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For Aristotle, the virtues were only virtues if enacted - in other words, virtue had to be active (you could not be courageous if you did not do courageous things). What is Kant's view of the question?
For Kant, it is really all about self-interest - he is fundamentally no different from Hobbes on this point, i.e., virtue is nothing more than enlightened self-interest.
For Kant, Aristotle is essentially correct - the virtues must be put into action, and intentionality is only one small (but important) part of moral evaluation.
For Kant, action does not matter - all that matters is that one has the right intention, i.e., to do duty for duty's sake.

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