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QUESTION 1 Susan is a 29 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a...

QUESTION 1

Susan is a 29 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and flank pain. During the visit, the NP does a urine dipstick and discover that Susan is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and >10 WBCs. The physical exam reveals a CVA tenderness. Her most likely diagnosis is:

a) Lower urinary tract infection

b) Abdominal virus

c) Upper urinary tract infection

d) Sexually transmitted disease


QUESTION 2

Ann is a primigravida in her 35th week of pregnancy and presents to the clinic with severe recurrent headaches, blurred vision, pitting edema, and right upper quadrant pain. Additionally, she has oliguria, nausea, and vomiting. Her urine protein is >1+. Her most likely diagnosis is:

a) Placentia previa

b) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HEELP) syndrome

c) Placental abruption

d) Severe preeclampsia


QUESTION 3

What is the earliest age at which one would not give DTap to a child but rather would give Td or Tdap?

a) 1 year old

b) 2 years old

c) 3 years old

d) 7 years old


QUESTION 4

Judy, a 28 y/o, presents to the clinic with a fever, vaginal discharge, and pain in the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower back. These symptoms are accompanied by chills, nausea, and vomiting. This presentation is most typical of:

a) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

b) Vulvovaginitis

c) Dysmenorrhea

d) Amenorrhea


QUESTION 5

The most common drug trigger for Stevens-Johnson Syndrome include all the following except:

a) ASA

b) NSAIDS

c) Anticonvulsants

d) Allopurinol

 

QUESTION 6

A patient with type 2 DM should have an eye exam for diabetic retinopathy every

a) 6-12 months

b) 12-18 months

c) 18-24 months

d) 24-36 months


QUESTION 7

Differential diagnoses for patients with alcohol use disorder would include all the following except:

a) Depression

b) Pulmonary disease

c) Peptic ulcer disease

d) Essential hypertension


QUESTION 8

Scott is a 16 y/o male who presents to the clinic with a tender testicular mass, but no pain. He has previously been diagnosed with cryptorchidism. His most likely diagnosis is:

a) Testicular torsion

b) Testicular cancer

c) Hodgkin lymphoma

d) A & B only


QUESTION 9

Sierra, a 42 y/o female, comes to the clinic to follow up on some lab work that was drawn at her last visit. Her labs showed a low TSH and an increase in both her serum free T4 and T3. Sierra's most likely diagnosis is:

a) Hypothyroidism

b) Primary hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)

c) Primary hyperparathyroidism

d) None of the above


QUESTION 10

The CDC recommends HPV vaccine for males until what age?

a) 18 y/o

b) 20 y/o

c) 26 y/o

d) 23 y/o


QUESTION 11

Oscar is a 41 y/o male who presents to the clinic with onset of fever, n&v, with a rapid onset of pain that radiates to the midback, epigastric region. On physical exam, you notice guarding over epigastric area and a positive Cullen's and Grey-Turner's sign. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) GERD

b) Acute pancreatitis

c) Hepatitis

d) Peptic ulcer disease


QUESTION 12

Artie is a 21 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of paroxysmal coughing without an apparent cause. He states that this has been going on for about 15 days. He initially had a mild fever and a runny nose. First-line treatment for Artie would include macrolides.

a)  True

b) False


QUESTION 13

The most common side effects of giving SSRIs to depressed patients include:

a) Diarrhea

b) Nausea and vomiting

c) Weight gain

d) Sexual dysfunction

e) All of the above

f) A, B & C only


QUESTION 14

Which of the following vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy?

a) MMR

b) Oral polio

c) Varicella

d) All of the above


QUESTION 15

Mary is going through puberty at 13 y/o and notices that her areola/nipples separate and form a secondary mound. This is what state in Tanner?

a) Stage 2

b) Stage 3

c) Stage 4

d) Stage 5


QUESTION 16

Oral contraceptives can be started anytime in the menstrual cycle.

a) True

b)  False


QUESTION 17

Mary is a 22 y/o female who is at 6 weeks gestation. She stated that her last menstrual period was June 10, 2020. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following is her expected date of confinement (EDD)?

a) March 17, 2021

b) March 10, 2021

c) April 10, 2021

d) April 17, 2021


QUESTION 18

Breast cancer in women is characterized by all of the following except:

a) Mobile mass on palpation

b) Mass is painless

c) Mass is typically found in the upper outer quadrant

d) Skin around breast is dimpled


QUESTION 19

John is a 7 y/o whose mother brings him to the clinic with the following chief complaint: "He fidgets and squirms all the time. His teachers tell me he has difficulty remaining in his seat, talks excessively, can't wait for his turn, interrupts conversations, and acts like a robot." After evaluation, the NP determines that he probably has which of the following:

a) Attention-deficit/hyperactive disorder (ADHD)

b) Developmental delays

c) Learning disability

d) Poor parenting


QUESTION 20

Risk factors for Alcohol Use Disorder include which of the following?

a) Family history

b) Stressful life events

c) Low socioeconomic status

d) All of the above

e) A & B only


QUESTION 21

Randy is a 29 y/o African American male who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30, does not exercise, and has evidence of metabolic syndrome. His most likely diagnosis is:

a) DM type 1

b) DM type 2

c) None of the above


QUESTION 22

Zina is a 34 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of 3 years of chronic heartburn. She states that she gets it after eating tacos and bacon. She has tried to self-medicate with OTC antacids with no improvement. In the exam, the NP notices a sour odor on Zina's breath, thinning tooth enamel, and a chronic red throat. Some lifestyle changes to treat Zina's condition would include which of the following?

a) Stop smoking

b) Avoid ASA

c) Avoid alcohol

d) Avoid caffeine

e) All of the above

f) A, C, and D only

 

QUESTION 23

People with darker skin require less sun exposure to produce Vitamin D.

a)  True

b)  False


QUESTION 24

Since UTIs are never "normal" in a male, what should the NP rule out as the cause of the infection?

a) Ureteral stricture

b) Acute prostatitis

c) STDs

d) All of the above

e) A & C only


QUESTION 25

Jeremy is suffering from chronic alcohol abuse. His symptoms include mental confusion, ataxia, stupor, and hypotension. The most likely diagnosis for these symptoms is:

a)  Korsakoff's syndrome

b)  Insomnia 

c) Anorexia nervosa

d)  Bipolar disorder


QUESTION 26

Carter, a 74 y/o male, comes for his annual physical exam and the NP notes that he has a very loud murmur with her scope off his chest, and that there is also an obvious thrill. This would describe which grade of murmur?

a) Grade III

b) Grade IV

c) Grade V

d) Grade 6


QUESTION 27

The most likely source of the shingles infection comes from the reactivation of a virus from which nerve root?

a) CN I

b) CN III

c) CN V

d) CN VII


QUESTION 28

Mike is a 22 y/o male who comes to your clinic with a 5-day history of cough without sputum production. He states that his cough is worse in the morning and he has some hoarseness, post-nasal drip, and a low-grade fever. Mike has otherwise been healthy. Treatment for Mike's condition would include all the following except:

a) Rest

b) Mucolytics

c) Antibiotics

d) Increased fluid intake


QUESTION 29

Carlos is a 64 y/o male who has previously been diagnosed as a Category A COPD patient based on Gold guidelines (2017). The Category A patient group includes which of the following?

a) Minimally symptomatic (low risk of exacerbation)

b) More symptomatic (low risk of exacerbation)

c) Minimally symptomatic (high risk of exacerbation)

d) High risk


QUESTION 30

Zina is a 34 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of 3 years of chronic heartburn. She states that she gets it after eating tacos and bacon. She has tried to self-medicate with OTC antacids with no improvement. In the exam, the NP notices a sour odor on Zina's breath, thinning tooth enamel, and a chronic red throat. The most likely diagnosis is:

a) Halitosis

b) Peptic ulcer disease

c) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

d) A or B only

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