Question

# For the monopolist's problem, I got the answer by taking derivative of pi function through Q:

pi=(a0-a1Q+n+e)*Q-c0+c1Q^2

My question is:

Do I need to multiply q in pi function, cuz the pi function use c but cost function use capital C?

To find the variance Q, is Q function equal to a0+n+e/2(a1+c1) , which is the answer I got in question one.

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