out photosynthesis.
 
C. 
found in plants.
 
D. 
glucose synthesizers.
 
E. 
found in some members of the kingdom Protista.
Group of answer choices




D


A


C


B


E
 
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Question 15
2 pts
Which of the following organelles are cellular digestion centers? 
A. 
lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
 
B. 
peroxisomes and ribosomes
 
C. 
lysosomes and peroxisomes
 
D. 
chloroplasts and ribosomes
 
E. 
ribosomes and chloroplasts
Group of answer choices




D


E


C


B


A
 
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Question 16
2 pts
Between their specialized functions, the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum do not 
A. 
produce lipids.
 
B. 
form vesicles for transport to the Golgi apparatus.
 
C. 
produce mRNA.
 
D. 
detoxify poisons.
 
E. 
produce proteins.
Group of answer choices




B


C


D


E


A
 
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Question 17
2 pts
Nuclear pores have proteins that open and close, controlling flow of cell solutions and molecules in and out of the nuclear envelope (a double-thick membrane). In this, nuclear pores are similar in structure and function to 
 


A. 
gap junctions.
 
B. 
vacuoles.
 
C. 
cilia.
 
D. 
cytoskeleton microtubules.
 
Group of answer choices




C


B


E


D


A
 
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Question 18
2 pts
Active transport is different from simple diffusion in that active transport 
A. 
moves molecules against a concentration gradient.
 
B. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
C. 
requires proteins embedded within the cell membrane.
 
D. 
requires energy.
 
E. 
moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.
Group of answer choices




B


C


A


D


E
 
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Question 19
2 pts
Simple diffusion 
 


A. 
does not require energy.
 
B. 
utilizes proteins to move molecules across a membrane.
 
C. 
requires energy.
 
D. 
cannot occur without a membrane present.
 
E. 
moves molecules against a concentration gradient.
Group of answer choices




D


C


A


E


B
 
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Question 20
2 pts
An endergonic reaction is a reaction that is characterized by 
A. 
yielding larger product molecules than the original reactants.
 
B. 
yielding smaller product molecules than the original reactants.
 
C. 
having products with lower energy than the reactants.
 
D. 
having products with higher energy than the reactants.
 
E. 
often having higher energy in product molecules than the reactants, and yielding larger product molecules.
Group of answer choices




A


C


B


D


E
 
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Question 21
2 pts
Oxidation-reduction reactions 
A. 
remove protons from one molecule and join them to another molecule.
 
B. 
remove electrons from both molecules involved.
 
C. 
remove oxygen from the cell.
 
D. 
never occur at the same time.
 
E. 
occur simultaneously.
Group of answer choices




C


B


E


A


D
 
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Question 22
2 pts
Products of the carbon reaction/Calvin cycle are;
A. Carbon dioxide , glucose, and water
B. Glucose only
C. , Glucose and ATP, oxygen
D. ATP, NADPH, and CO2
E. ATP, NADPH and oxygen
Group of answer choices




D


A


E


C


B
 
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Question 23
2 pts
Products of the light reaction are:
A. Carbon dioxide , electrons, and water
B. Water, ATP, NADPH, oxygen
C. NADPH, Glucose and ATP, oxygen
D. ATP, NADPH, water and CO2
E. ATP, NADPH and oxygen
 
Group of answer choices




B


E


D


C


A
 
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Question 24
2 pts
Reactants of the carbon reaction/Calvin cycle are;
A. Carbon dioxide , electrons, and water
B. Water, ATP, NADPH, oxygen
C. NADPH, Glucose and ATP, oxygen
D. ATP, NADPH, and CO2
E. ATP, NADPH and oxygen
Group of answer choices




A


E


C


B


D
 
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Question 25
2 pts
Reactants of the light reaction are;
A. Carbon dioxide, Water, Glucose
B. Glucose , ATP and Water
C. Water, Sunlight and glucose
D. Water and sunlight only
E. Water Carbon dioxide and sunlight
 
 
Group of answer choices




B


D


C


E


A
 
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Question 26
2 pts
Identify which of these places the steps of cellular aerobic respiration in the correct sequence. 
A. 
glycolysis - formation of Acetyl CoA - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain - ADP phosphorylation
 
B. 
photosystem II - electron transport chain - photosystem I - carbon reactions
 
C. 
glycolysis - electron transport chain - Krebs cycle - formation of Acetyl CoA - ADP phosphorylation
 
D. 
None of these are correct, because they all fail to include the formation of glucose molecules.
 
E. 
ADP phosphorylation - formation of Acetyl CoA - glycolysis - Krebs cycle - electron transport chain 
 
Group of answer choices




B


D


E


A


C
 
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Question 27
2 pts
The net ATP production in glycolysis is only two because 
A. 
two ATPs are used to "activate" glucose, while 4 ATPs are produced in remaining glycolysis steps.
 
B. 
that is all the ATPs "loaded" with phosphates during glycolysis.
 
C. 
two ATPs are used to donate electrons, in order to move NADH into the mitochondria.
 
D. 
None of the answer choices are correct, because six ATPs are the net yield from glycolysis.
 
E. 
that is the needed number of ATPs to power the reactions of the Krebs cycle.
 
Group of answer choices




C


A


D


B


E
 
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Question 28
2 pts
Glycolysis occurs in the 
A. 
cytoplasm.
 
B. 
cell membrane.
 
C. 
mitochondria.
 
D. 
nucleus.
 
E. 
lysosome.
 
Group of answer choices




B


C


E


D


A
 
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Question 29
2 pts
The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis, shown in correct sequence in this diagram, is 
 
A. 
interphase - metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase.
 
B. 
prophase - prometaphase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase.
 
C. 
prometaphase - prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase.
 
D. 
interphase - prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase.
 
E. 
prophase - metaphase - prometaphase - anaphase - telophase.
 
Group of answer choices




E


E


D


B


A
 
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Question 30
2 pts
Meiosis is a process used for 
 
A. 
growth of an organism.
 
B. 
repair of damaged cells.
 
C. 
production of gametes.
 
D. 
asexual reproduction.
 
E. 
production of stem cells.
 
Group of answer choices




E


B


A


C
 
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Question 31
2 pts


Group of answer choices




No answer text provided.


No answer text provided.


No answer text provided.


No answer text provided.
 
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Question 32
2 pts
The four nitrogen bases that are found in the different nucleotides of DNA are 
 
A. 
adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine.
 
B. 
uracil, adenine, cytosine, guanine.
 
C. 
None of the answer choices are correct.
 
D. 
adenine, thymine, cytosine, uracil.
 
E. 
uracil, cytosine, guanine, thymine.
 
Group of answer choices




D


E


B


A


C
 
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Question 33
2 pts
A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to 
 
A. 
DNA and to mRNA codons.
 
B. 
promoters and to terminators.
 
C. 
promoters and to amino acids.
 
D. 
codons of mRNA and to amino acids.
 
E. 
amino acids and to DNA.
 
Group of answer choices




C


D


A


E


B
 
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Question 34
2 pts
The genome of an organism is all of its 
 
A. 
genetic material.
 
B. 
RNA.
 
C. 
characteristics.
 
D. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
E. 
proteins.
 
Group of answer choices




D


A


C


B


E
 
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Question 35
2 pts
In humans, alleles for each gene are inherited from 
 
A. 
males only (dads).
 
B. 
females only (moms).
 
C. 
None of the answer choices are correct.
 
D. 
males and females (one allele from each parent).
 
E. 
males and females (two alleles from each parent).
 
Group of answer choices




E


E


D


A


C
 
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Question 36
2 pts
If you cross two pea plants, one with green peas and the other with yellow peas, you find all of the offspring have yellow peas. You conclude the yellow parent was 
 
A. 
heterozygous.
 
B. 
homozygous for the recessive gene.
 
C. 
homozygous for the dominant gene.
 
D. 
homozygous for the dominant allele.
 
E. 
homozygous for the recessive allele.
 
Group of answer choices




A


E


B


D


C
 
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Question 37
2 pts
If a pea plant is heterozygous for yellow seeds (Yy), which gametes could it produce? 
 
A. 
Yy
 
B. 
y only
 
C. 
YYyy
 
D. 
Y only
 
E. 
Y or y
 
Group of answer choices




E


D


A


B


C
 
Flag this Question
Question 38
2 pts
A dihybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are each ______________ for ___________ gene (genes). 
 
A. 
heterozygous; two
 
B. 
homologous; two
 
C. 
homozygous; one
 
D. 
homozygous; two
 
E. 
heterozygous; one
 
Group of answer choices




E


D


C


B


A
 
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Question 39
2 pts
Mendel observed that some genetic traits seemed to mask others in the pea plants, and used the term ___ to describe these traits. 
 
A. 
homozygous
 
B. 
heterozygous
 
C. 
recessive
 
D. 
dominant
 
E. 
homologous
 
Group of answer choices




B


E


C


D


A
 
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Question 40
2 pts
Gametes may carry different combinations of alleles because of 
 
A. 
random fertilization and crossing over.
 
B. 
random fertilization.
 
C. 
random fertilization and alignment of chromosomes.
 
D. 
crossing over and random alignment of chromosomes.
 
E. 
random alignment of chromosomes.
 
Group of answer choices




B


C


E


D


A
 
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Question 41
2 pts
Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. If a normal man marries a woman who is a carrier, what fraction of their sons will have hemophilia? 
 
A. 
50%
 
B. 
75%
 
C. 
100%
 
D. 
25%
 
E. 
0%
 
Group of answer choices




A


D


C


B


E
 
Flag this Question
Question 42
2 pts
If the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between those of the two different homozygotes, this is called 
 
A. 
epistasis.
 
B. 
incomplete dominance.
 
C. 
independent assortment.
 
D. 
polygenic.
 
E. 
codominance.
 
Group of answer choices




D


C


A


B


E
 
Flag this Question
Question 43
2 pts
Phenotype means 
 
A. 
the number of chromosomes in an individual.
 
B. 
the genes an individual has.
 
C. 
the combination of alleles in an individual.
 
D. 
the observable expression of the genes in an individual.
 
E. 
the number of gametes in an individual.
 
Group of answer choices




C


E


D


B


A
 
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Question 44
2 pts
In order for a girl to inherit hemophilia A, her parents would have which genotypes? 
 
A. 
XHXh, and XHY
 
B. 
XHXh, and XhY
 
C. 
XhXh, and XHy
 
D. 
XHXH, and XHY
 
E. 
XHXH, and XHy
 
Group of answer choices




A


E


C


B


D
 
Flag this Question
Question 45
2 pts
A portion (location) of DNA that encodes a specific protein is a 
 
A. 
chromatid.
 
B. 
chromosome.
 
C. 
centromere.
 
D. 
kinetochore.
 
E. 
gene.
 
Group of answer choices




E


D


C


B


A
 
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Question 46
2 pts
The founder effect occurs when 
 


A. 
large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
 
B. 
small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
 
C. 
many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.
 
D. 
many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population.
Group of answer choices




C


E


D


A


B
 
Flag this Question
Question 47
2 pts
The bottleneck effect occurs when 
 


A. 
small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
 
B. 
many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.
 
C. 
many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population.
 
D. 
large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
Group of answer choices




B


D


E


C


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 48
2 pts
Malthus' ideas on population resource limits, was incorporated by Darwin as the summary that natural selection 
 


A. 
preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population.
 
B. 
preserves harmful variations and rejects favorable variations in a population.
 
C. 
preserves favorable and harmful variations in a population.
 
D. 
neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population.
Group of answer choices




E


D


B


A


C
 
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Question 49
2 pts
Darwin concluded from his observations of nature and readings that 
 


A. 
population growth is unlimited, leading to the large numbers of organisms.
 
B. 
species do not change over time.
 
C. 
individuals compete with one another for limited resources and only the fittest survive.
 
D. 
an individual's likelihood of survival and reproduction are mostly due to chance and changes in the environment.
 
E. 
individuals compete with one another for limited resources and only the fittest reproduce.
Group of answer choices




A


B


C


E


D
 
Flag this Question
Question 50
2 pts
The normal pH of rainfall is 
A. 
slightly acidic, pH 5.6.
 
B. 
slightly basic, pH 5.6.
 
C. 
slightly acidic, pH 9.6.
 
D. 
slightly basic, pH 9.6.
 
E. 
neutral, pH 7.0.
 
Group of answer choices




D


E


C


A


B
 
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Question 51
2 pts
An increase in the surface temperature of Earth, caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere, is known as
A. 
the greenhouse effect.
 
B. 
the biome effect.
 
C. 
bioremediation.
 
D. 
desertification.
 
E. 
the nursery effect.
Group of answer choices




C


D


A


E


B
 
Flag this Question
Question 52
2 pts
The total of all the resources, both biotic and abiotic, a species exploits for its survival, growth, and reproduction is its 
 


A. 
competitive zone.
 
B. 
habitat.
 
C. 
biosphere.
 
D. 
food web.
 
E. 
niche.
Group of answer choices




D


E


C


B


A
 
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Question 53
2 pts
A type of symbiosis in which both species benefit is 
 


A. 
commensalism.
 
B. 
mutualism.
 
C. 
intraspecific competition.
 
D. 
parasitism.
 
E. 
predation.
Group of answer choices




C


D


A


E


B
 
Flag this Question
Question 54
2 pts
An ecosystem is defined as 
 
 


A. 
all of the individuals of the same species living in an area.
 
B. 
all of the members of all of the species living in an area.
 
C. 
the physical place and environmental surroundings in which individual organisms live.
 
D. 
the set of environmental resources that each organism requires for survival, growth, reproduction, etc.
 
E. 
the sum of living organisms and nonliving environmental components in an area.
Group of answer choices




C


D


E


B


A
 
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Question 55
2 pts
A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females. While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating, what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male? 
 


A. 
There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers.
 
B. 
Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation.
 
C. 
The feathers make the male more attractive to other males.
 
D. 
The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly.
 
E. 
The feathers require a lot of energy to produce.
Group of answer choices




D


E


E


C


B
 
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Question 56
2 pts
How is tropical deforestation linked to climate change? 
A. 
Burning the forests releases carbon dioxide, and transpiration by trees is diminished.
 
B. 
Burning the forests releases carbon dioxide, and transpiration by trees is increased.
 
C. 
Burning the forests consumes oxygen, and transpiration by trees is diminished.
 
D. 
Burning the forests consumes oxygen, and transpiration by trees is increased.
 
E. 
None of the answer choices is correct.
Group of answer choices




C


A


D


E


B
 
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Question 57
2 pts
A type of symbiosis in which one member of the relationship benefits with no effect on the other is 
 


A. 
mutualism.
 
B. 
commensalism.
 
C. 
parasitism.
 
D. 
intraspecific competition.
 
E. 
predation.
Group of answer choices




B


E


D


C


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 58
2 pts
When two or more species vie for the same limited resource, _____ occurs. 
 


A. 
competition
 
B. 
succession
 
C. 
stotting
 
D. 
symbiosis
 
E. 
coevolution
Group of answer choices




D


A


E


B


C
 
Flag this Question
Question 59
2 pts
Decomposers 
 


A. 
include fungi.
 
B. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
C. 
obtain nutrients from detritus.
 
D. 
return organic molecules to an inorganic form.
 
Group of answer choices




E


D


C


B


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 60
2 pts
The energy-requiring process by which liquid water becomes water vapor (a gas) is 
 


A. 
convection.
 
B. 
evaporation.
 
C. 
sublimation.
 
D. 
condensation.
 
E. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
Group of answer choices




B


D


A


C


E
 
Flag this Question
Question 61
2 pts
The _____ cycle begins with the weathering of rock. 
 


A. 
nitrogen
 
B. 
carbon
 
C. 
phosphorus
 
D. 
water
 
E. 
energy
Group of answer choices




B


A


E


C


D
 
Flag this Question
Question 62
2 pts
Abiotic components of an ecosystem include 
 


A. 
both living and nonliving components.
 
B. 
all components except animal life.
 
C. 
only animal life.
 
D. 
nonliving components only.
 
E. 
living components only.
Group of answer choices




E


C


B


D


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 63
2 pts
A relationship between different species in which one species lives in or on another is 
 


A. 
parasitism.
 
B. 
predation.
 
C. 
coevolution.
 
D. 
niche sharing.
 
E. 
resource partitioning.
Group of answer choices




A


C


D


E


B
 
Flag this Question
Question 64
2 pts
Secondary consumers are 
 


A. 
herbivores.
 
B. 
bacteria.
 
C. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
D. 
fungi.
 
E. 
carnivores.
Group of answer choices




B


C


A


D


E
 
Flag this Question
Question 65
2 pts
The ecosystem that would most likely have a very high net primary productivity is a 
 


A. 
boreal forest.
 
B. 
desert.
 
C. 
temperate forest.
 
D. 
tundra.
 
E. 
tropical rain forest.
Group of answer choices




B


A


E


C


D
 
Flag this Question
Question 66
2 pts
The total amount of energy trapped by the autotrophs of an ecosystem is called 
 


A. 
gross primary consumption.
 
B. 
net primary productivity.
 
C. 
net energy fixation.
 
D. 
gross primary productivity.
 
E. 
net primary consumption.
Group of answer choices




E


B


A


C


D
 
Flag this Question
Question 67
2 pts
Biomagnification usually happens for chemicals that 
 


A. 
are not readily degraded.
 
B. 
dissolve in water.
 
C. 
are not readily degraded and dissolve in water.
 
D. 
are not readily degraded and do dissolve in fat.
 
E. 
dissolve in fat.
Group of answer choices




C


A


D


B


E
 
Flag this Question
Question 68
2 pts
Carbon returns to the atmosphere 
 


A. 
as carbon dioxide.
 
B. 
All of the answer choices are correct.
 
C. 
from respiration of plants.
 
D. 
from respiration of animals.
 
E. 
by the burning of fossil fuels.
Group of answer choices




E


B


D


C


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 69
2 pts
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert atmospheric N2 into
 
 


A. 
nitrates.
 
B. 
nitrites.
 
C. 
ammonium.
 
D. 
carbon dioxide.
 
E. 
methane.
Group of answer choices




D


E


C


B


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 70
2 pts
An organism that can use energy and inorganic substances to produce all the organic material it requires is a(n)
 
 


A. 
producer.
 
B. 
heterotroph.
 
C. 
heterotroph and producer.
 
D. 
autotroph.
 
E. 
autotroph and producer.
Group of answer choices




D


E


B


A


C
 
Flag this Question
Question 71
2 pts
Greenhouse gases block 
A. 
carbon dioxide molecules escape from Earth.
 
B. 
heat escape from Earth.
 
C. 
oxygen molecules escape from Earth.
 
D. 
UV wavelengths escape from Earth.
 
E. 
UV wavelengths from reaching Earth's surface.
 
Group of answer choices




C


E


B


D


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 72
2 pts
A food chain is a series of organisms that 
 


A. 
shares the same niche.
 
B. 
exhibits mutualism with each other.
 
C. 
shares the same energy source.
 
D. 
succeeds one another as a climax community develops.
 
E. 
successively eats one another.
Group of answer choices




D


B


A


E


C
 
Flag this Question
Question 73
2 pts
The major types of ecosystems are termed 
 


A. 
habitats.
 
B. 
niches.
 
C. 
biospheres.
 
D. 
terrestrial zones.
 
E. 
biomes.
Group of answer choices




D


E


C


B


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 74
2 pts
An organism's _____ is its position in the food chain, relative to the ecosystem's energy source. 
 


A. 
trophic level
 
B. 
habitat
 
C. 
keystone level
 
D. 
niche
 
E. 
climax level
Group of answer choices




D


B


E


C


A
 
Flag this Question
Question 75
2 pts
Organisms that obtain their energy from producers or other consumers are 
 


A. 
heterotrophs.
 
B. 
producers.
 
C. 
autotrophs.
 
D. 
autotrophs and producers.
 
E. 
heterotrophs and producers.
Group of answer choices




C


D


E


B


A
No new data to save. Last checked at 10:14pm 

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