Which type of muscle arrangement runs parallel to the longitudinal...

Which type of muscle arrangement runs parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle?

1.  Parallel
2.  Unipennate
3.  Triangular
4.  Fusiform

Which of the following does HIT stand for?

1.  Healthy integrated training
2.  High integrated technique
3.  High intensity training
4.  Hyper-integrated technique

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

1.  Vitamin H
2.  Reservatrol
3.  Beta Alanine
4.  Vitamin C

If body fat has decreased but the scale has stayed the same, this means your client has gained which of the following?

1.  Fat mass
2.  Water weight
3.  Bone density
4.  Lean mass

How is strength usually measured?

1.  12-minute run walk assessment
2.  Push-up test
3.  Zipper stretch test
4.  1RM test

Which of the following is part of stage 1 of the drawing-in phase?

1.  Demonstrating sincerity
2.  Data collection
3.  Feeling the water
4.  Goal setting

Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?

1.  Core integration
2.  Postural development
3.  Dynamic balance
4.  Neuromuscular strength

Which of the following is a symptom of overtraining?

1.  Increase in body weight
2.  Decreased number of infections
3.  Lowered heart rate during exercise
4.  Decrease in performance

Which macronutrient is the most readily available for energy production?

1.  Fats
2.  Leucine
3.  Carbohydrates
4.  Valine

Approximately how many calories are in one gram of carbohydrates?

1.  4
2.  3
3.  5
4.  6

All activities begin in which energy pathway?

1.  ATP/CP
2.  Oxidative
3.  Glycolytic
4.  Aerobic

Body composition testing determines which of the following?

1.  Lean mass and fat mass
2.  Overall bodyweight
3.  Somatotype classification
4.  Body mass index

Obesity and stress are confirmed risk factors for which of the following?

1.  Arthritis
2.  Coronary heart disease
3.  Type II diabetes
4.  Kidney disease

At what age will most adults experience decrease ROM?

1.  40
2.  45
3.  50
4.  55

Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?

1.  Actin
2.  Myosin
3.  Type II
4.  Type I

Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?

1.  Type I
2.  Type II
3.  Type IIA
4.  Type III

What is an alternative exercise for the hanging leg raise?

1.  Crunches
2.  Straight arm pulldown
3.  Pushups
4.  Cable crossover

Which of the following is an example of an outcome goal?

1.  Lose 10 pounds
2.  Eat out only once a week
3.  Workout 3 days a week
4.  Go for a walk daily

Which of the following is an increase in size of the muscle fibers?

1.  Atrophy
2.  Hypertrophy
3.  Overtraining
4.  Overload principle

During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the trainer discuss the client's goals?

1.  Stage 4
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 1
4.  Stage 5

What exercise should be performed FIRST?

1.  Broad jump
2.  Back squat
3.  Split squat
4.  Power clean

Which of the following training principles dictates increasing load or intensity each mesocycle?

1.  Progressive overload
2.  GAS
3.  Quality training
4.  Individual differences

When the spine develops an S- or C-shaped curve, this imbalance is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Lordosis
2.  Flatback
3.  Scoliosis
4.  Kyphosis

Which of the following is used to determine the exact measurement of angles around the joint?

1.  Graded exercise test
2.  Passive ROM testing
3.  Goniometer
4.  Bioelectrical impedance

Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle?

1.  Golgi tendon organ
2.  Muscle spindle
3.  Muscle fiber
4.  Sarcomere

What type of grip denotes the palm facing upwards towards the ceiling?

1.  Pronated
2.  Neutral
3.  Supinated
4.  Mixed

What type of contraction is involved in controlling and stopping a movement?

1.  Eccentric
2.  Isometric
3.  Agonist
4.  Concentric

Which of the following body types will have an inflated BMI?

1.  Extremely thin
2.  Extremely muscular
3.  Ectomorph
4.  Mesomorph

The FITT acronym stands for which of the following?

1.  Fitness, Intensity, Training, Time
2.  Frequency, Integration, Training, Time
3.  Frequency, Integration, Total Volume, Tmax
4.  Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type

A weight training program that divides training sessions into upper and lower body training is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Superset training principle
2.  Set-system training principle
3.  Split system training principle
4.  Staggered sets training principle

Which of the following is required for weight loss and can also result in loss of lean body mass?

1.  Positive energy balance
2.  Excess calories
3.  Negative energy balance
4.  Total energy expenditure

Which of the following is used to measure the pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels during refilling of the heart?

1.  Systolic pressure
2.  Heart rate
3.  Diastolic pressure
4.  Pulse

Which of the following is a key strategy for nutrition coaching?

1.  Identifying and eliminating behavior goals
2.  Identifying and eliminating time constraints
3.  Identifying and eliminating limiting factors
4.  Identifying and eliminating outcome goals

The body is comprised of storage fat and which of the following?

1.  Brown fat
2.  Essential fat
3.  White fat
4.  Lipid fat

Protein is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and which of the following?

1.  Calcium
2.  Sodium
3.  Potassium
4.  Nitrogen

Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and which of the following?

1.  B
2.  C
3.  K
4.  H

Client differences are an important part of periodization and refer to which principle?

1.  SAID
2.  GAS
3.  Use/disuse
4.  Individual differences

What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients?

1.  Hypertrophy adaptations
2.  Neural adaptations
3.  Environmental adaptations
4.  Anaerobic adaptations

A client says they have a headache, what should the trainer do?

1.  Recommend they drink water, then stop the training session
2.  Give them Advil, then stop the training session
3.  Give them a prescription medication, then continue training session
4.  Give them Advil, then continue training session

Which of the following is the prime mover used in the lunge?

1.  Quadriceps
2.  Soleus
3.  Psoas

4.Gastrocnemius

What is the appropriate protein portion for women?

1.  2 palm portions
2.  2 cupped handfuls
3.  1 cupped handful
4.  1 palm portion

A bicep curl is an example of which of the following type of lever?

1.  1st class
2.  2nd class
3.  3rd class
4.  4th class

When the spine curves inward at the low back, this is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Kyphosis
2.  Lordosis
3.  Flatback
4.  Scoliosis

What are the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables per day?

1.  11-15 servings per day
2.  3-4 servings per day
3.  1-2 servings per day
4.  5-10 servings per day

How the body breaks down and uses energy for activity is which of the following?

1.  Anaerobic exercise
2.  Aerobic exercise
3.  Energy metabolism
4.  ATP/CP pathway

Which of the following is an example of a behavior goal?

1.  Lose 10 pounds
2.  Increase back squat by 10 pounds
3.  Workout 3 days a week
4.  Decrease mile run time by 1 minute

"Do not allow legs to bow inward or outward" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Hanging leg raise
2.  Tube walking
3.  Dumbbell incline bench press
4.  Lunge

What resistance training method divides one set into several mini-sets with rest?

1.  Eccentrics
2.  Rest-pause
3.  Pre-exhaustion
4.  Post-exhaustion

What does BMI stand for?

1.  Body metabolic index
2.  Body mass index
3.  Basal metabolic index
4.  Basal mass index

Which of the following are the four elements of fitness programs?

1.  Strength, cardio, flexibility, body composition
2.  Warm-up, cardio, strength, power
3.  Strength, power, cardio, flexibility
4.  Warm-up, strength, cardio, flexibility

Which of the following markers is an easy way to assess hydration levels in the body?

1.  Paleness of skin
2.  Excessive sweating
3.  Urine color
4.  Increased saliva

High Normal blood pressure is categorized as which of the following?

1.  140-159/90-99
2.  120/80
3.  130-139/85-89
4.  160/100

How many hours after a meal should a diabetic train?

1.  1-3
2.  2-4
3.  7-8
4.  5-6

When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?

1.  Macrocycle
2.  Mesocycle
3.  Microcycle
4.  Foundational

Which of the following is encouraged for nutrition coaching for positive reinforcement?

1.  Calorie counting
2.  Macro counting
3.  Food journal
4.  Exercise journal

The ATP/CP Pathway is best for which of the following activities?

1.  Running a marathon
2.  100m sprint
3.  30 minutes steady state cardio
4.  Tabata workout

If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?

1.  Tight shoulders
2.  Swayback
3.  Kyphosis
4.  Forward head

In order to calculate lean and fat mass, you must multiply the body fat percentage by which of the following?

1.  Height
2.  Age
3.  Activity level modifier
4.  Total body weight

Which of the following muscles make up the rotator cuff?

1.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
2.  Supraspinatus, teres major, teres pectoralis minor, subscapularis
3.  Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, levator scapulae

A client is 45 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75 bpm. Using the Karvonen formula, what is their target heart rate at an exercise intensity of 60%?

1.  145
2.  155
3.  165
4.  135

A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made?

1.  Over the phone
2.  In a face to face conversation
3.  Only in writing
4.  Asking the trainer's manager

If a client is suffering from insulin shock, what should a trainer give them?

1.  Sugar
2.  Fiber
3.  Caffeine
4.  Water

Which of the following forms would you use to gain insight into the daily nutritional habits of a client?

1.  Comprehensive client form
2.  PAR-Q
3.  3-day dietary record
4.  Food intolerance form

Which of the following is the prime mover used in the bench press?

1.  Trapezius upper
2.  Pectoralis major
3.  Biceps bracii
4.  Latissimus dorsi

Postural deviations can result in:

1.  Improved muscle balance, poor flexibility, proper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
2.  Poor muscle balance, improved flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
3.  Improved muscle balance, poor flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition
4.  Poor muscle balance, poor flexibility, improper spinal alignment, injury predisposition

Which of the following is an appropriate body fat range for a female client?

1.  6-9%
2.  10-13%
3.  14-18%
4.  19-23%

Which of the following is an example of a polyunsaturated fatty acid?

1.  Omega-6
2.  Oleic acid
3.  Amino acids
4.  Vitamin K

Which of the following detects the magnitude of mechanical stress at the musculotendinous junction?

1.  Nociceptors
2.  Muscle spindles
3.  Golgi tendon organ
4.  Chemoreceptors

Which type of stretching is beneficial for sports performance and involves momentum?

1.  Static stretching
2.  Self-myofascial release
3.  Contract-antagonist relax method
4.  Dynamic stretching

During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?

1.  Antagonist
2.  Assistant
3.  Prime mover
4.  Agonist

Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?

1.  Asthma
2.  Hypertension
3.  Arthritis
4.  Coronary heart disease

Which type of joint allows movement?

1.  Cartilaginous
2.  Synovial
3.  Fibrous
4.  Periosteum

Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?

1.  Moderate aerobic training
2.  Lying in the supine position
3.  Stretching before and after exercise
4.  Consuming additional calories

What occurs when exercise begins and the intake of oxygen doesn't immediately meet the demands?

1.  Oxygen deficit
2.  Oxygen debt
3.  Aerobic fitness
4.  Anaerobic fitness

Why are children more susceptible to heat exhaustion and stroke?

1.  Children's VO2 max capabilities are lower
2.  Children's muscular strength is low
3.  Children's metabolism is higher
4.  Children do not sweat as much

Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury?

1.  Type I
2.  Fast twitch
3.  "Couch potato" fibers
4.  Type II

What plane of motion do lateral raises take place in?

1.  Rotational
2.  Transverse
3.  Frontal
4.  Sagittal

In which of the following are the triceps considered the agonist?

1.  Bench press
2.  Preacher curl
3.  Overhead extension
4.  Chin-up

A client has a history of heart disease, what should the trainer request?

1.  12 min run/ walk test
2.  Medical clearance
3.  Signed waiver
4.  PAR-Q form

Which joint permits limited gliding movement and can be found in the bones of the wrist?

1.  Arthrodial
2.  Condyloid
3.  Ball and socket
4.  Trochoidal

Those who engage in cross training may experience which of the following?

1.  Increased risk of injury
2.  Positive orthopedic benefit
3.  Decreased risk of injury
4.  Specific adaptations

Which body type has a slower metabolic rate and does not tolerate carbohydrates well?

1.  Endomorph
2.  Mesomorph
3.  Ectomorph
4.  Endo-mesomorph

Cycling your training to help account for shock, compensation, and exhaustion is an important part of periodization and refers to which principle?

1.  Henneman's principle
2.  GAS principle
3.  Principle of size recruitment
4.  SAID principle

Which macronutrient contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules?

1.  Proteins
2.  Carbohydrates
3.  Fats
4.  Glycogen

Utilizing the valsalva maneuver gives up to how much greater force?

1.  5%
2.  10%
3.  15%
4.  20%

Which of the following increases the rate of fatty acid metabolism and decreases the rate of carbohydrate metabolism during aerobic exercise?

1.  Fish oil
2.  Caffeine
3.  Alcohol
4.  Magnesium

When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?

1.  Heimlich maneuver
2.  Valsalva maneuver
3.  Mueller maneuver
4.  Diaphragmatic maneuver

What percentage of your total body weight is made up of water?

1.  70
2.  60
3.  35
4.  25

Which of the following are the building blocks of protein?

1.  Fatty acids
2.  Amino acids
3.  Ribonucleic acids
4.  Alpha-linolenic acids

When is it okay for a client to become intimately involved with their trainer?

1.  If both parties consent to it
2.  Never
3.  If the trainer's manager knows about it
4.  Always

Which of the following is known as the powerhouse of the cell?

1.  Golgi apparatus
2.  Sarcolemma
3.  Mitochondria
4.  Creatine phosphate

The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?

1.  Gluteus
2.  Soleus
3.  Hamstrings
4.  Quadriceps

Which of the following is the prime mover used in a pull-up?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Latissimus dorsi
4.  Gastrocnemius

A client thinks they injured their shoulder, what should the trainer do?

1.  Check out the issue
2.  Have another trainer check out the issue
3.  Continue training the client
4.  Refer them to a doctor

In a client's training cycle, one day or training session is known as which of the following?

1.  Microcycle
2.  Mesocycle
3.  Macrocycle
4.  Peak Cycle

What is the daily water consumption recommendation?

1.  1 Liter
2.  4 Liters
3.  3 Liters
4.  2 Liters

How long does the guided discovery stage of the drawing in phase last?

1.  2-3 weeks
2.  2-3 sessions
3.  4-6 weeks
4.  1 week

Which of the following intake forms is necessary to ensure no prior medical concerns for a client?

1.  Liability waiver
2.  Comprehensive client form
3.  PAR-Q
4.  Recovery assessment

Which of the following is the smallest phase or cycle of training?

1.  Mesocycle
2.  Macrocycle
3.  Recovery cycle
4.  Microcycle

During which stage of the drawing-in phase should the liability waiver be signed?

1.  Stage 1
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 2
4.  Stage 5

For children between the ages of 5 and 12, what should strength training focus on?

1.  Sport-specific activities
2.  Becoming more flexible
3.  Increasing muscular strength
4.  Learning basic lifting techniques

What is the appropriate protein portion for men?

1.  2 palm portions
2.  3 palm portions
3.  2 cupped handfuls
4.  3 cupped handfuls

Approximately how many calories are in one pound of body fat?

1.  2500
2.  4600
3.  3500
4.  5600

Which type of contraction requires the muscles to "activate" but have no movement or change in muscle length?

1.  Concentric
2.  Isometric
3.  Eccentric
4.  Isotonic

Which of the following measures exercise intensity?

1.  Rate of perceived exertion
2.  Daily caloric intake
3.  Basal metabolic rate
4.  Heinneman's Size Principle

What is the suggested carbohydrate intake for male clients per meal?

1.  2 palm portions
2.  2 cupped handfuls
3.  1 cupped handful
4.  1 palm portion

Discussing the nutrient per amount of food is referring to which of the following?

1.  Nutrient density
2.  Caloric density
3.  Phyto-density
4.  Zoo-nutrient density

What exercise should be performed LAST?

1.  Shuttle runs
2.  Power snatch
3.  Overhead press
4.  Front raise

Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively?

1.  Eccentric
2.  Ballistic
3.  Concentric
4.  Isometric

Who should recommend a GXT for a client prior to starting an exercise program?

1.  Trainer
2.  Client
3.  Nutritionist
4.  Physician

Which of the following is the recommended exercise intensity level for a client with Type I diabetes?

1.  Less than 40% MHR
2.  40-54% MHR
3.  55-85% MHR
4.  More than 86% MHR

What is an inexpensive, portable, and common way to assess body fat in the fitness industry?

1.  DEXA
2.  Bioelectrical impedance
3.  Skinfold testing
4.  Hydrostatic weighing

Which of the following is an environmental stressor a client may experience?

1.  Job problems
2.  Allergies
3.  Overuse stress
4.  Schedule conflicts

Which of the following are categorized as carbohydrates?

1.  Sugar, animal proteins, starch
2.  Fiber, sugar, starch
3.  Starch, fiber, animal proteins
4.  Fiber, sugar, animal proteins

Approximately how many calories are in one gram of protein?

1.  4
2.  3
3.  7
4.  5

Which of the following describes a mesomorphic body type?

1.  Slim and linear
2.  Muscular
3.  Short and stout
4.  Round

Which of the following populations are environmental considerations such as pollen, allergies, and extreme temperatures key for?

1.  Youth
2.  Asthma
3.  Arthritis
4.  Hypertension

Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a female client?

1.  1 thumb
2.  2 thumbs
3.  1 fist
4.  2 fists

Which macronutrient is made up of carbon and hydrogen elements joined together in long groups called hydrocarbons?

1.  Proteins
2.  Magnesium
3.  Potassium
4.  Fats

Which assessment allows a trainer to understand a client's lean body and total fat mass?

1.  Body fat calculation
2.  Girth measurements
3.  Scale weight
4.  Photographs

Which of the following represents safe load increases for a beginner client?

1.  5-10%
2.  1-4%
3.  12-15%
4.  16-18%

A lateral leg raise demonstrates which type of movement?

1.  Adduction
2.  Extension
3.  Abduction
4.  Hyperextension

Weakness and numbness of the face, arm, or leg that is often only on one side of the body refer to which condition?

1.  Stroke
2.  Heart attack
3.  Diabetes
4.  Pancreatitis

Which of the following is total energy expenditure?

1.  Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, physical activity, and thermic effect of food
2.  A client's resting metabolic rate minus physical activity
3.  A client's resting metabolic rate minus thermic effect of food
4.  Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, sedentary activity, and thermic effect of food

Which of the following is the recommended duration of exercise for a beginner hypertensive client?

1.  20-30 mins a day, 2 days per week
2.  45-60 mins a day, 2 days per week
3.  20-30 mins a day, 4 days per week
4.  45-60 mins a day, 4 days per week

Which of the following is the best way to earn a client's trust when they are feeling the water before jumping in?

1.  Utilize a plan that has worked for similar clients
2.  Let the client tell you what they want the plan to be
3.  Dictate to the client what the plan will be
4.  Create a plan that you have both jointly discovered

When working with a new client utilizing tempo training, which portion of the exercise is drawn out?

1.  Concentric
2.  Hold at the bottom
3.  Eccentric
4.  Hold at the top

Programming tempo runs for a client who wishes to compete in a race represents which training principle?

1.  Progressive overload
2.  SAID principle
3.  Henneman's size principle
4.  2-for-2 rule

Which of the following populations is most at risk for Osgood Schlatter's disease?

1.  Pregnant
2.  Senior
3.  Youth
4.  Disabled

After training, how long does it typically take for DOMS to set in?

1.  6-11 hours
2.  49-72 hours
3.  12-48 hours
4.  1-5 hours

The need for different phases of training helps to prevent which of the following?

1.  Peak performance
2.  Rest and recovery
3.  Enhanced performance
4.  Overtraining

A client has a BMI of 24.8, which of the following categories would they fall into?

1.  Normal
2.  Overweight
3.  Obesity Class 1
4.  Underweight

How often should information be collected when working with a client?

1.  Only on the initial assessment
2.  Once a month
3.  Every time a trainer meets with them
4.  Only at reassessments

"Keep your heels on the ground" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Dumbbell incline bench press
2.  Squat
3.  Lunge
4.  Bench press

A trainer has an explosive-sport athlete client and has them perform explosive movements. Which of the following principles does this describe?

1.  Individual differences
2.  Progressive overload
3.  SAID
4.  GAS

Maximal heart rate is calculated by subtracting your age from:

1.  100
2.  180
3.  220
4.  200

Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?

1.  Actin and tropomyosin
2.  Tropin and myosin
3.  Tropoactin and myosin
4.  Actin and myosin

In which stage of the drawing in phase will you collect client data?

1.  Stage 1
2.  Stage 3
3.  Stage 2
4.  Stage 4

What exercise is most appropriate for testing muscular endurance?

1.  Push-up
2.  Bench press
3.  Back squat
4.  Bicep curl

When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?

1.  Left
2.  Front
3.  Right
4.  Back

A conditioned client's resting heart rate will be which of the following?

1.  Less than 60 BPM
2.  61-70 BPM
3.  71-80 BPM
4.  More than 81 BPM

"Keep shoulder blades down and together throughout the entire movement" is an appropriate cue to give clients during which of the following movements?

1.  Dumbbell incline bench press
2.  Chin-up
3.  Hanging leg raise
4.  Squat

Which of the following is primarily responsible for strength gains in youth clients?

1.  Hypertrophy training
2.  Neurological factors
3.  Power training
4.  Environmental factors

Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: shock, compensation, and exhaustion?

1.  Individual differences
2.  GAS
3.  Overload
4.  Specificity

Which of the following is the antagonist in the dumbbell curl?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Rhomboid
4.  Biceps

Marathon training primarily recruits which type of fibers?

1.  Type IIx
2.  Type II
3.  Fast twitch
4.  Slow twitch

Which of the following supplements assists in muscle contraction, immunity, and regulation of blood sugar?

1.  Protein powder
2.  Fish oil
3.  Vitamin D
4.  Magnesium

Which of the following is the best carbohydrate source to consume for weight/fat loss?

1.  Minimally processed, slow digesting
2.  Processed quickly, fast acting
3.  A combination of fast and slow carbohydrates
4.  Moderately processed, absorbed quickly

When levels of sodium in the blood are too low, which condition can occur?

1.  Hyponatremia
2.  Dehydration
3.  Proteinuria
4.  Decreased blood sugar

Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates?

1.  4 cups a day
2.  1 cupped handful
3.  120 grams
4.  3 servings

Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?

1.  Spine
2.  Shoulder
3.  Knee
4.  Ankle

If a client is in a hypertrophy-based phase, how many repetitions should be programmed?

1.  2-4 reps
2.  12-15 reps
3.  1-6 reps
4.  8-10 reps

Which of the following is the agonist used in the upright row exercise?

1.  Triceps
2.  Deltoid
3.  Latissimus dorsi
4.  Gastrocnemius

Which of the following is the recommended amount of fats per meal for a male client?

1.  1 thumb
2.  2 thumbs
3.  1 fist
4.  2 fists

A client is Type I diabetic and asks for a meal plan, what should the trainer do?

1.  Refer to a dietician
2.  Offer a templated meal plan
3.  Ask what their goal is and then prescribe meal plan
4.  Give a breakdown of macronutrients

Which of the following assessments is appropriate for testing upper body strength?

1.  Bench press
2.  Push-up
3.  Zipper stretch
4.  Bicep curl

What is the MOST superficial muscle of the abdominals?

1.  Internal oblique
2.  External oblique
3.  Transverse abdominis
4.  Rectus abdominis

The Law of Overcompensation and Overload allows for which of the following in regards to intensity?

1.  Progressively increase over a period to time
2.  Progressively decrease over a period of time
3.  Remain the same
4.  Acute decrease over a period of time

Which joint in the body is known as the saddle joint?

1.  Knee
2.  Ankle
3.  Thumb
4.  Atlanto-axial

Approximately how many calories are in 1 gram of fat?

1.  6
2.  7
3.  5
4.  9