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Chapter 10 Student COpy.doc

Chapter 10
Multiple Choice

1. What is the purpose of a dressing?
A) To control bleeding
B) To prevent infection
C) To absorb blood
D) All of the above.

2. Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds?
A) Gauze pads
B) Adhesive strips
C) Trauma dressings
D) Both A and B.

3. Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions and is a combination of a sterile dressing and a
bandage?
A) Gauze pads
B) Adhesive strips
C) Trauma dressings
D) Both A and B.

4. What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?
A) Trauma dressings
B) Gauze pads
C) Adhesive pads
D) None of the above.

5. Which of the following is used as a dressing?
A) Gauze pads
B) Cotton balls
C) Roller bandages
D) All of the above.

6. An example of an improvised dressing is:
A) a handkerchief.
B) a towel.
C) a cloth.
D) All of the above.

7. Which of the following is placed directly over an open wound?
A) Gauze pads
B) Roller bandage
C) Elastic bandage
D) Triangular bandage

8. When applying a sterile dressing, be sure not to:
A) touch any part of the wound.
B) touch any part of the dressing that will be in contact with the wound.
C) breathe on the wound.
D) Both A and B.

9. What is the purpose of a bandage?
A) To hold a dressing in place
B) To prevent contamination
C) To absorb blood
D) All of the above.

10. Which of the following statements concerning bandages is correct?
A) A bandage should be sterile.
B) A bandage should be clean.
C) Elastic bandages are most appropriate for use on wounds.
D) Bandages should always cover fingers or toes.

11. Which of the following is a sign or symptom that a bandage is too tight?
A) Blue or pale skin color
B) Coldness of the extremity
C) Tingling or loss of sensation
D) All of the above.

12. Basic types of bandages include roller bandages, self-adhesive bandages, elastic bandages, triangular bandages,
and ________.
A) rigid splints
B) adhesive tape
C) gauze pad
D) adhesive strips

13. The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions is:
A) a gauze roller bandage.
B) an elastic roller bandage.
C) a triangular bandage.
D) adhesive tape.

14. Which bandage is most appropriate for use as a sling?
A) Gauze roller bandage
B) Elastic roller bandage
C) Triangular bandage
D) Adhesive tape

15. When using a cravat bandage for an injured eye, cover ________ to prevent the injured eye from moving.
A) only the injured eye
B) the uninjured eye
C) both eyes
D) Never cover an injured eye.

16. Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?
A) Circular method
B) Spiral method
C) Figure-of-8 method
D) None of the above.

17. Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to provide compression at or near a joint?
A) Circular method
B) Spiral method
C) Figure-eight method
D) None of the above.

18. Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to wrap an injury to the ankle or foot?
A) Circular method
B) Spiral method
C) Figure-eight method
D) None of the above.

Chapter 11 Student Copy.doc

Chapter 11
Multiple Choice
1. An estimated 80% of all burn injuries occur:
A) at the workplace.
B) in the home.
C) in car accidents.
D) while recreational camping.

2. Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?
A) Younger than 5 years
B) Younger than 18 years
C) Older than 55 years
D) Older than 70 years

3. At what temperature does skin death and injury occur?
A) About 100F
B) About 113F
C) About 125F
D) About 158F

4. Which of the following are possible causes of thermal burns?
A) Contact with hot objects
B) Flammable vapor
C) Steam
D) All of the above.

5. An important fact related to chemical burns is:
A) the burning process is short.
B) the burning process will continue until the chemical is evaporated.
C) tissue destruction will continue until the chemical agent is removed.
D) the burning process stops upon exposure to air.

6. The three types of chemicals responsible for most chemical burns are:
A) acids, steam, and gas.
B) acids, alkalis, and organic compounds.
C) acids, steam, and organic compounds.
D) steam, gas, and alkalis.

7. Which of the following can result from an electrical burn?
A) Cardiac arrest
B) Respiratory arrest
C) Muscle spasms that freeze the victim to the contact point
D) All of the above.

8. Burns that affect only the outer layer (epidermis) of the skin are considered:
A) first degree (superficial).
B) second degree (partial thickness).
C) third degree (full thickness).
D) None of the above.

9. Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer are considered:
A) first degree (superficial).
B) second degree (partial thickness).
C) third degree (full thickness).
D) None of the above.

10. Burns that penetrate all the skin layers and into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:
A) first degree (superficial).
B) second degree (partial thickness).
C) third degree (full thickness).
D) None of the above.

11. A first-degree burn is also described as ________.
A) superficial
B) partial thickness
C) full thickness
D) None of the above.

12. A second-degree burn is also described as ________.
A) superficial
B) partial thickness
C) full thickness
D) None of the above.

13. A third-degree burn is also described as ________.
A) superficial
B) partial thickness
C) full thickness
D) None of the above.

14. Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of
burn?
A) First-degree (superficial)
B) Second-degree (partial-thickness)
C) Third-degree (full-thickness)
D) None of the above.

15. Skin that looks leathery, waxy, or pearly gray are characteristics of which type of burn?
A) First-degree (superficial)
B) Second-degree (partial-thickness)
C) Third-degree (full-thickness)
D) None of the above.

16. Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly?
A) First-degree (superficial)
B) Second-degree (partial-thickness)
C) Third-degree (full-thickness)
D) None of the above.

17. A rough guide known as the ________ assigns a percentage value of total body surface area
(BSA) to each part of an adults body.
A) rule of hand
B) rule of foot
C) rule of nines
D) rule of fives

18. The first step in caring for a burn victim with a first-degree or small second-degree burn is to:
A) check the ABCs.
B) run cold tap water over the area as soon as possible.
C) determine the extent of the burn.
D) activate EMS.

19. Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:
A) once the fire is dead.
B) immediately.
C) only if the clothing is not stuck to the skin.
D) All of the above.

20. According to the rule of nines, what percentage of an adults body surface is involved if both
legs are burned?
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 27%
D) 36%

21. According to the rule of nines, an adults arm represents what percentage of body surface
area?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 9%
D) 27%

22. For small or scattered burns, use the quick ________ to assess the extent of the burn.
A) three degrees
B) anatomic ratio
C) rule of nines
D) rule of the hand

23. The extent of a burn can be estimated by considering the victims hand size to be about ____
of his or her body surface.
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 9%

24. Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim?
A) When face, hands, feet, or genitals are burned.
B) When only circumferential burns are present.
C) Both A and B.
D) None of the above.

25. Under what minimal circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim?
A) The surface area of a second-degree burn is greater than 15% of the body surface area.
B) The surface area of a second-degree burn is greater than 20% of the body surface area.
C) The surface area of a second-degree burn is greater than 50% of the body surface area.
D) The surface area of a second-degree burn is greater than 65% of the body surface area.

26. Burn care aims to:
A) reduce pain.
B) provide physical protection.
C) provide a favorable environment for healing.
D) All of the above.

27. How long should cold be applied to the burned area?
A) Until the part is pain free
B) Until the part is numb
C) For several seconds
D) For up to 1 minute

28. A second-degree burn that covers a minimum of ________ of the body surface area in
children or elderly victims needs medical care.
A) 10% to 20%
B) 20% to 30%
C) 40% to 50%
D) 50% to 60%

29. Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than
____ of an adults body surface.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 75%

30. Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than
____ of a childs body surface.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 75%

31. An aloe vera gel or moisturizer may be applied to which type of burn?
A) First-degree
B) Second-degree
C) Third-degree
D) All of the above.

32. The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:
A) aspirin (adults only) or ibuprofen.
B) aspirin or acetaminophen.
C) ibuprofen (adults) or acetaminophen (children).
D) All of the above.

33. Ointments, grease, butter, cream, or home remedies are not applied to a burn because:
A) they may hold heat in.
B) they are unsterile.
C) they may lead to infection.
D) All of the above.

34. Why would a nonsticking, sterile dressing be placed over a burn?
A) To keep the burn clean
B) To prevent evaporative moisture loss
C) To reduce pain
D) All of the above.

35. Scald burns are the result of contact with:
A) hot air.
B) hot liquids.
C) hot objects.
D) ultraviolet light.

36. A(n) ________ burn results when an area of the body is fully immersed in a hot liquid.
A) thermal
B) chemical
C) immersion
D) spill

37. A(n) ________ burn occurs when a liquid spills, drops, or is thrown on a person.
A) thermal
B) chemical
C) immersion
D) spill

38. Neglect and nonsupervision of children in the kitchen and bathtub are frequent causes of
________ burns in children.
A) immersion
B) spill
C) electrical
D) thermal

39. The redness of a sunburn is caused by ________.
A) the dilation of the small blood vessels
B) the dilation of the large blood vessels
C) rupture of small blood vessels
D) rupture of large blood vessels

40. Topical over-the-counter burn ointments, sprays, or anesthetic sprays should not be used on
sunburns because:
A) they seal in the heat.
B) some products may cause allergic reactions.
C) toxicity can occur if the agents are used too frequently.
D) All of the above.

41. ________ skin always burns easily and never tans.
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

42. _________ skin rarely burns and tans deeply.
A) Type II
B) Type III
C) Type IV
D) Type V

43. For aftercare of a second-degree sunburn, apply ________ in a thin layer.
A) burn ointment
B) burn spray
C) antibiotic ointment
D) None of the above.

44. A(n) ________ burn is the result of an acid or alkali substance touching the skin.
A) thermal
B) chemical
C) immersion
D) spill

45. What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?
A) Read the chemical containers label for instructions.
B) Immediately flush with water.
C) Brush off the substance and flush with water.
D) Cover the area with sterile gauze.

46. Which type of chemical substance may be activated if flushed with water?
A) Dry chemicals
B) Petroleum products
C) Topical medications
D) Fluid or wet chemicals

47. When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

48. Do not try to neutralize a chemical process because the neutralization process may result in
further damage caused by:
A) mechanical irritation.
B) the electricity produced.
C) heat production.
D) radiation effects.

49. Flame, flash, and contact are terms to describe which type of injury?
A) Heat burns
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical burns
D) Scalds

50. Which type of electrical burn results when clothing or objects in direct contact with the skin
are ignited by an electrical current?
A) Thermal
B) Arc
C) True electrical injury
D) None of the above.

51. A ________ occurs when electricity jumps, or arcs, from one spot to another.
A) thermal burn
B) arc burn
C) electrical injury
D) All of the above.

52. Which type of burn injury is characterized by an entrance wound and an exit wound?
A) Thermal burn
B) Arc burn
C) True electrical injury
D) None of the above.

53. If you can safely reach the victim of electric shock caused by downed power lines, attempt to
remove the wires:
A) with a wooden tool.
B) with a tool with a wooden handle.
C) with a tree branch.
D) Do not attempt to move any wires.

Chapter 12 Student Copy.doc

Chapter 12
Multiple Choice

1. In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should expect ________ bleeding.
A) profuse
B) minor
C) very little
D) None of the above.

2. A severe scalp wound may have an accompanying concussion plus:
A) skull fracture.
B) an impaled object.
C) a spinal injury.
D) All of the above.

3. How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?
A) Apply direct pressure to the wound.
B) Apply pressure around the edges of the wound.
C) Do not apply any pressure to the head.
D) Irrigate the wound with clean water.

4. The first aider should place a victim with a scalp wound:
A) with head and shoulders slightly elevated.
B) on the back.
C) on the back with feet elevated 812 inches.
D) on the side.

5. A ________ is a break or a crack in the cranium.
A) contusion
B) concussion
C) skull fracture

D) scalp wound

6. Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of a:
A) concussion.
B) contusion.
C) skull fracture.
D) scalp wound.

7. Which of the following is a sign of a skull fracture?
A) Pain at the point of injury
B) Clear, pink, watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear
C) Deformity of the skull
D) All of the above.

8. First aid for a victim of an open skull fracture includes:
A) monitoring the victims breathing and if absent beginning CPR.
B) stabilizing the neck against movement.
C) covering the wound.
D) All of the above.

9. Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?
A) Concussion
B) Contusion
C) Hematoma
D) None of the above.

10. Which type of brain injury occurs when a blow to the head alters the function of the brain?
A) Concussion
B) Contusion
C) Hematoma
D) None of the above.

11. A concussion is considered a ________.
A) mild traumatic brain injury (MTBI)
B) moderate traumatic brain condition (MTBC)
C) severe traumatic brain injury (STBI)
D) life-threatening injury

12. Traumatic brain injuries include:
A) concussion and contusion.
B) penetration.
C) diffuse axonal.
D) All of the above.

13. A blow to the head strong enough to cause a contusion at the site of impact, as well as move
the brain, causing it to hit the opposite side of the skull is a:
A) concussion.
B) coup-contrecoup injury.
C) diffuse axonal injury.
D) penetration injury.

14. An injury in which shaking or strong rotation of the head causes a tearing injury is called a:
A) contusion.
B) coup-contrecoup injury.
C) diffuse axonal injury.
D) penetration injury.

15. An injury in which objects such as a bullet, knife, or other sharp object enters the brain is
called a:
A) contusion.
B) coup-contrecoup injury.
C) diffuse axonal injury.

D) penetration injury.

16. Acquired brain injuries can be categorized as:
A) anoxia.
B) hypoxia.
C) Both A and B.
D) None of the above.

17. What is the name of a condition in which the brain does not receive any oxygen?
A) Anoxia
B) Hypoxia
C) Axonal
D) Diffuse

18. What is the name of a condition in which the brain receives some but not enough oxygen?
A) Anoxia
B) Hypoxia
C) Axonal
D) Diffuse

19. Should you remove the helmet from a head-injury victim?
A) Generally, noremove the helmet in only a few instances.
B) Yes, remove the helmet if there are signs of a severe head injury.
C) Yes, remove a helmet that is so loose that the spine cant be stabilized.
D) All of the above.

20. Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?
A) Yes, let the victim sleep.
B) Yes, let the victim sleep, but wake him or her every 2 hours.
C) Yes, let the victim sleep, but wake him or her every 4 hours.
D) No, do not let the victim sleep.

21. You should seek medical attention if the head-injury victim develops which of the following
signs and symptoms within 48 hours of the injury?
A) Slurred speech
B) Seizures
C) Seeing double
D) All of the above.

22. When should you suspect a penetrating eye injury?
A) The lid is lacerated or cut.
B) The victim received blows to the eye.
C) The victim suffers from a chemical injury.
D) The victim received blows to the head.

23. What first aid should be given to a victim with a penetrating eye injury?
A) Seek immediate medical care.
B) Stabilize the object.
C) Cover the undamaged eye.
D) All of the above.

24. How should you treat a blow to the eye?
A) Apply an ice pack immediately for about 15 minutes.
B) Seek medical attention immediately.
C) Do not apply pressure to the eyeball.
D) All of the above.

25. How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?
A) Apply direct pressure to control bleeding.
B) Apply a pressure bandage to control bleeding.
C) Remove any object penetrating the eye.
D) Bandage both eyes lightly.

26. Which type of chemical penetrates the eye deeper and continues to burn longer?
A) Alkalis
B) Acids
C) Sulfuric acids
D) All of the above.

27. For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:
A) 5 minutes.
B) 10 minutes.
C) 20 minutes.
D) None of the above.

28. When flushing an eye burned by chemicals:
A) hold the victims head under a faucet, or pour water into the eye from a clean container.
B) use a clean eye cup.
C) Both A and B.
D) None of the above.

29. If an eye is avulsed from its socket:
A) push the eyeball back into the socket.
B) leave both eyes uncovered.
C) cover the eye loosely with a moist, sterile dressing.
D) cover the eye loosely with a dry, sterile dressing.

30. ________ in the eye are the most frequent eye injury and can be painful.
A) Large objects
B) Sharp objects
C) Loose objects
D) Wooden objects

31. To remove a loose object from the eye:
A) try flushing the object out by rinsing the eye gently with warm water.
B) rub the eye.
C) Do not try to remove the object.
D) keep the eye open widely.

32. To treat ultraviolet light burns to the eyes:
A) cover both eyes with cold, wet packs.
B) cover both eyes with warm, wet packs.
C) cover both eyes with hot, wet packs.
D) cover both eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

33. What should be done for the unresponsive victims eyes?
A) Leave them in the position found.
B) Tape them closed.
C) Cover them with moist dressings.
D) Both B and C.

34. How could you determine whether the victim is wearing contact lenses?
A) Ask the victim.
B) Check the drivers license.
C) Shine a light on the eye from the side.
D) All of the above.

35. What can you do to remove a live insect from the ear canal?
A) Shine a light into the ear.
B) Place several drops of mineral or vegetable oil into the ear.
C) Both A and B.
D) Do not attempt to remove an insect from the ear canal.

36. Under which circumstances can irrigation be used to remove small objects from the ear?

A) As long as the object is not near the eardrum
B) As long as the object doesnt block the entire ear canal
C) As long as the object is not vegetable matter
D) All of the above.

37. Most nosebleeds:
A) require medical attention.
B) are self-limited.
C) result in shock from blood loss.
D) involve massive bleeding.

38. A type of nosebleed is:
A) anterior.
B) posterior.
C) superior.
D) Both A and B.

39. Which type of nosebleed is the most common?
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Spontaneous onset
D) Progressive onset

40. In most cases, the proper position for a nosebleed victim is:
A) sitting with the head tilted slightly back.
B) sitting with the head tilted slightly forward.
C) lying on the back, with head slightly elevated.
D) Both B and C.

41. If a nosebleed continues bleeding after pinching the nostrils, you should:
A) have the victim gently blow the nose, and then resume pinching the nostrils.
B) place an ice pack against the nose for 5 minutes, and then resume pinching the nostrils.

C) have the victim lie down with legs elevated.
D) seek immediate medical care.

42. In which of the following situations should you seek medical attention for a nosebleed?
A) Bleeding cannot be stopped.
B) Bleeding is rapid.
C) Blood begins to go down the back of the throat.
D) All of the above.

43. How should you treat a suspected broken nose?
A) Treat a nosebleed by following normal procedures
B) Apply an ice pack to the nose for 15 minutes.
C) Do not try to straighten a crooked nose.
D) All of the above.

44. To remove objects from the nose:
A) induce sneezing by having the victim sniff pepper.
B) have the victim blow gently while you put compression on the opposite nostril.
C) use tweezers if the object is visible.
D) All of the above.

45. An object caught between teeth is best removed by:
A) using dental floss.
B) using a toothpick.
C) using a professional instrument from a dentists office.
D) Leave it there until it comes out on its own.

46. For a bitten lip or tongue:
A) get medical attention immediately if bleeding does not stop.
B) apply direct pressure to the area.
C) apply an ice pack to the area.

D) All of the above.

47. To treat a loosened tooth:
A) push the tooth back up into the socket.
B) pull the tooth completely out.
C) have the patient bite down on a piece of gauze.
D) apply aspirin to the affected tooth.

48. With proper treatment, the ________ of knocked-out teeth can be saved.
A) majority
B) minority
C) Teeth that have been knocked out cannot be saved.
D) None of the above.

49. A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if it has been put back into its socket within
____ minutes after the injury.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60

50. The best way to transport a knocked-out tooth is:
A) in yogurt.
B) in Hanks solution.
C) to transport it dry.
D) to transport it in the mouth.

51. What can be done to provide temporary relief from a toothache?
A) Use dental floss to remove food trapped between teeth.
B) Apply a small cotton ball soaked in oil of cloves to the tooth.
C) Give the victim pain medicine.

D) All of the above.

52. Under which circumstances should you suspect a spine injury?
A) All unresponsive victims
B) All head-injury victims
C) All victims of severe accidents
D) All of the above.

53. Before moving a conscious victim, check for spinal injuries if the victim was injured by:
A) a fall.
B) a diving accident.
C) a motor vehicle crash.
D) All of the above.

54. About ________ of head-injury victims also have a spinal injury.
A) 5% to 10%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 40% to 50%
D) 60% to 75%

55. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a spinal injury?
A) Pain radiating into the arms or legs
B) Weakness or burning sensation in the arms or legs
C) Loss of bowel or bladder control
D) All of the above.

56. Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?
A) Neck
B) Upper-back
C) Lower-back
D) None of the above.

57. Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?
A) Neck
B) Upper-back
C) Lower-back
D) None of the above.

58. Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?
A) Neck
B) Upper-back
C) Lower-back
D) None of the above.

59. A spinal injury victim often describes the pain felt as:
A) throbbing.
B) electric.
C) sharp.
D) aching.

60. To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:
A) pinch the victims hands and feet.
B) squeeze the victims hands and feet.
C) squeeze the victims fingers and toes.
D) tap the victims kneecaps with a blunt instrument.

61. Proper first aid for a victim with spinal cord injury is:
A) checking and monitoring breathing.
B) notifying the EMS.
C) stabilizing the victim against any movement.
D) All of the above.

62. To stabilize the spinal injury victim against any movement:
A) tell the victim not to move.
B) manually hold the victims head and neck still.
C) place objects on each side of the head.
D) All of the above.

63. A spinal injury victim who is in water should be:
A) floated to shore and carefully removed from the water.
B) floated to shore and then stabilized on a spine board.
C) immobilized and kept in the water.
D) left in the water as is until EMS personnel arrive.

Chapter 13 Student Copy.doc

Chapter 13
Multiple Choice

1. In a ________, the skin is not broken.
A) open chest injury
B) closed chest injury
C) semiopen chest injury
D) semiclosed chest injury

2. Broken ribs usually occur along the side of the ________.
A) chest
B) lungs
C) heart
D) None of the above.

3. Pneumothorax and tension pneumothorax are examples of injuries that can happen to the
________.
A) chest wall
B) lungs
C) heart
D) abdomen

4. The condition where air fills a portion of the chest cavity is called ________.
A) pneumothorax
B) hemothorax
C) open pneumothorax
D) tension pneumothorax

5. The condition where air in the chest cavity cannot exit, causing pressures that reduce heart and
lung function, is called ________.
A) pneumothorax
B) hemothorax
C) open pneumothorax

D) tension pneumothorax

6. What is the primary symptom of fractured ribs?
A) Pain
B) Nausea
C) Paralysis
D) Shock

7. What can be used to stabilize fractured ribs?
A) A soft object, such as a pillow
B) An elastic bandage
C) Adhesive tape
D) All of the above.

8. Paradoxical movement is a sign of ________.
A) Rib fracture
B) Flail chest
C) Pneumothorax
D) Tension pneumothorax

9. Signs and symptoms of flail chest include:
A) blood oozing from the injury site.
B) pain upon inhalation.
C) an object penetrating the chest.
D) abnormal movement of part of the chest wall during breathing.

10. If the chest wall moves in a direction opposite to that of the rest of the chest wall during
breathing, the victim is experiencing ________.
A) paradoxical chest movement
B) hemothorax
C) pneumothorax

D) tension pneumothorax

11. Emergency care of a flail chest includes:
A) providing rescue breathing.
B) supporting the chest.
C) applying a sling to the arm on the uninjured side.
D) transporting the victim yourself.

12. What first aid can be given to the victim of flail chest?
A) Apply hand pressure.
B) Place the victim on the injured side.
C) Monitor breathing.
D) All of the above.

13. What is the most important step in caring for a victim of an impaled object in the chest?
A) Removing the object
B) Controlling internal bleeding
C) Stabilizing the object in place
D) Controlling external bleeding

14. How do you care for a sucking chest wound?
A) Seal the wound.
B) Stop any external bleeding.
C) Stop internal bleeding.
D) Leave the wound uncovered.

15. What can be used to effectively seal a sucking chest wound?
A) Plastic wrap
B) A dressing
C) A thin cloth
D) A roller bandage

16. If the victim has trouble breathing after you have sealed a sucking chest wound, you should:
A) check the vital signs.
B) elevate the feet.
C) remove the seal to let air escape, and then reapply.
D) remove the seal and do not reapply.

17. ________ occur when the internal abdominal tissues are damaged but the skin is unbroken.
A) Closed abdominal injuries
B) Open abdominal injuries
C) Both A and B.
D) None of the above.

18. Closed abdominal injuries are also known as _________.
A) traumatic abdominal injuries
B) blunt injuries
C) sharp injuries
D) penetrating injuries

19. Care for a closed abdominal injury includes:
A) placing the victim on his or her side in a fetal position.
B) placing the victim on his or her side in a comfortable position.
C) calling 9-1-1.
D) All of the above.

20. Open abdominal injuries are also known as:
A) blunt injuries.
B) traumatic abdominal injuries.
C) sharp injuries.
D) penetrating injuries.

21. If an object has penetrated the abdominal wall, you should:
A) not remove the object.
B) stabilize the object in place.
C) control bleeding by placing bulky dressings around the object.
D) All of the above.

22. For an abdominal wound in which organs protrude, you should:
A) reinsert the organs.
B) cover the organs with a moist, sterile dressing.
C) cover the organs with a dry, sterile dressing.
D) cover the organs snugly with an elastic roller bandage.

23. Which symptom commonly accompanies a pelvis injury?
A) Severe pain
B) Shock
C) Massive internal blood loss
D) All of the above.

24. How should a first aider treat a victim with a pelvis injury?
A) Treat for shock.
B) Pad between the thighs, and then tie the knees and ankles together.
C) Keep the victim on a firm surface.
D) All of the above.

Chapter 9 Student COpy.doc

Chapter 9
Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following are characteristics of open wounds?
A) Break in the skin surface
B) External bleeding
C) Possible infection
D) All of the above.

2. Which results when the top layer of skin is removed, with little or no blood loss?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion

3. Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion

4. Which wound is smooth-edged?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion

5. Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Puncture

6. Which wound usually involves ears, fingers, and hands, and results in tearing of a flap of skin?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Avulsion

7. Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part?
A) Amputation
B) Incision
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion

8. Care for open wounds includes which of the following guidelines?
A) Protect yourself against disease by wearing exam gloves.
B) Expose the wound.
C) Control bleeding using direct pressure.
D) All of the above.

9. For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:
A) water.
B) soap and water.
C) hydrogen peroxide.
D) rubbing alcohol.

10. The best way to flush a wound is by:
A) letting water from a faucet rapidly pour into the wound.
B) pouring water into the wound from a container.
C) squirting water into the wound with a bulb syringe.
D) soaking the wound in a container of water.

11. ________ is the most important factor in preventing infection.
A) Irrigation with water
B) Scrubbing with soap and water
C) Using hydrogen peroxide
D) Irrigation with salt water

12. How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?
A) Using soap and water
B) Using hydrogen peroxide
C) Using a full-strength iodine preparation
D) They should be cleaned only by medical personnel.

13. What can safely be put on shallow wounds?
A) Antiseptic solutions, such as iodine, hydrogen peroxide
B) Antibiotic ointments, such as Neosporin
C) Betadine 10% undiluted solution
D) All of the above.

14. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
A) Soaking wounds is an effective method of cleaning wounds out.
B) Wounds that may scar should always be closed with tape or a butterfly bandage.
C) Applying antibiotic ointment reduces the risk of infection.
D) A first aider can effectively clean a large wound.

15. Which of the following should be used to irrigate a wound?
A) Isopropyl alcohol
B) Hydrogen peroxide
C) A full-strength iodine preparation, such as betadine
D) None of the above.

16. Which statement is TRUE concerning dressings for open wounds?
A) If the dressing becomes stuck to the wound, leave it on as long as the wound is healing.
B) If the dressing becomes stuck to the wound and it must be removed, soak it in warm water first.
C) A wet dressing may promote infection.
D) All of the above.

17. Which first aid supply is applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?
A) Dressing
B) Bandage
C) Tape
D) None of the above.

18. A ________ holds the dressing in place.
A) piece of tape
B) bandage
C) dressing
D) None of the above.

19. ________ wounds should receive medical care.

A) Shallow
B) Minor abrasion
C) High-risk
D) All of the above.

20. What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound?
A) Throbbing pain
B) Pus discharge
C) Fever
D) All of the above.

21. Which of the following factors increases the likelihood of wound infection?
A) Ragged or crushed tissue
B) Bite wounds
C) Dirt and foreign material left in the wound
D) All of the above.

22. Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?
A) Antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound in warm water
B) Antibiotic ointment, elevation, applying a pressure bandage
C) Antibiotic ointment, elevation, applying cold packs
D) All of the above.

23. Tetanus is caused by:
A) a toxin produced by a virus.
B) a toxin produced by a bacterium.
C) a toxin produced by a fungus.
D) a toxin produced by a protozoa.

24. Where is the tetanus bacteria commonly found?
A) Soil
B) Street dust
C) Pet feces
D) All of the above.

25. A victim with a dirty wound who has not had a tetanus booster for more than ____ years should receive a
booster.
A) 2

B) 5
C) 10
D) 15

26. Tetanus shots must be given within ____ hours of the injury to be effective.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 24
D) 72

27. What percentage of amputated extremities can be successfully replanted?
A) 10% to 15%
B) 25% to 40%
C) 50% to 65%
D) 80% to 90%

28. Which type of amputation is a clean-cut complete detachment?
A) Crushing
B) Guillotine
C) Degloving
D) None of the above.

29. What type of amputation occurs when an extremity separates by being crushed or mashed off?
A) Crushing
B) Guillotine
C) Degloving
D) None of the above.

30. What type of amputation occurs when the skin is peeled off?
A) Crushing
B) Guillotine
C) Degloving
D) None of the above.

31. Which type of amputation is the most common?
A) Crushing
B) Guillotine
C) Degloving
D) None of the above.

32. Which type of amputation has the poorest chance of reattachment?
A) Crushing
B) Guillotine
C) Degloving
D) None of the above.

33. In cases of complete amputation, the blood loss:
A) is sure to be heavy.
B) may not be heavy.
C) will be almost impossible for a first aider to control.
D) will usually require a tourniquet.

34. The first step in controlling bleeding from an amputation is:
A) applying a tourniquet.
B) applying a pressure bandage.
C) applying direct pressure.
D) applying direct pressure and elevation.

35. How should an amputated body part be cared for?
A) Rinse the part with clean water.
B) Rinse the part with rubbing alcohol.
C) Do not clean the amputated part.
D) Scrub the part with clean water.

36. The clean amputated part should be wrapped in:
A) a wet, sterile dressing.
B) a dry, sterile dressing.
C) fresh newspaper.
D) paper towels.

37. The cleaned, wrapped amputated part should be:
A) buried in a bed of ice.
B) placed on a bed of ice.
C) placed in a plastic bag.
D) surrounded by hot packs.

38. The bag/container with the wrapped amputated part should be:
A) placed on a bed of ice.
B) buried in a container of ice.
C) placed in a container of ice water.
D) surrounded by hot packs.

39. Repeated rubbing of a small area of skin will produce a(n) ________.
A) abrasion
B) amputation
C) laceration
D) blister

40. When caring for a friction blister try to:
A) avoid the risk of infection.
B) minimize pain.
C) promote fast recovery.
D) All of the above.

41. What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?
A) Cut off the entire roof of the blister.
B) Drain the fluid by making a small hole at the base of the blister.
C) Use a red-hot paper clip to puncture the roof and drain the fluid.
D) Pinch or squeeze the fluid out.

42. Once a blister has been opened, a protective bandage should be worn for ________ days or until new skin forms.
A) 2 to 3
B) 4 to 6
C) 10 to 14
D) 15 to 20

43. What can be done to prevent blisters?
A) Keep the skin lubricated.
B) Apply duct or adhesive tape to problem areas.
C) Wear proper clothing.
D) All of the above.

44. Care for impaled objects may include which of the following actions?
A) Exposing the area

B) Stabilizing the object with bulky dressings
C) Controlling bleeding with direct pressure
D) Both A and B.

45. The only time an impaled object can safely be removed is:
A) when it is stuck in the chest.
B) when it is stuck in the cheek.
C) when it is stuck in the back.
D) never.

46. If an object is impaled in the eye, it is vital that the first aider remembers to:
A) apply direct pressure to control bleeding.
B) never apply pressure to the eye.
C) cover the eye with sterile gauze and secure with a roller bandage.
D) leave both eyes uncovered.

47. Most slivers can be easily removed with:
A) tweezers.
B) pliers.
C) forceps.
D) None of the above.

48. For removing a large number of cactus spines, which of the following items can be used?
A) White woodworking glue
B) Rubber cement
C) Superglue
D) Both A and B.

49. Under which circumstances would you leave an embedded fishhook in place?
A) If the victim is uncooperative
B) If removing it would injure a nearby body part
C) If removing it would injure an underlying structure
D) All of the above.

50. A(n) ________ wound happens when a blunt object strikes the body.
A) open
B) closed
C) gunshot

D) None of the above.

51. A clot of blood under the skin is called a:
A) hematoma.
B) bruise.
C) contusion.
D) crush injury.

52. ________ occur when blood collects under the skin in the injured area.
A) Bruises and contusions
B) Bruises and hematomas
C) Crush injuries and hematomas
D) Bruises and crush injuries

53. Control bleeding in a closed wound by:
A) applying direct pressure.
B) applying a gauze bandage.
C) applying a heat pack.
D) applying an ice pack.

54. What steps should be taken to care for a closed wound?
A) Control bleeding.
B) Apply an elastic bandage.
C) Elevate an injured extremity if appropriate.
D) All of the above.

55. Which closed wounds always require medical care?
A) Long or deep cuts that need stitches
B) Cuts over joints
C) Cuts caused by crushing injury
D) All of the above.

56. Sutures should be made by a physician within ________ hours of the injury.
A) 1 to 2
B) 6 to 8
C) 8 to 10
D) 12 to 24

57. Which of the following are advantages of suturing wounds?
A) The wound heals faster.
B) Suturing reduces infection.
C) Suturing lessens scarring.
D) All of the above.

58. Which of the following wounds do not usually require stitches?
A) The skins cut edges tend to fall together.
B) The cut is more than 1 inch long and is deep.
C) The cut is less than 1 inch long and not deep.
D) Both A and B.

59. In a ________ wound, there is a bullet entry point but no exit.
A) perforating
B) penetrating
C) lacerating
D) crushing

60. In a ________ wound, there are both entry and exit points.
A) perforating
B) penetrating
C) lacerating
D) crushing

61 What does first aid for gunshot wounds involve?
A) Monitoring breathing
B) Controlling bleeding with direct pressure
C) Treating for shock
D) All of the above.

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