81. What plane of motion does squatting take place in? Sagittal...

81. What plane of motion does squatting take place in?

1. Sagittal
2. Frontal
3. Transverse
4. Lateral

82. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?

1. Heimlich maneuver
2. Valsalva maneuver
3. Mueller maneuver
4. Diaphragmatic maneuver

83. Which of the following is the recommended exercise intensity level for a client with Type I diabetes?

1. Less than 40% MHR
2. 40-54% MHR
3. 55-85% MHR
4. More than 86% MHR

84. Which of the following describes a mesomorphic body type?

1. Slim and linear
2. Muscular
3. Short and stout
4. Round

85. Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?

1. Extremely thin
2. Extremely muscular
3. Ectomorph
4. Mesomorph

86. Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?

1. 6-9%
2. 10-13%
3. 14-18%
4. 19-23%

87. The systolic blood pressure reading of 140-159 is what stage of Hypertension?

1. Stage 2
2. Stage 1
3. Stage 3
4. High Normal

88. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin H
2. Reservatrol
3. Beta Alanine
4. Vitamin C

89. How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?

1. 1-3
2. 2-4
3. 7-8
4. 5-6

90. Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?

1. Job problems
2. Allergies
3. Overuse stress
4. Schedule conflicts

91. Exercises which include sprinting and weightlifting utilize which type of fiber?

1. Fast twitch
2. Slow twitch
3. Type I
4. Type A

92. During training, clients with hypertension should avoid which of the following?

1. Seated resistance exercises
2. Squat jumps
3. Rising slowly from seated exercises
4. Flexibility training

93. When the scapular adductors are weak, which postural deviation can occur?

1. Swayback
2. Kyphosis
3. Forward head
4. Lordosis

94. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?

1. Asthma
2. Hypertension
3. Arthritis
4. Coronary heart disease

95. Body composition testing determines which of the following?

1. Lean mass and fat mass
2. Overall bodyweight
3. Somatotype classification
4. Body mass index

96. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?

1. Macrocycle
2. Mesocycle
3. Microcycle
4. Foundational

97. Which of the following is the best way to earn a client's trust when they are feeling the water before jumping in?

1. Utilize a plan that has worked for similar clients
2. Let the client tell you what they want the plan to be
3. Dictate to the client what the plan will be
4. Create a plan that you have both jointly discovered

98. In a client's training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following?

1. Microcycle
2. Mesocycle
3. Macrocycle
4. Peak Cycle

99. The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?

1. Progressively increase over a period to time
2. Progressively decrease over a period of time
3. Remain the same
4. Acute decrease over a period of time

100. Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules?

1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fats
4. Glycogen

101. Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a female client?

1. 1 thumb
2. 2 thumbs
3. 1 fist
4. 2 fists

102. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?

1. Rest-pause
2. Pyramid
3. Occlusion
4. Superset

103. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?

1. Stop the workout, offer her water
2. Ask another trainer what to do
3. Refer her to her doctor
4. Ask the training manager what to do

104. Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?

1. Type IIx
2. Type II
3. Fast twitch
4. Slow twitch

105. Protein is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and which of the following?

1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
4. Nitrogen

106. A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?

1. 12 min run/ walk test
2. Medical clearance
3. Signed waiver
4. PAR-Q form

107. Programming tempo runs for a client who wishes to compete in a race represents which training principle?

1. Progressive overload
2. SAID principle
3. Henneman's size principle
4. 2-for-2 rule

108. A client performs 8 repetitions of seated leg press at 320 lbs., what is their estimated 1RM?

1. 420 lbs.
2. 400 lbs.
3. 460 lbs.
4. 480 lbs.

109. Utilizing the valsalva maneuver gives up to how much greater force?

1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 15%
4. 20%

110. Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client?

1. Liability waiver
2. Comprehensive client form
3. PAR-Q
4. Recovery assessment

111. Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss?

1. Minimally processed, slow digesting
2. Processed quickly, fast acting
3. A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates
4. Moderately processed, absorbed quickly

112. Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury?

1. Type I
2. Fast twitch
3. "Couch potato" fibers
4. Type II

113. In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data?

1. Stage 1
2. Stage 3
3. Stage 2
4. Stage 4

114. Which principle do emergency medical professionals use to reduce the pain and inflammation from an athletic injury?

1. RICE principle
2. FITT principle
3. HITT principle
4. NCAA principle

115. Which of the following stabilizes the knee on the posterior side?

1. Sartorius
2. Gracilis
3. Hamstrings
4. Quadriceps

116. Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise?

1. Triceps
2. Deltoid
3. Latissimus dorsi
4. Gastrocnemius

117. Which of the following increases the rate of fatty acid metabolism and decreases the rate of carbohydrate metabolism during aerobic exercise?

1. Fish oil
2. Caffeine
3. Alcohol
4. Magnesium

118. In an endurance mesocycle of a beginner's program, which rep and set scheme would be most appropriate?

1. 12-15 reps, 3 sets
2. 4-6 reps, 1 set
3. 8-10 reps, 4 sets
4. 2-5 reps, 5 sets

119. What is the MOST superficial muscle of the abdominals?

1. Internal oblique
2. External oblique
3. Transverse abdominis
4. Rectus abdominis

120. How long does the guided discovery stage of the drawing in phase last?

1. 2-3 weeks
2. 2-3 sessions
3. 4-6 weeks
4. 1 week

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