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Need help to make sure I have the correct answers of these questions in United States Government. 1. The term participatory democracy applies most

Need help to make sure I have the correct answers of these questions in United States Government.

1. The term participatory democracy applies most accurately to which of the following societies? a. Greece in the fourth century B.C.

b. Modern China c. The United States since 1787 d. The Soviet Union between 1917 and 1990 e. The southeastern United States before the Civil War

2. In 1787, as the Constitution was being debated, __________ worried that the new government he helped create might be too democratic, while __________ who refused to sign the Constitution, worried that it was not democratic enough. a. John Adams; James Madison b. George Washington; George Mason c. Alexander Hamilton; George Mason d. Thomas Jefferson; Alexander Hamilton e. Patrick Henry; Samuel Adams

 3. In our political system, Aristotle's ideal of direct democracy has been most closely approximated by the ______. a. AFL-CIO b. U.S. House of Representatives c. New England town meeting d. Constitutional Convention e. southeastern United States before the Civil War

4. How did Aristotle define democracy? a. Rule of the few b. Rule of the one c. Rule of the powerful d. Rule of the many e. Rule of the elite

 5. For a representative democracy to work, all of the following must take place EXCEPT ______. a. opportunities for genuine leadership competition b. individuals and parties must be free to run for office c. genuine freedom of speech and press d. voters must perceive that a meaningful choice exists e. most of the money for campaigning must come from the government

GED 132 United States Government

 6. Who said the following: "The democratic method is that institutional arrangement for arriving at political decisions in which individuals [that is, leaders] acquire the power to decide by means of a competitive struggle for the people's vote"? a. Joseph Stalin b. Joseph Schumpeter c. Max Weber d. Karl Marx e. Søren Kierkegaard

7. Representative democracy is sometimes disapprovingly referred to as the _________ theory of democracy. a. limited b. aristocratic c. economic d. authoritarian e. elitist

8. Direct democracy is impractical because ______. a. one must be elected to be involved in politics full time b. elected officials do not have enough information or policy expertise c. the opinion of a single person is not relevant to democracy d. people often make decisions based on fleeting passions e. public policy is not a democratic institution

9. Under the Articles of Confederation, amendments had to ______. a. be written in secret b. be submitted to the national judiciary for approval c. have the approval of half of the state governors d. be agreed upon by all thirteen states e. be supported by a majority of the delegates

 10. The list of the essential rights demanded by the colonists included life, liberty, and ______. a. trading rights b. property rights c. the right to own slaves d. the pursuit of truth e. fraternity

11. Pennsylvania's government was considered "radically democratic" because it featured no ______. a. constitution b. written laws c. elected officials d. legislature e. governor

12. What occurred in January 1787 when a group of ex-Revolutionary War soldiers, fearful of losing their property to creditors and tax collectors, forcibly prevented the courts in western Massachusetts from operating? a. Shays's Rebellion b. Bacon's Rebellion c. Whiskey Rebellion d. Clarke's Rebellion e. The Boston Tea Party Rebellion

 13. The purpose of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to ______.

a. establish a new constitution b. consider revisions to the Articles of Confederation c. draft a declaration of independence d. adopt a common state constitution e. prepare for a second revolution

 14. To put down Shays's Rebellion, the governor of Massachusetts ______. a. personally led Continental Army soldiers b. relied on the state militia c. hired a volunteer army with private funds d. lobbied the Continental Congress to forgive the debts owed by the rebels e. asked Great Britain to help

15. The effect of Shays's Rebellion on attendance by delegates at the planned Constitutional Convention of 1787 was to ______. a. encourage attendance by delegates fearing the collapse of state governments b. encourage attendance by delegates fearing intervention by the British c. discourage attendance by delegates fearing a public outcry against any strengthening of the Articles of Confederation d. discourage attendance by delegates fearing intervention by the British e. discourage attendance by delegates who fought in the Revolutionary War

 16. In McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), the Supreme Court ruled that ______. a. states could from banks and tax them b. the national government could charter banks and the states could not tax those banks c. the national government's power was dependent on the states d. Congress erred when it created a national banking system e. states could not charter banks

17. A central premise in Marshall's analysis of federalism was that the government of the United States was established by ________. a. the convention b. the states c. the people d. the Supreme Court e. Congress

 18. In McCulloch v. Maryland, ______. a. the Constitution's "necessary and proper" clause permits Congress to take actions when it is essential to a power that Congress has b. the Constitution's commerce clause gives the national government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce c. Congress may not act to subject nonconsenting states to lawsuits in state courts d. the states may not regulate interstate commerce e. the national government's authority to require state officials to administer or enforce a federal regulation is limited

19. The doctrine of nullification refers to ______. a. the power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution b. the claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S. Constitution c. the power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution d. the authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections e. the power of the federal government to invalidate state laws on matters of commerce

20. When Congress passed laws (in 1798) to punish newspaper editors who published stories critical of the federal government, these two political leaders suggested in the Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions that the states had the right to nullify a federal law that, in the state's opinion, violated the Constitution. a. James Madison and Thomas Jefferson b. John Adams and Alexander Hamilton c. John Dickinson and George Clinton d. Samuel Athe dams and John Hancock e. John Jay and John Marshall

21. During the battle over slavery, the case for nullification was forcefully presented by ______.to  a. William Jennings Randolph b. Robert E. Lee c. William Graham Sumner d. John C. Calhoun e. Jeb Stuart 22. The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a protracted debate on the subject of ______. a. commerce b. banking c. manufacturing d. welfare e. licensing of commercial fishermen

23. Initially, it was supposed that ______. a. Congress could regulate interstate commerce b. Congress could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce c. the state governments could regulate interstate commerce d. the state governments could regulate interstate and intrastate commerce e. there was no distinction between interstate and intrastate commerce

 24. The interstate commerce that the federal government can regulate is now interpreted to include ______. a. almost any kind of economic activity b. only the movement of goods between states c. almost any commerce in goods, but not labor transactions d. commerce between states and a handful of transactions within states e. shipping and handling, but not production

25. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Supreme Court's modern rulings on the regulation of interstate commerce? a. The Court allows federal regulation of almost anything related to interstate commerce. b. The Court permits only to state regulation of most interstate commerce. c. The Court has excluded every type of service provider from federal regulation. d. The Court allows limited federal regulation of interstate commerce. e. No regulation of interstate commerce is permitted by the state or federal governments


1. The Bill of Rights has come to apply to the states through the interpretation of ______. a. the Fourteenth Amendment b. the Tenth Amendment c. the commerce clause d. Article III e. the necessary and proper clause

2. The earliest incorporations of portions of the Bill of Rights relied on ______. a. the notion of a reasonable person b. the shock-the-conscience test c. a rational basis standard d. the due process and equal protection clauses e. the notions of ordered liberty and fundamental rights

3. In this Supreme Court decision, the Court held that the federal guarantees of free speech and free press also applied to the states. a. Marbury b. Barron c. Gitlow d. McDonald e. Heller

4. In Palko v. Connecticut (1937) the Supreme Court broadly ruled that certain provisions of the national Bill of Rights apply to the states because of ______. a. the notion of a reasonable person b. the shock-the-conscience test c. a rational basis standard d. the due process and equal protection clauses e. the notions of ordered liberty and fundamental rights

5. Which term best describes the manner in which the Supreme Court has applied the Bill of Rights to the states? a. Incorporation b. Selective incorporation c. Complete incorporation d. Consecutive incorporation e. Minimal incorporation Unit 2 Examination 75 GED 132 United States Government

6. What case determined that the federal government could not ban the private possession of firearms? a. McDonald v. Chicago b. Palko v. Connecticut c. District of Columbia v. Heller d. Gitlow v. New York e. Near v. Minnesota

 7. The First Amendment does not address ______. a. freedom of religion b. the right to bear arms c. freedom of the press d. freedom of speech e. freedom of assembly

8. The Supreme Court justice who compared some political speech to falsely shouting "Fire!" in a theater was ______. a. Louis Brandeis b. Felix Frankfurter c. William Rehnquist d. Warren Burger e. Oliver Wendell Holmes

 9. Writing for the Supreme Court, Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes proclaimed that Congress could punish dangerous speech when that speech ______. a. represented a "clear and present danger" to the United States b. incited citizens to commit a lawless action c. was false d. promoted communism e. was slander 10. As its rationale for the decision in Brown, the Supreme Court relied primarily on ______. a. the intent of the framers of the Constitution b. the intent of Congress regarding the Fourteenth Amendment c. social science evidence d. a narrow interpretation of the U.S. Constitution e. the redress of grievances clause in the First Amendment

 11. The difference between de facto and de jure segregation is that ______. a. the former results from private choices, the latter from public law b. the former results from public law, the latter from private choices c. the former existed in the past, the latter continues in the present d. the former is illegal, the latter is legal e. the former deals with perceptions, the latter deals with verified facts

12. The practice of court-ordered busing plans to remedy school segregation patterns was approved in the case of ______. a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Sipuel v. County Trustee c. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education d. Green v. County School Board of New Kent County e. Plessy v. Ferguson

 13. Rosa Parks had a tremendous impact on the civil rights movement when she refused to ______. a. surrender her seat on a bus b. be bussed to a white school c. run for political office d. ride a train e. vote in a white primary

14. The philosophy of civil disobedience suggests that there is value to ______. a. protesting against laws that are not enforced by civil authorities b. peacefully violating the law c. violating all laws with respect to civility d. protesting in a legal manner, and forming militant organizations e. using violence when laws are not conducive to civil society

 15. One factor helping to break the deadlock that developed in the civil rights movement during the early 1960s was the ______. a. media coverage of violence by white segregationists b. Supreme Court's ruling in Brown v. Board of Education c. decentralization of power in the House and Senate d. civil unrest that shook several northern cities e. election of Republican presidents

  16. Dr. Martin Luther King's "I have a dream" speech was given in front of ______. a. the White House b. the Washington Monument c. the Capitol d. the Lincoln Memorial e. the Library of Congress

17. The textbook discusses how the growing political strength of blacks is evident because ______. a. more than 10,500 blacks hold elective office at all levels of government b. Republican officials have replaced Democratic officials throughout the South c. six senators and twelve House members are black d. two blacks from the same state have been elected to the Senate and House e. one-third of all southern blacks are now registered voters

18. In their struggle for equal treatment, women, unlike blacks, had to deal with a legal tradition that ______. a. claimed to be protecting them b. regarded them as chattel c. had always treated them as equal in theory d. had consistently ignored them e. had accorded them special rights and responsibilities 19. The origin of the movement to give more rights to women was probably the ______. a. Rights Manifesto b. Seneca Falls Convention c. Nineteenth Amendment d. "Rosie the Riveter" worker e. Equal Rights Amendment

 20. When researchers compare how identical twins (who are genetically the same) think about politics with how fraternal twins (who share only half of their genes) think about politics, they found ______. a. that both groups held similar political opinions b. fraternal twins held similar political opinions to one another, compared to identical twins c. identical twins are much more likely to have similar political views than fraternal twins d. the partisan view of the parents matter more than genes e. there is no relationship between genetics and political views

21. According to the text, one reason that identification with a party has declined in recent years is that ______. a. young voters have weaker party identification b. party identification today is no longer influenced by parents' party identification c. today, there are more parties with which voters can identify d. voters tend to lose their party identification as they grow older, and today's population is aging e. party identification is increasingly seen as a sign of closed-mindedness

 22. According to the text, people of all religions who attend worship services regularly are ______. a. less likely to vote Republican b. more likely to vote for independent candidates c. less likely to vote Democrat d. more likely to vote for Green Party candidates e. less likely to vote

 23. The _______ to the U.S. Constitution ensures that women have the right to vote. a. Seventeenth Amendment b. Eighteenth Amendment c. Nineteenth Amendment d. Twentieth Amendment e. Twenty-First Amendment

24. The ________, a faction of the Republican Party, were opposed to the patronage system and favored nonpartisan elections at the city level. a. stalwarts b. Whigs c. Old Guards d. Jacksonians e. progressives

25. Progressives called for electoral reforms, such as the initiative and the referendum, to give ______. a. Congress a way of controlling the president b. citizens a direct say in making laws c. courts a system for prosecuting election fraud d. governors more power in relation to legislatures e. party regulars a say in nominating candidates

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